Evolutionary Biology Chapter
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Evolutionary Biology explores the mechanisms and processes that have shaped the diversity of life on Earth over time. This course covers fundamental concepts such as natural selection, genetic drift, mutation, and gene flow, examining how these forces drive evolutionary change within populations and species. Topics include the history of evolutionary thought, the origin of species, adaptation, molecular evolution, and the interpretation of the fossil record. Students will also analyze phylogenetic relationships, the evolution of development, and the impact of evolutionary principles on modern issues such as medicine and conservation. Through lectures, readings, and discussions, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of the evolutionary processes that underlie the complexity and adaptation observed in the biological world.
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Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Q1) The main purpose of preparing karyotypes is to ____.
A) prepare for gene extractions
B) determine gender
C) determine which genes are on which chromosomes
D) separate DNA into its component parts
E) diagnose or rule out certain genetic disorders
Answer: E
Q2) Gregor Mendel ____.
A) discovered the structure of DNA
B) claimed that each individual carries a pair of "factors" for a given trait
C) demonstrated that traits carried by parents are "blended" in their offspring
D) cross-bred thirty different species of pea plants over a span of fifty years
E) reasoned that each parent carries one gene for a specific trait
Answer: B
Q3) Transmission genetics studies the pattern of ____________________ as traits are passed from generation to generation.
Answer: inheritance
Q4) Population geneticists are interested in the forces that change the ____________________ of genes in a population.
Answer: frequency
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Q1) The series of flattened sacs and associated vesicles in the cytoplasm of a cell is the
Answer: Golgi complex
Q2) A polar body,once formed,has no further function and dies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) There are ____________________ autosomes present in a human sperm cell.
Answer: 22
twenty-two twenty two
Q4) Ribosomes are organelles that are involved in ____.
A) plasma membrane selectivity
B) cellular energy production
C) protein synthesis
D) transport of materials
E) DNA replication
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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Q1) Should states have mandatory screening programs that test every newborn for genetic disorders? Explain your reasoning.
Answer: Answers will vary.Some students may use portions of the following information for the basis of their answers.??All states have mandatory screening programs that test every newborn for genetic disorders.Some states test for only about four disorders,while others screen for up to 50.Some genetic disorders can be treated successfully if the condition is detected early in life.In spite of the benefits offered by such programs,critics charge that patients' privacy rights are violated because the programs are mandatory.Others feel that the results of such screening may be used in the future to restrict the reproductive rights of those diagnosed with a genetic disorder.
Q2) Methylmalonic acidemia (MMA)is caused by the inability to metabolize amino acids and fats.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The fusion of gametes during fertilization restores the ____________________ number of chromosomes.
Answer: diploid
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Q1) OMIM is an acronym that stands for ____________.
Q2) A blood test cannot determine if a person is a carrier of Tay-Sachs disease because the mutant allele is undetectable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cytoplasmic organelles that convert energy from food molecules in ATP and are transmitted from mothers to all their children through the cytoplasm of the egg are called ____________________.
Q4) If a man expresses an X-linked recessive trait,____.
A) all of his brothers will also express it
B) his father transmitted the trait to him
C) his father carried the trait
D) all of his sisters will also express it
E) his mother was heterozygous or homozygous for the trait
Q5) If both parents are homozygous for a disease-causing recessive gene,____________________ of their children will be affected.
Q6) Define the term hemizygous and explain how the hemizygous condition relates to sex-linked inheritance.
Q7) Explain why color-blindness is much more common in males than in females.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) Describe the approach using genomics to identify genes that contribute to the variations in cognitive ability observed in humans.
Q2) Using today's genetic technology,it is possible to select ____________________ for specific traits.
Q3) Discuss Sir Francis Galton's contribution to genetics and identify the important concept that is linked to his observations.
Q4) Continuous phenotypic variations can be explained by Mendelian inheritance. A)True
B)False
Q5) The genes discovered to date account for only about 5-10% of the total variation in adult height.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Along with a significant genetic component,____________________ plays a significant role in the development of spina bifida.
Q7) Complex traits are usually quantified by ____________________ rather than by ____________________.
Q8) Refer to the figure above to explain the threshold model of complex traits.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Q1) More than ____ percent of couples decide to terminate a Down syndrome pregnancy.
A) ten
B) thirty C) fifty
D) seventy E) ninety
Q2) A chromosome whose centromere is placed very close to,but not at,one end is called a(n)____________________ chromosome.
Q3) Changes in the number of copies of chromosomal DNA segments and the genes they contain are called ____________________.
Q4) Part of a chromosome moves to another,nonhomologous chromosome during ____________________.
Q5) Early investigators associated the tendency to violent criminal behavior with the ____________________ karyotype,but there is no evidence of a direct link between the two.
Q6) Describe two processes that would result in a triploid zygote.
Q7) Amniocentesis is not performed on mothers over the age of thirty-five. A)True B)False Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Q1) X inactivation can lead to ____________________ in females who are heterozygous for X-linked genes.
Q2) Most of the protein eaten by the mother during the third trimester of pregnancy is used for fetal brain and ____________________ system growth and development.
