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This course explores the principles and application of evidence-based practice within the field of social work. Students will learn how to critically appraise and integrate scientific research, clinical expertise, and client values in order to inform effective decision-making and intervention strategies. The curriculum emphasizes the identification and evaluation of high-quality evidence, ethical considerations, and the translation of research findings into real-world social work practice across diverse populations and settings. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will develop skills to assess the efficacy of interventions and promote best practices in social service delivery.
Recommended Textbook
Empowerment Series Research Methods for Social Work 9th Edition by Allen Rubin
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Q1) Which of the following statements is are true about the scientific method?
A) Some things are NOT open to question.
B) Good studies need NOT be replicated.
C) All knowledge is considered provisional.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
Answer: C
Q2) The misuse of authority refers to experts who discuss their area of expertise in public.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Legitimate ex post facto hypothesizing requires additional research.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Explain what is meant by the statement, "Tradition and authority are the two-edged swords in the search for knowledge about the world."
Answer: will vary
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are true about critically appraising the quality of evidence found in the evidence-based practice search process?
A) All evidence produced by randomized clinical trials should be deemed strong evidence
B) Randomized clinical trials always reside at the top of any research hierarchy.
C) Only evidence produced by randomized clinical trials should be considered as worthy of guiding practice decisions, regardless of the nature of the decision.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
Answer: E
Q2) It is necessary to choose either a top-down or a bottom-up approach to searching for evidence; it is incorrect to use both approaches in the same search.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Marxism is an example of:
A) an ideology.
B) a paradigm.
C) a theory.
D) interpretivism.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are true about the hypothesis: Child welfare workers with social work degrees have a are more effective in preventing child maltreatment than are child welfare workers without a social work degree?
A) Type of degree is the dependent variable.
B) Child maltreatment is the independent variable.
C) Social workers is a variable.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
Answer: E
Q3) Social work practice models are mutually exclusive; that is, they do not overlap.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Interpretivist paradigms are more likely to be used in qualitative studies than in quantitative studies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Data analysis tends to be more time-consuming in qualitative studies than in quantitative studies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is/are an example of a quantitative research question?
A) What proportion of returning combat veterans have a substance use disorder?
B) How many clients receiving our agency services are homeless?
C) How effective is our agency in reducing homelessness?
D) All of the above.
Q4) Explain how one would decide whether to emphasize qualitative or quantitative research methods - or both - in a particular study.
Q5) Mixed-methods research has fallen out of favor in recent years.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify and briefly describe three advanced mixed-methods designs.
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Q1) Which of the following questions should be answered in an informed consent form?
A) Do you have to participate?
B) How will your privacy and the confidentiality of your research records be protected?
C) Will the researchers benefit from your participation in this study?
D) All of the above.
Q2) Concealing the nature of the study from those being observed violates the norm of voluntary participation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ethical obligations to one's colleagues in the scientific community
A) require that technical shortcomings and failures of the study be revealed.
B) allow the researcher to determine whether or not to report negative findings.
C) Encourage the researcher to always describe the findings as the product of a carefully preplanned analytical strategy.
D) a and b only are correct.
E) b and c only are correct.
Q4) Choose an ethical issue presented in this chapter, create a research situation in which this issue could arise, and tell how you would handle it.
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Q1) No ethnic minority group is homogeneous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about culturally competent interviewing?
A) All interviewers must be of the same ethnicity as the respondent
B) Although matching interviewer and interviewee ethnicity is not a foolproof guarantee that an interview will be culturally competent, it is a good rule of thumb to follow whenever possible.
C) Interviewers should NOT be of the same ethnicity as the respondent.
D) Avoiding cultural bias is ensured if interviewer speaks the respondent's language.
Q3) Compensation for participants in research should
A) be as large as your budget permits.
B) be large enough to provide an incentive yet not so large that it becomes coercive.
C) always be in the form of money.
D) never be in the form of money.
E) a and c.
Q4) Explain the difference between linguistic, conceptual and metric equivalence.
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Q1) Which of the following is/are true regarding the feasibility of social work research studies?
A) Fiscal costs are rarely underestimated.
B) Agency staff members may resist research studies.
C) Unexpected obstacles rarely take up much time.
D) Ethical issues rarely require that the research be reformulated.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE about social work research as compared to social scientific research in disciplines like sociology and psychology?
A) It is more likely to deal with practical problems and decisions confronting social welfare agencies.
B) It is less likely to be applied.
C) It is more likely to emphasize theory.
D) Theory plays no role in social work research
Q3) Feasibility should NOT be a consideration when formulating an idealistic, far-reaching study.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A questionnaire contained the item "educational level completed" and responses of grade school, junior high school, high school, college, graduate degree, other. A researcher asked subjects to check the appropriate response. The researcher is using this question to measure
A) direct observables.
B) indirect observables.
C) constructs.
D) a nominal variable.
E) validity.
