Evolutionary Biology Exam Review - 1189 Verified Questions

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Evolutionary Biology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Evolutionary Biology explores the processes that have shaped the diversity of life on Earth, focusing on mechanisms such as natural selection, genetic drift, mutation, and gene flow. Students will examine the historical development of evolutionary theory, the evidence supporting it, and the ways in which evolution influences the adaptation and speciation of organisms. The course also addresses topics such as population genetics, phylogenetics, and the evolutionary relationships among major groups of organisms, providing a comprehensive understanding of how evolutionary forces operate at both the molecular and ecological levels.

Recommended Textbook

Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug

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25 Chapters

1189 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bioinformatics is a discipline involved in the development of both hardware and software for processing,storing,and retrieving nucleotide and protein data.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) List the two relatively complex processes in which genetic information is converted into functional products.

Answer: transcription and translation

Q3) In nonviral systems,what is the nature of the hereditary substance?

Answer: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)is a double-stranded polymer organized as a double helix.

Q4) Recombinant DNA technology is dependent on a particular class of enzymes,known as ________ that cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.

Answer: restriction enzymes

Q5) Given that DNA is the genetic material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes,what other general structures (macromolecules)and substances made by the cell are associated with the expression of that genetic material?

Answer: RNA (messenger,ribosomal,transfer),ribosomes,enzymes,proteins

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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a healthy female,how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?

A) 200; 50

B) 100; 50

C) 200; 300

D) 100; 100

E) 50; 50

Answer: D

Q2) List in order of occurrence the phases of (a)mitosis and (b)prophase I of meiosis. Answer: (a)prophase,prometaphase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase (b)leptonema,zygonema,pachynema,diplonema,diakinesis

Q3) What hypothesis concerns the evolutionary origin of eukaryotic organelles?

A) endosymbiont hypothesis

B) homologous hypothesis

C) analogous hypothesis

D) evolutionary hypothesis

E) Darwinian hypothesis

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mendel's discoveries were well received and understood by his contemporaries.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Assuming no crossing over between the gene in question and the centromere,when do alleles segregate during meiosis?

Answer: meiosis I,when homologous chromosomes go to opposite poles

Q3) Mendel's postulate of independent assortment is supported by a 1:1:1:1 testcross ratio.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) Assuming complete dominance,a 3:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid sib or self-cross.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q5) How many kinds of gametes will be expected from an individual with the genotype PpCcTTRr?

Answer: 8

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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a mating between individuals with the genotypes I i × ii,what percentage of the offspring are expected to have the O blood type?

Q2) What term is used to express the idea that several genes exert influence over the same characteristic?

A) coextension

B) co-adhesion

C) terminal interaction

D) gene interaction

E) transformation

Q3) Multiple mutations that are found to be present in a single gene are said to belong to the same ________ group.

A) phenotypic

B) allelic

C) transfer

D) complementation

E) expression

Q4) Assume that a dihybrid F ratio,resulting from epistasis,was 9:3:4.If a double heterozygote was crossed with the fully recessive type,what phenotypic ratio is expected among the offspring?

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Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that all the offspring are either AaBb or aabb.These results are consistent with the following circumstance:

A) complete linkage.

B) alternation of generations.

C) codominance.

D) incomplete dominance.

E) hemizygosity.

Q2) What two terms apply to the fusion of cultured human and mouse cells that produces cell lines that are useful in assigning a gene to a particular human chromosome?

A) forward and reverse

B) lod score and pod score

C) heterokaryon and synkaryon

D) single and double

E) positive and negative

Q3) Who was the student in Morgan's laboratory who first realized that the sequence of genes could be determined by Morgan's proposal that two genes located relatively close to each other are less likely to form chiasma between them than if the two genes were relatively far apart?

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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain what is meant by the term heteroduplex in the context of bacterial transformation.

Q2) Lysogeny is most likely associated with transduction.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Cotransduction of genes is an indication that the genes are linked.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Assume that one counted 67 plaques on a bacterial plate where 0.1 ml of a 10 dilution of phage was added to bacterial culture.What is the initial concentration of the undiluted phage?

Q5) When a bacteriophage genome incorporates itself into the chromosome of the host,that phage genome is referred to as a(n)________.

Q6) What is a significant difference between a lytic and a lysogenic cycle?

Q7) Compare and contrast bacteriophage lysis and lysogeny.

Q8) Lysogeny is a process that occurs during transformation and conjugation. A)True B)False

Q9) Name three forms of recombination in bacteria. Page 8

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Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Drosophila,sex is determined by the ratio of the number of X chromosomes to the number of haploid sets of autosomes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Describe three distinct genetic regions of the human Y chromosome.