Q3) In the male reproductive system,the ____________________ secretes a milky,alkaline fluid that neutralizes acidic vaginal secretions and enhances sperm viability.
Q4) Explain how X inactivation can result in female mosaicism and give examples.
Q5) The pathway from ____ sex to ____ sex can be disrupted at several stages.
A) chromosomal; phenotypic
B) phenotypic; chromosomal
C) gonadal; chromosomal
D) gonadal; genotypic
E) phenotypic; gonadal
Q6) An embryo that is composed of a hollow ball of cells is called a blastocyst.
A)True
B)False
Q7) By the end of the first trimester of pregnancy,all of the major ____________________ have formed and are functional.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Q1) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
Q2) Cytosine,uracil,and thymine are single-ringed nitrogen-containing organic bases called ____________________.
Q3) The sugar in RNA nucleotides is ____.
A) dextrose
B) sucrose
C) glucose
D) ribose
E) deoxyribose
Q4) Molecules are composed of two or more ____________________ chemically ____________________ together.
Q5) DNA polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of ____.
A) DNA
B) histones
C) proteins
D) ribose
E) nucleosomes
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Q6) Explain why X-ray diffraction was important in the study of DNA structure and describe the procedure used in X-ray diffraction.
Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Q1) Prions are created when normal proteins in the body ____.
A) combine with large ribosomal subunit and become infectious
B) exchange several long sections of amino acids with other infected proteins
C) refold into a different and infectious three-dimensional shape that kills cells in the brain and nervous system
D) undergo mutation and create hundreds of copies of themselves
E) invade the immune system, causing it to mistakenly destroy the body's healthy tissue
Q2) Amino acids are characterized by ____.
A) an amino group and a hydrogen bond
B) a carboxyl group and a hydrogen bond
C) two R groups
D) an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group
E) an amino group and a hydrochloric group
Q3) Peptide bonds form between ____.
A) two amino groups
B) two carboxyl groups
C) a carboxyl group and an R group
D) an amino group and a carboxyl group
E) an amino group and an R group
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Page 12
Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Q1) Women with breast cancers that are estrogen-sensitive ____.
A) become ill when taking prescription estrogen
B) can exacerbate their symptoms with only a small increase in estrogen levels
C) are in danger of faster growth of cancer cells in the presence of estrogen
D) will often experience cancer remission with increased uptake of estrogen
E) do not produce their own estrogen and must obtain it through diet or supplements
Q2) The study of genetic variations that affect people's responses to environmental agents,including man-made chemicals,is called ____________________.
Q3) In the United States,parathion is the most widely used member of a class of ____.
A) organophosphate herbicides
B) organophosphate insecticides
C) chlorophosphate fungicides
D) chlorophosphate herbicides
E) chlorophosphate insecticides
Q4) There is a direct link between a person's ____________________,the proteins a person makes,and that person's ____________________.
Q5) Summarize the metabolic process represented in the accompanying diagram.
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Q1) A mutation of an autosomal recessive trait can remain undetected for generations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how,when improper base pairing escapes repair by the proofreading system,cells are able to detect and repair mutations.
Q3) A cell that accumulates lots of mutational damage to its DNA may escape the normal controls of the cell cycle and become ____________________.
Q4) The ability of DNA polymerase to repair its own nucleotide mismatches is called ____________________.
Q5) Radiation in the environment that contributes to radiation exposure is called ____________________ radiation.
Q6) Explain why a frameshift mutation can have such devastating effects.
Q7) Genetic imprinting is caused by ____.
A) insertion of a nucleotide into an exon
B) deletion of an amino acid from the mRNA strand
C) a frameshift mutation
D) epigenetic changes to DNA
E) a change in a termination codon
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Q1) List four lines of evidence that support a link between cancer and genetics.Describe the ultimate cause of cancer and how an individual's life-style might reduce the chances of developing cancer.
Q2) If a cell begins to divide in an uncontrolled way,it ____.
A) will always form a cancerous tumor
B) may form a benign tumor
C) is a sign of metastasis
D) is considered a malignant tumor
E) signals uncontrolled cell division in other parts of the body
Q3) Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancers (HNPCC)____.
A) are rare in the United States, but common in Europe
B) begin with a mutation in the APC gene
C) are caused by one-of-a-kind DNA sequences called microsatellites
D) are caused by one mutation in a single gene
E) are caused by several mutations in several different genes
Q4) Abnormal epigenetic patterns of DNA ____________________ are associated with many types of cancer,and the removal of ____________________ groups can activate genes involved with cell growth and can increase genomic instability.
Q5) Explain how the loss of heterozygosity (LOH)leads a cell to become cancerous.
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Q1) Although artificial selection may seem slow and unreliable,____________________ observed that after only a few generations,breeders produced many varieties of pigeons and minks.
Q2) Vectors can transfer ____.
A) DNA sequences into bacterial host cells for cloning
B) DNA sequences into viral host cells for cloning
C) cloned viral cells into a bacterial host for cloning
D) cloned mitochondria from donor cell to host cell
E) cloned chromosomes from the nucleus of a cell into its cytoplasm
Q3) To make a typical Southern blot,genomic DNA is extracted and cut into fragments and the fragments are separated by ____________________.