Q2) To elicit valid information, your scale should be sufficiently long to take at least an hour to complete.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Extraneous variables are variables that are irrelevant to a particular study.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss how the quantitative and qualitative perspectives on operational definitions differ.
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Q1) The use of several different research methods to test the same finding is called triangulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When someone who has sexually abused a child consistently denies having done so, it is an example of
A) systematic measurement error.
B) random measurement error.
C) unreliable data.
D) face error
Q3) The tendency of people to answer questions through a filter that will convey a favorable impression is called
A) the acquiescent response set.
B) social desirability bias.
C) cultural bias.
D) random error.
Q4) If a measure is valid, it must also be reliable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how qualitative studies attempt to deal with reliability and validity.
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Q1) The result of combining several indicators of a variable is a composite measurement of the variable.
A)True B)False
Q2) A scale that is reliable and valid in one culture might not be reliable and valid in another culture.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is/are true about constructing qualitative measures?
A) You should rely primarily on close-ended questions.
B) Highly structured self-administered questionnaires are more desirable than interview guides.
C) Interviews can range from completely unstructured, informal conversational interviews that use no measurement instruments to highly structured, standardized interviews in which interviewers must ask questions in the exact order and with the exact wording in which they are written out in advance.
D) None of these answers are true.
Q4) Identify acceptable options for handling missing data in an index or scale.
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Q1) The one-group pretest-posttest design controls for passage of time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What differentiates experimental from pre-experimental designs? Give an illustration of a situation in which an experimental design would be preferred and one in which a pre-experimental design would be preferred.
Q3) Explain the elements of the classical experimental design. Is this design especially useful in dealing with causal relationships? If yes, why? If not, why?
Q4) A study evaluates the effectiveness of a child abuse prevention program by comparing the rate of child abuse among parents who chose to participate in the program to the rate of parents who declined participation. This design fails to control for:
A) selection biases
B) correlation.
C) testing effects.
D) instrumentation changes
Q5) The problem of external validity refers to the generalizability of results.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Quasi-experimental designs are often used instead of experimental designs because
A) agency constraints often make experiments infeasible. B) they have more internal validity than experiments
C) quasi-experiments randomly assign participants to groups. D) they use random assignment.
Q2) Case-control designs have a high degree of internal validity because they eliminate the problem of recall bias.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is safe to assume that agency staff members who initially approve of an experiment will remain in close compliance with its research protocol throughout the study.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When selecting a comparison group in a quasi-experimental design, one should: A) select a group unlike the experimental group: B) select a group as similar as possible to the experimental group: C) use random assignment.
D) avoid the use of switching replications.
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Q1) The length of the baseline in single-case designs should be
A) as long as is practically and ethically possible.
B) shorter with a low frequency behavior than with a high frequency behavior.
C) shortened if an unstable trend appears.
D) as short as possible.
Q2) Explain how B or B+ designs can have value in the evidence-based practice process despite lacking an adequate baseline phase.
Q3) Identify three qualitative methods that can be incorporated in single-case evaluation, and discuss the function of each method.
Q4) Discuss why it is best to have as many measurement points as possible in a single-case design.
Q5) The term research reactivity means that
A) at least some client improvement can be attributed to the impact of the research.
B) the research was effective in depicting desired results.
C) there is a strong social-desirability bias in measurement.
D) a generalization of effects occurred.
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Q1) Because the rates under treatment approach to needs assessment only looks at those currently utilizing services, it is vulnerable to underestimating the true extent of need.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about logic models?
A) They portray program components graphically.
B) They are never theory-based.
C) Funding sources almost never require them as part of grant applications.
D) They exclude attention to program outcomes.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the impact of managed care on program evaluation?
A) It has reduced the emphasis on program evaluation.
B) It has reduced the pressure on programs to measure their outcomes.
C) It has reduced the extent to which vested interests are involved in program evaluations.
D) It has increased the extent to which vested interests are involved in program evaluations.
Q4) What steps should program evaluators take in order to foster the utilization of their studies?
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Q1) In qualitative research, the informants selected should usually be somewhat typical of the groups being studied.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Selecting a sample that the researcher believes will yield the most comprehensive understanding of a subject based on the researcher's knowledge of the population is employing purposive or judgmental sampling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The unit about which information is collected and which provides the basis of analysis is called
A) universe.
B) sampling unit.
C) unit of analysis.
D) sampling frame.
E) element.
Q4) What is the basic logic of probability sampling? How do such concepts as homogeneity, heterogeneity, sampling bias, representativeness, and probability of selection fit into this logic?
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Q1) A response rate of at least 50 percent guarantees the absence of any response bias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Professionals who are conducting survey interviews in very poor neighborhoods should:
A) Dress down so as to appear as if they live in that neighborhood.
B) Read questionnaire items verbatim.
C) Never probe into unclear responses to see if respondents meant what the interviewers think they meant.
D) Wear formal attire.