Q3) Dosage compensation in mammals typically involves the random inactivation of one of the two X chromosomes relatively early in development.Such X chromosome inactivation often leads to phenotypic mosaicism.Assume that black fur in cats is due to the X-linked recessive gene b,whereas its dominant allele B produces yellow fur.A Bb heterozygote is a mosaic called "tortoise shell" or "calico." Using appropriate gene symbols,diagram a mating between a black male and a calico female.Give the phenotypes and genotypes of all the offspring.

Q4) An individual with Turner Syndrome has no Barr bodies.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Klinefelter and Turner syndromes have how many chromosomes,respectively?

Q6) Under what condition might a human female have the XY sex chromosome complement?

Q7) List three abnormalities involving numbers of X chromosomes.

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Q8) What can cause phenotypic mosaicism for X-linked genes in female mammals?

Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assume that a species has a diploid chromosome number of 24.The term applied to an individual with 25 chromosomes would be triploid.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Familial Down syndrome is caused by a translocation involving chromosome 21. A)True

B)False

Q3) The term aneuploidy is synonymous with the term segmental deletion.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosomes 1 and 14.

A)True B)False

Q5) Doubling the chromosomes of a sterile species hybrid with colchicine or cold shock is a method used to produce a fertile species hybrid (amphidiploid).

A)True

B)False

Q6) Name two methods used in genetic prenatal diagnostic testing in humans.

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Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Kearns-Sayre syndrome (KSS)results in progressive loss of vision and hearing,as well as heart defects.What is the genetic basis for this disease?

Q2) Mitochondrial mutations are passed equally to offspring by both males and females.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In what way do segregational petite mutations differ from neutral petites?

Q4) List two classes of extrachromosomal inheritance and give an example of each.

Q5) Why is variegation in four o'clock plants determined by the phenotype of the ovule source?

Q6) List three organisms that provide examples of organelle heredity.

Q7) What is the expression pattern of dominant-negative mutations in petite strains of yeast?

A) Expression of wild-type mitochondria is enhanced.

B) Expression of mutant mitochondria resembles expression of wild-type mitochondria.

C) Mitochondria show enhanced capacity of oxidative phosphorylation.

D) The function of wild-type mitochondria is suppressed.

E) Mitochondrial membranes become hyperpolarized.

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Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding the structure of DNA,the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n)________.

A) nucleotide

B) ribonucleotide

C) monophosphate nucleoside

D) oligonucleotide

E) nucleoside

Q2) What type of chemical bond holds the two strands together in double-stranded DNA?

Q3) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of double-stranded DNA to see which bases are equivalent in concentration,which of the following would be true?

A) A = C

B) A = G and C = T

C) A + C = G + T

D) A + T = G + C

E) A = G and C = T and A + C = G + T are both true.

Q4) At what approximate wavelengths do DNA,RNA,and proteins maximally absorb light?

Q5) What is the name of the precursor molecule used in nucleic acid synthesis?

Q6) List three forms of DNA.

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Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the function of the RecA protein.

Q2) Which of the following terms accurately describes the replication of DNA in vivo?

A) conservative

B) dispersive

C) semidiscontinuous

D) nonlinear

E) nonreciprocal

Q3) What primary ingredients,coupled with DNA polymerase I,are needed for the in vitro synthesis of DNA?

Q4) Structures located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called ________. A) centromeres

B) telomerases

C) recessive mutations

D) telomeres

E) permissive mutations

Q5) What is the name of the replication unit in prokaryotes,and how does it differ in eukaryotes?

Q6) List four enzymes known to be involved in the replication of DNA in bacteria.

Q7) During DNA replication,what is the function of RNA primase?

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Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Briefly describe the makeup of VNTRs (variable number tandem repeats).

Q2) Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Viral genomes are always linear,double-stranded DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Approximately how much of the mammalian genome is composed of repetitive DNA?

Q5) In instances in the eukaryotic genome,DNA sequences represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes.What are such regions called and what are their characteristics?

Q6) Describe the basic structure of a nucleosome.What is the role of histone H1?

Q7) In contrast with euchromatin,heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.

A)True

B)False

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Q8) What are histones,and how are they arranged in nucleosomes?

Q9) What similarities do bacterial chromosomes have with eukaryotic chromosomes?

Q10) Briefly state what is meant by repetitive DNA.

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Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription

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Sample Questions

Q1) It has been recently determined that the gene for Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)is more than 2000 kb (kilobases)in length; however,the mRNA produced by this gene is only about 14 kb long.What is a likely cause of this discrepancy?

A) The exons have been spliced out during mRNA processing.

B) The DNA represents a double-stranded structure, whereas the RNA is single-stranded.

C) There are more amino acids coded for by the DNA than by the mRNA.

D) The introns have been spliced out during mRNA processing.

E) When the mRNA is produced, it is highly folded and therefore less long.