Q4) Discuss the benefits of making genome sequencing techniques a routine part of medical care.
Q5) A collection of clones containing all the DNA sequences carried by an individual is called a genomic library.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Summarize the three requirements for cloning once a source of DNA has been selected.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Q1) The use of recombinant DNA technology to produce commercial products is known as ____________________.
Q2) The use of ____________________ or ____________________ for stem cell therapies offers alternatives to the destruction of human embryos that occurs when embryonic stem cells are harvested.
Q3) STR alleles differ by the number of copies of a set of nucleotides,such as AGA.
A)True B)False
Q4) What is one advantage of using transgenic plant cells to produce human proteins for hormone replacement therapy?
A) Transgenic plants produce lower protein yields than transgenic animals.
B) Transgenic plants produce higher protein yields than transgenic animals.
C) Plant cells are less expensive to grow than other cell types.
D) Transgenic animals cannot produce human proteins.
E) HIV is spread through proteins harvested from transgenic animals.
Q5) Why is the term GMO a misnomer for transgenic organisms?
Q6) Because golden rice was developed to deal with problems of ____________________ deficiency,it is considered a(n)____________________.
Q7) Summarize the concerns related to the use of transgenic crops.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Q1) When Louis Kunkel discovered the gene associated with Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy in the 1980s,he then needed to determine _____.
A) the MIM number of the gene
B) whether the gene was linked to blood type
C) how the mutant gene produces the disease phenotype
D) whether to use positional cloning to clone the gene
E) how many copy number variants were present in the gene
Q2) Some people are unable to properly metabolize the drug Purinethol,which is given to patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia; therefore,such patients must be first tested for the associated genetic variant to determine proper dosage of the drug. This scenario best illustrates the use of _____.
A) pharmacogenomics
B) map-based sequencing
C) positional cloning
D) annotation of DNA sequences
E) comparative genomics
Q3) The field of ____________________ develops software to efficiently store,analyze,present and access genomic sequence date.
Q4) A set of SNPs close together on a chromosome is called a(n)____________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Q1) Would you recommend a couple in which the male is infertile to seek genetic counseling? Why or why not?
Q2) Babies who are born following PGD to select for a tissue match to an ailing sibling are referred to as ____________________.
Q3) The method of gene therapy that would result in the transferred gene being passed onto offspring is known as ____________________.
Q4) The most common vectors used in DNA therapy experiments are _____.
A) modified human cells
B) retroviruses and adenoviruses
C) antisense oligonucleotides (AONs)
D) bacteria
E) naked DNA
Q5) An individual who is at risk of passing a genetic defect onto his or her offspring would most likely undergo ____.
A) genetic testing
B) genetic screening
C) enzyme replacement therapy
D) preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)
E) amniocentesis
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Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Q1) Redness,swelling,heat,and pain of an infection are a result of the adaptive immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how a mutant CC-CKR5 allele offers protection from HIV infection.
Q3) The _____ of an antibody molecule functions to recognize and bind to a specific antigen.
A) antigen-antibody complex
B) antigen-binding site
C) light chain
D) heavy chain
E) immunoglobulin motif
Q4) Activated B cells divide to form plasma cells and memory B cells,both of which are short-lived and secrete copious amounts of antibody molecules into the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pathogens are engulfed by ____________________ during the first stage of an inflammatory response and by ____________________ during the last stage of the response.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) Individuals with nicotine acetylcholine receptors that bind tightly to nicotine are more likely to _____.
A) have a family member who is resistant to nicotine addiction
B) have behavioral disorders
C) have mutations in the GABBR2 gene
D) be vulnerable to nicotine addiction
E) show resistance to nicotine addiction
Q2) Do you think that nonsubstance-related addictions,such as compulsive gambling or compulsive eating,have a greater genetic or environmental component compared to substance-related additions,such as nicotine? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) For which of the following diseases would animal models likely yield the most information?
A) alcoholism
B) schizophrenia
C) bipolar disorder
D) Huntington disease
E) nicotine addition
Q4) Would you recommend genetic testing for the APOE*4 allele in family members of an Alzheimer disease patient? Why or why not?
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Q1) A loss of 90% of the population in the Pingelap atoll from a typhoon in 1775 resulted in a high percentage of the current population being affected by achromatopsia.As a result,all of these affected individuals _____.
A) have normal vision
B) are descendants of one of the 20 original survivors
C) receive genetic testing and genetic counseling
D) have exceptional hearing
E) are descendants of the 20 original survivors
Q2) The genetic variability of a population is solely dependent on the generation of mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ultimate source of new alleles and genetic variability is _____________________.
Q4) During the eugenics movement of the 1900s,it was believed that individuals affected with certain genetic disorders should be sterilized to prevent transmitting the gene to future generations.Would such measures be effective? Why or why not?
Q5) On average,humans differ by _____________________% of their genomic sequences.
Page 22
Q6) Outline the assumptions made in establishing the Hardy-Weinberg law.
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