Q3) Which of the following is true about survey research?
A) It is least useful when trying to describe a very large population.
B) It makes it feasible to obtain very large samples.
C) Its findings are less generalizable than the findings of experiments.
D) A limitation is the inability to analyze more than two variables simultaneously.
E) An advantage is the ability to develop a deep feel for what respondents are thinking.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of online surveys.
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Q1) After examining the FBI Crime Reports for a 30-year period, Professor Hall claimed that the incidence of rape has increased. After examining the same reports, Professor Shine claimed that the reporting of rape, not the incidence of rape, has increased. This illustrates
A) the problem of reliability in using existing statistics.
B) the problem of validity in using existing statistics.
C) the need to replicate existing statistics.
D) the ecological fallacy.
Q2) An example of unobtrusive data collection is
A) an interview with college freshmen to determine why they selected a particular school.
B) counting the proportion of published social work journal articles that report experimental outcome evaluations.
C) a mailed survey designed to discern students' attitudes toward a planned change in the school's calendar.
D) self-monitoring.
Q3) Describe a study for which content analysis is the appropriate research method. Discuss how you would use manifest and latent coding. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the two coding schemes.
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Q1) Professor Smith was interested in reporting the reality of the experiences of teenage runaways living on the streets in their own terms. Smith is probably most interested in:
A) being a complete participant.
B) grounded theory.
C) ethnography.
D) hermeneutics.
Q2) An advantage of qualitative research is that A) it enables the researcher to draw conclusions about the population. B) the researcher can control the variables under study.
C) social life can be studied in a natural setting.
D) hypotheses can be rigorously tested.
Q3) When qualitative studies involve observing people in their natural environment, ethical issues are less likely to be a concern than in other types of research.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss how the use of qualitative methods can enhance a case study that uses a single-subject design to evaluate practice effectiveness.
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Q1) Qualitative researchers should wait to record observations until enough time has passed to put the events in a proper perspective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are true about the interview guide approach?
A) It uses an outline of interview topics and issues to cover.
B) It is the most highly structured approach to qualitative interviewing.
C) It is the least structured approach to qualitative interviewing.
D) It relieves interviewers of the need to be completely familiar with its contents before beginning any interviews.
Q3) Field notes should record only what you "know happened," NOT what you "think" has happened.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what is meant by reflexivity and why it is a key part of qualitative research.
Q5) How does qualitative interviewing differ from quantitative survey interviewing?
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Q1) The utility of case-oriented analysis is the fact that one case canmake theory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define what is meant by qualitative analysis and what is meant by quantitative analysis. What are the differences between the two forms of analysis? Are there similarities between the two? If so, describe some of the similarities. If no, why not?
Q3) The grounded theory method begins with
A) hypotheses.
B) patterns.
C) observations.
D) theory.
Q4) In the Lofland's terms, Professor Lip, from the prior question, was interested in examining which of the following ways of looking for patterns?
A) Frequencies
B) Magnitudes
C) Causes
D) Consequences
E) Processes
Q5) Identify at last one way that computer programs analyze qualitative data.
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Q1) Grouped data are created through the combination of attributes of a variable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mean or median can be used to describe the central tendency of the variable "ethnicity."
A)True
B)False
Q3) A research article reports that the number of group treatment sessions attended by a sample was normally distributed, with a mean of 20 and a standard deviation of 6. Which of the following statements is/are true about the sample?
A) Over 75% attended at least 20 sessions.
B) Over one-third attended more than 26 sessions.
C) Slightly more than 15 % attended less than 14 sessions.
D) Slightly more than 15 % attended less than 8 sessions.
Q4) The range is smaller than the interquartile range.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Provide an example of how descriptive statistics can be used in qualitative research.
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Q1) A correlation of .60 indicates that 36 percent of the variance in the dependent variable has been explained.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ultimate aim of every significance test is to discern the probability that an observed relationship between variables can be attributed to chance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) We commit a Type II error when we
A) accept a false null hypothesis.
B) accept a true null hypothesis.
C) reject a false null hypothesis.
D) reject a true null hypothesis
Q4) Explain Type I and Type 11 errors, when they are risked, and what can be done to reduce their risks.
Q5) Two-tailed tests of significance should be used whenever there isa non-directional hypothesis.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is true about finding a funding source for a research proposal?
A) Find a funding source for which your research question is a priority.
B) Using the internet is a poor way to find potential funding sources.
C) Examining recently issued requests for proposals should be avoided.
D) Avoid government sources.
Q2) When writing the Problem and Objectives section of a research proposal, you should:
A) Use vague terms.
B) Articulate objectives that are very broad.
C) Explain how the answers to your research questions have significance for practice and policy.
D) Don't worry about their feasibility
Q3) Discuss the characteristics that distinguish weak from strong literature reviews in research proposals and research reports.
Q4) Reports of qualitative research studies tend to be shorter than reports of quantitative studies.
A)True
B)False
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