Q2) Significant in the deciphering of the genetic code was the discovery of the enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase.What is this enzyme used for?

A) manufacture of synthetic RNA for cell-free systems

B) ribosomal translocation

C) peptide bond formation

D) production of ribosomal proteins

E) degradation of RNA

Q3) Describe how the sigma subunit (factor)of E.coli RNA polymerase participates in transcription.

Q4) What is meant by the term heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)?

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Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Knowing that the base sequence of any given messenger RNA is responsible for precisely ordering the amino acids in a respective protein,present two mechanisms by which intrinsic properties of mRNA may regulate the "net output" of a given gene.

Q2) List at least three posttranslational modifications known to occur as a newly synthesized protein matures.

Q3) Which of the following are among the major components of prokaryotic ribosomes?

A) 12S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and proteins

B) 16S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 28S rRNA

C) 16S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 23S rRNA

D) lipids and carbohydrates

E) 18S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and proteins

Q4) When a metabolic block occurs in a biochemical pathway,it is common for amount of the substance immediately prior to that block to increase.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Early in the 1900s,Sir Archibald Garrod studied a number of metabolic defects in humans.One particular disorder involved the inability to metabolize homogentisic acid.What is the name of this disorder?

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Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transposons,or jumping genes,are DNA elements that move within the genome.In which organismic groups are transposons found?

A) bacteria

B) eukaryotes

C) mammals

D) ancient bacteria

E) all organismic groups

Q2) Postreplication repair is a system that responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and failed to be completely replicated.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In general,mutation rates in humans occur in the range of ________ (frequency)per gamete per generation.

Q4) The process of error correction of mismatched bases carried out by DNA polymerases is called ________.

Q5) What are LINES?

Q6) Considering the electromagnetic spectrum,identify likely mutagens from the following list: radio waves,microwaves,infrared,ultraviolet,X-rays,gamma rays,cosmic rays.

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Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E.coli,a gratuitous inducer is a molecule that is chemically analogous to lactose and induces the operon,but is not a substrate for the enzymes of the lac operon.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Under a system of positive control,transcription does not occur unless a regulator molecule directly stimulates RNA production.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which term most appropriately refers to a regulatory protein in prokaryotes?

A) translation

B) RNA processing

C) DNA binding protein

D) gyrase action

E) helicase activation

Q4) What experimental results would indicate that the mutation lacI is dominant to lacI ?

Q5) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon?

Q6) What is an allosteric molecule?

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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes

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Q1) Which process seems to be the most similar between eukaryotic and prokaryotic genetic regulation?

A) transcriptional regulation

B) RNA splicing regulation

C) intron/exon shuffling

D) 5 -capping regulation

E) poly(A) tail addition

Q2) When transcription factors interact with DNA,is the resulting genetic control typically positive or negative?

Q3) Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are ________.

A) microsatellites and transposons

B) rDNA and nucleolar organizers

C) TATA and CAAT

D) TTAA and CCTT

E) enhancers and telomeres

Q4) List three major structural classifications of DNA-binding domains that are found in eukaryotic transcription factors.

Q5) What is meant by the term helix-turn-helix (HTH)?

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Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics

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Q1) During development,many genes act in such a way as to decrease the number of alternative developmental pathways that a cell can follow.Usually there are two alternative developmental paths for a cell to follow.What is the term given to genes that act in this fashion?

Q2) Provide a brief description of segment polarity genes,including their regulation and their molecular and developmental effects.

Q3) Give a brief definition of a homeobox.

Q4) Which of the following is a fundamental characteristic of the Notch pathway?

A) It works through nuclear signals involving the lac operon.

B) It works through direct cell to cell contact.

C) It allows mRNAs to accumulate in the posterior portion of the Drosophila embryo.

D) It directs mRNAs to antisense systems in the posterior portion of all organisms.

E) It provides symmetry to plant flowers.

Q5) How does determination relate temporally to differentiation?

Q6) What significant conclusion has the classic work on the eyeless and Pax6 genes provided in terms of developmental mechanisms?

Q7) Define determination and differentiation.

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Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle

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Q1) The genetic difference between familial retinoblastoma and sporadic retinoblastoma appears to be based on those with the familial form starting out being ________,whereas those with the sporadic form start out being ________.

Q2) The genome of humans is remarkably stable,so much so that there are no cancers known to result from genomic instability.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A protein functions as a cell-cycle regulator that causes cell death (apoptosis)to a damaged cell.What is the symbol given to this protein?

A) p34

B) p102

C) cyclin

D) p53

E) phosphokinase

Q4) List three general categories of genetic changes that lead to the formation of oncogenes.

Q5) In what way can loss of heterozygosity lead to cancer?

Q6) Why do cancer researchers study molecular events associated with mitosis?

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Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology

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Q1) Of what advantage is it to have a multiple cloning site (multiple unique restriction sites)embedded in the lacZ component of a plasmid?

Q2) In what way are specific DNA sequences of the template amplified in the polymerase chain reaction? In other words,how does one target the target?

Q3) To isolate a bacterium with a plasmid that carries a desired DNA fragment cloned within the ampicillin resistance gene,we should grow bacteria in a medium that contains ampicillin.

A)True

B)False

Q4) E.coli is a common YAC.

A)True

B)False

Q5) When propagating a clone in the lambda phage,would you have more immediate success if the phage entered the lysogenic or the lytic cycle?

Q6) Reverse transcriptase is often used as the heat-stable enzyme in PCR.

A)True

B)False

Q7) In the context of recombinant DNA technology,what is meant by the term vector?

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Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics

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Q1) The human genome contains approximately 20,000 protein-coding genes,yet it has the capacity to produce several hundred thousand gene products.What can account for the vast difference in gene number and product number?

A) Alternative splicing occurs.

B) There are more introns than exons.

C) There are more exons than introns.

D) Much of the DNA is in the form of trinucleotide repeats, thus allowing multiple start sites for different genes.

E) Every gene can be read in both directions, and each gene can have inversions and translocations.

Q2) What appears to be the range of the number of protein-coding genes per genome in eukaryotes?

Q3) The dog (Canis familiaris)genome has recently been sequenced.About how many of the dog's genes are shared with humans?

Q4) How are pseudogenes formed?

Q5) The term paralog is often used in conjunction with discussions of hemoglobin genes.What does this term mean,and how does it apply to hemoglobin genes?

Q6) What is meant by the term pseudogene?

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Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology

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Q1) What method have farmers used for millennia to enhance food production in plants and animals?

Q2) In the past decades,direct-to-consumer (DTC)genetic tests have become widespread.Are such tests approved by the Food and Drug Administration?

Q3) Generally,vaccines are used to stimulate the immune system by providing antigens of potential pathogens.What is the typical composition of a vaccine?

Q4) Which term is commonly used to describe the production of valuable proteins in genetically modified plants and animals?

A) animal farming

B) tuna farming

C) biopharming

D) culturing

E) genetic production

Q5) Genes in their natural state cannot be patented.This policy allows research and use of natural products for the common good.What argument might be presented in favor of patenting genes or gene products?

Q6) Briefly describe what is meant by gene therapy.

Q7) Describe,in general terms,the aims of gene therapy.

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Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits

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Q1) What is the relationship between the narrow-sense heritability (h²)index and the impact of selection?

Q2) Assume that four polygenic gene pairs are involved in determining phenotypes of F .How many phenotypic classes are expected?

Q3) In the analysis of quantitative traits,positions on chromosomes called quantitative trait loci (QTLs)are often discussed.In the same context,restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)are also discussed.What is the relationship between QTLs and RFLPs?

Q4) Interpret the meaning of an H² (broad-sense heritability)value that approaches 1.0.

Q5) Concordance refers to the frequency with which members of a twin pair express a different trait.

A)True

B)False

Q6) List at least two statistical terms commonly used in the analysis of quantitative traits.

Q7) List at least three statistical values often used to represent a sample.

Q8) How many gene pairs are involved in generating a typical 1:4:6:4:1 ratio?

Q9) Name two human traits that would be expected to have high concordance.

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Chapter 24: Neurogenetics

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Q1) The HD gene,one of the first genes to be mapped in humans by RFLP,is located on the short arm of chromosome 4.It codes for ________.

Q2) What is a major problem that arises in the study of the genetic basis of human behavior?

A) Memories of individuals are unreliable.

B) People are too short lived.

C) Behaviors are difficult to define objectively.

D) The environment plays no role in behavioral expression.

E) The environment is the only factor that determines human behavior.

Q3) Research on alcoholism indicates that at least in mouse and animal models,a single dominant gene is responsible.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In studies attempting to determine a genetic basis for a given behavior,if the environment is held constant,and behavioral differences directly correlate with genetic differences,a genetic basis for the behavioral state is supported.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics

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Q1) Which general term is used to group various biological and behavioral properties of organisms that act to prevent or reduce interbreeding?

A) phyletic evolution

B) allopatric speciation

C) reproductive isolating mechanisms

D) inbreeding

E) genetic divergence

Q2) Evolution is dependent on genetic diversity in the evolving population.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Assume that a trait is caused by the homozygous state of a gene that is recessive and autosomal.Nine percent of the individuals in a given population express the phenotype caused by this gene.What percentage of the individuals would be heterozygous for the gene? Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Q4) What type of evolutionary information can be gained by examining the amino acid sequence of a protein such as cytochrome c?

Q5) What is meant by the equation p + q = 1.0?

Q6) Give a brief definition of the term genetic equilibrium.

Page 29

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