

Evidence-Based Practice in Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Evidence-Based Practice in Nursing introduces students to the foundational concepts, principles, and processes of integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in nursing care. The course emphasizes skills in critical appraisal, formulation of clinical questions, systematic searching of literature, and translation of evidence into practice. Through case studies and practical exercises, students learn to evaluate research quality, implement evidence-based interventions, and overcome common barriers to evidence-based decision-making, laying the groundwork for continuous improvement in patient outcomes and healthcare quality.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum
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110 Chapters
1446 Verified Questions
1446 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
Q2) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?
A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.
B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.
C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.
D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.
Answer: C
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3

Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken.
B) Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 10.
C) Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber.
D) Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy.
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record before administering a medication. Which factors can alter the patient's physiologic response to the drug? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ability to swallow pills
B) Age
C) Genetic factors
D) Gender
E) Height
Answer: B,C,D
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what?
A) To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects
B) To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment
C) To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group
D) To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct,and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?
A) A loading dose was not given.
B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.
C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.
D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply?
A) "This drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally."
B) "This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled."
C) "This drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form."
D) "This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach."
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6

Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine?
A) It binds to different types of receptors in the body.
B) It can cause constipation in toxic doses.
C) It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental.
D) It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.
Q2) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?
A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.
B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.
C) It gives the receptor a new function.
D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young adult postoperative patient is receiving morphine 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. The last dose was 3 mg given 2 hours ago. The patient is asleep,and the nurse notes a heart rate of 86 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which PRN medication will the nurse give this patient?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to counter morphine side effects
B) Morphine 4 mg for increased pain, as indicated by tachycardia
C) Naloxone [Narcan] to block the effects of the morphine
D) Nothing at this time, because the patient is resting comfortably
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about taking warfarin and asks if the patient takes aspirin. This assessment by the nurse reflects a knowledge of which type of drug interaction?
A) Creation of unique effects
B) Increased therapeutic effects
C) Inhibitory effects
D) Potentiative effects
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."
B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."
C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."
D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."
Q2) A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The student asks the nurse what this means. What will the nurse explain about boxed warnings?
A) They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances.
B) They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug.
C) They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects.
D) They provide information about antidotes in the event that toxicity occurs.
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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs,is awake and alert,and reports mild pain. What does the nurse recognize about this patient?
A) This patient exhibits a negative placebo effect with a reduced response to the drug.
B) This patient has developed a reaction known as tachyphylaxis because of repeated exposure to the drug.
C) This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for analgesic effect.
D) This patient produces higher than normal hepatic enzymes as a result of prolonged exposure to the drug.
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
Q2) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?
A) Immediately before conception
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
Q3) A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse she is worried that a medication she took before knowing she was pregnant might have harmed the fetus. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient what she took and when she learned she was pregnant.
B) Contact the patient's provider to request an ultrasound.
C) Counsel the patient to consider termination of the pregnancy.
Page 11
D) Suggest to the patient that she go to a high-risk pregnancy center.
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child's provider?
A) 250 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
B) 250 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
C) 500 mg/5 mL-250 mg PO three times daily
D) 500 mg/5 mL-375 mg PO twice daily
Q2) Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well."
B) "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it."
C) "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults."
D) "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."
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12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital,along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?
A) Financial concerns
B) Inability to open drug containers
C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects
D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary
Q2) A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next?
A) Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills.
B) Count the pills in the prescription bottle.
C) Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing.
D) Request an order for renal function tests.
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:
A) activate axonal conduction.
B) enhance transmitter storage.
C) increase receptor activation.
D) synthesize supertransmitters.
Q2) A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites?
A) Blocking transmitter reuptake
B) Inhibiting transmitter release
C) Interfering with transmitter storage
D) Preventing activation of receptors
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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress,the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
Q2) What is the target organ when a beta<sub>1 </sub>agonist is administered?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) respiratory
D) liver
Q3) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin using a transdermal preparation of a muscarinic antagonist for overactive bladder (OAB). The nurse teaches the patient what to do if side effects occur. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can use sugar-free gum for dry mouth."
B) "I may need laxatives for constipation."
C) "I should keep the site covered to prevent other people from getting the medicine."
D) "I will take Benadryl for any itching caused by a local reaction to the patch."
Q2) A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would expect the drug to have which action?
A) Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient
B) Lowering of intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
C) Inhibition of muscular activity in the bladder
D) Prevention of hypertensive crisis
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16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine,including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer?
A) Donepezil [Aricept]
B) Edrophonium [Reversol]
C) Neostigmine [Prostigmin]
D) Physostigmine
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The prescriber has ordered neostigmine [Prostigmin]. An important initial nursing action before administration of the medication includes assessing:
A) the ability to raise the eyelids.
B) level of fatigue.
C) skeletal muscle strength.
D) swallowing ability.
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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10 Verified Questions 10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an intubated patient who is receiving pancuronium for neuromuscular blockade. The patient's eyes are closed,and the patient is not moving any extremities. The heart rate is 76 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient will do what?
A) Request an order for an antihistamine to prevent a further drop in blood pressure.
B) Request an order for serum electrolytes to evaluate for hyperkalemia.
C) Review the patient's chart for a history of myasthenia gravis (MG).
D) Talk to the patient while giving care and explain all procedures.
Q2) A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose?
A) To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required
B) To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions
C) To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions
D) To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred
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18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse about receptor specificity of adrenergic agonist medications. What will the nurse say?
A) "As the dosage of these medications increases, drugs in this class are more selective."
B) "Dopamine is selective for dopamine receptors and has no effects on alpha or beta receptors."
C) "Epinephrine is the most selective alpha-adrenergic agonist medication."
D) "Specificity is relative and is dose dependent."
Q2) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.
B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.
C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.
D) reduce the pain of an injection.
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19

Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are conditions that may be treated using beta blockers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Heart failure
C) Hypotension
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Stage fright
Q2) The nurse is discussing home management with a patient who will begin taking an alpha-adrenergic antagonist for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I need to stop the medication if my heart rate increases."
B) "I should not drive while taking this medication."
C) "I should take the first dose at bedtime."
D) "I will stop taking the medication if I feel dizzy."
Q3) Which are adverse effects of alpha blockade? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Reflex tachycardia
C) Nasal congestion
D) Ejaculation
E) Hypernatremia
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clonidine is approved for the treatment of which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Opioid withdrawal
D) Severe pain
E) Smoking cessation
Q2) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
Q3) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?
A) Clonidine [Catapres]
B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine [Serpasil]
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21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
E) Epinephrine
F) Histamine
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of students about how CNS drugs are developed. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Central nervous system drug development relies on observations of their effects on human behavior."
B) "Studies of new central nervous system drugs in healthy subjects can produce paradoxical effects."
C) "Our knowledge of the neurochemical and physiologic changes that underlie mental illness is incomplete."
D) "These drugs are developed based on scientific knowledge of CNS transmitters and receptors."
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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] and reports occasional periods of loss of drug effect lasting from minutes to several hours. The nurse questions the patient further and discovers that these episodes occur at different times related to the medication administration. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor, such as entacapone.
B) adding the DA-releasing agent amantadine to the regimen.
C) giving a direct-acting dopamine agonist.
D) shortening the dosing interval of levodopa/carbidopa.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease (PD)and begins treatment with levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. After several months of therapy,the patient reports no change in symptoms. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) add a dopamine agonist.
B) discuss the "on-off" phenomenon.
C) increase the dose of Sinemet.
D) re-evaluate the diagnosis.
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Page 23

Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store,which is three blocks from their home. That evening,the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do?
A) Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms.
B) Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease.
C) Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms.
D) Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.
Q2) A patient is worried about the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease,because both parents had the disease. The nurse will tell this patient that known risk factors include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Advanced age
B) Alcoholism
C) Family history
D) Gender
E) Obesity
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has received an initial dose of glatiramer acetate [Copaxone] for relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. The nurse notes that the patient appears flushed and anxious and has urticaria. The patient reports palpitations,chest pain,and a feeling of laryngeal constriction. What will the nurse do?
A) Obtain an order for epinephrine to treat a hypersensitivity reaction.
B) Prepare to provide cardiorespiratory support.
C) Report a possible cardiotoxic episode to the provider.
D) Stay with the patient until this self-limiting episode passes.
Q2) Which drugs may be selected by the provider for initial treatment for a patient who is diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dimethyl fumarate [Tecfidera] PO
B) Interferon beta 1a [Avonex] IM
C) Mitoxantrone [Novantrone] IV
D) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] PO
E) Teriflunomide [Aubagio] PO
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25

Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who becomes motionless and seems to stare at the wall and then experiences about 60 seconds of lip smacking and hand wringing. What should the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about a history of absence seizures.
B) Contact the provider to report symptoms of a complex partial seizure.
C) Notify the provider that the patient has had a grand mal seizure.
D) Request an order for intravenous diazepam [Valium] to treat status epilepticus.
Q2) A patient with a form of epilepsy that may have spontaneous remission has been taking an AED for a year. The patient reports being seizure free for 6 months and asks the nurse when the drug can be discontinued. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) AEDs must be taken for life to maintain remission.
B) Another AED will be substituted for the current AED.
C) The provider will withdraw the drug over a 6- to 12-week period.
D) The patient should stop taking the AED now and restart the drug if seizures recur.
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider,the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?
A) Preparing to support respirations
B) Administering an antidote to baclofen
C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures
D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram
Q2) A patient has localized muscle spasms after an injury. The prescriber has ordered tizanidine [Zanaflex] to alleviate the spasms. When obtaining the patient's health history,the nurse should be concerned about which possible reason for considering another drug?
A) Concomitant use of aspirin
B) A history of hepatitis
C) A history of malignant hyperthermia
D) Occasional use of alcohol
Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives an epidural anesthetic during labor and delivery. The nurse caring for the newborn in the immediate postpartum period will observe the infant for:
A) bradycardia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) jitteriness.
D) tachypnea.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."
B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."
C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."
D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."
Q3) A nurse is discussing the use of cocaine as a local anesthetic with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this agent?
A) "Anesthetic effects develop slowly and persist for several hours."
B) "Cocaine is a local anesthetic administered by injection."
C) "Vasoconstrictors should not be used as adjunct agents with this drug."
D) "When abused, cocaine causes physical dependence."
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse cares for patients who receive propofol extended [Diprivan]. What are important nursing considerations for these patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ensuring that respiratory support equipment is readily available
B) Maintaining the rate of intravenous infusion at 6 mg/kg/hr
C) Refrigerating open vials of the drug up to 24 hours
D) Stopping the infusion if a patient's CPK is greater than 5000 units/L
E) Using a local anesthetic at the IV site prior to infusing the drug
Q2) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?
A) Bethanechol
B) Droperidol
C) Promethazine
D) Ondansetron
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Chapter
28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8421
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends,who report finding the patient difficult to awaken. The friends report removing two fentanyl transdermal patches from the patient's arm. On admission to the emergency department,the patient has pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. A few minutes after administration of naloxone,the respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and the patient's pupils are dilated. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as signs of:
A) a mild opioid overdose.
B) decreased opioid drug levels.
C) improved ventilation.
D) worsening hypoxia.
Q2) A patient who has biliary colic reports a pain level of 8 on a 1 to 10 pain scale with 10 being the most severe pain. The patient has an order for ibuprofen as needed for pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the ibuprofen as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss nonpharmacologic pain measures.
C) Request an order for meperidine [Demerol].
D) Request an order for morphine sulfate.
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Page 30

Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422
Sample Questions
Q1) An 8-year-old child with advanced cancer has an order for oxycodone [OxyContin] PO,PRN for moderate to severe pain. The nurse notes that the child is constantly playing computer games and repeatedly denies having pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the oxycodone at regular intervals around the clock.
B) Contact the provider to discuss using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).
C) Reassure the child's parent that the child will ask for pain medication as needed.
D) Tell the child to notify the nurse when pain is present.
Q2) Over time,patients taking opioid analgesics develop tolerance to which side effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Constipation
B) Euphoria
C) Physical dependence
D) Respiratory depression
E) Sedation
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered two sprays at 1400,1600,and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief.
B) Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort.
C) Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication.
D) Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.
Q2) A young woman with migraine headaches who has recently begun taking sumatriptan [Imitrex] calls the nurse to report a sensation of chest and arm heaviness. The nurse questions the patient and determines that she feels pressure and not pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about any history of hypertension or coronary artery disease.
B) Determine whether the patient might be pregnant.
C) Reassure the patient that this is a transient, reversible side effect of sumatriptan.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the medication immediately.
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8424
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient about to begin taking an FGA drug for schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about side effects of these drugs?
A) "Dry mouth and constipation are uncommon with this medication."
B) "I may experience gynecomastia and galactorrhea."
C) "I may feel lightheaded or dizzy and should sit or lie down if this occurs."
D) "Sedation may occur initially, but will subside in 1 to 2 weeks."
Q2) A parent reports being afraid that a child may have schizophrenia because of disorganized speech and asocial behaviors. The nurse will tell this parent that which of the following must also be present to make a diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) A decrease in self-care, job, or school function
B) A history of substance abuse
C) A 1-month duration of active phase symptoms
D) Continuous signs of disturbance for longer than 6 months
E) The presence of manic episodes
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Page 33

Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8425
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking fluoxetine [Prozac] complains of decreased sexual interest. A prescriber orders a "drug holiday." What teaching by the nurse would best describe a drug holiday?
A) "Cut the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage."
B) "Discontinue the drug for 1 week."
C) "Don't take the medication on Friday and Saturday."
D) "Take the drug every other day."
Q2) An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to:
A) divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart.
B) take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects.
C) take the medication once daily in the late afternoon.
D) take the medication once daily in the morning.
Q3) A patient who has fibromyalgia is diagnosed with major depression. The provider orders a TCA. The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) avoid foods containing tyrosine.
B) consume alcohol in moderation.
C) sit or lie down when feeling lightheaded.
D) take the medication in the morning.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8426
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine [Lamictal]. Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment?
A) "I get a little dizzy sometimes."
B) "I had a headache last week that lasted for about an hour."
C) "I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back."
D) "Last night I woke up twice with a bad dream."
Q2) A patient who has recently begun taking carbamazepine [Equetro] for bipolar disorder reports having vertigo and headaches. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Ask the provider whether another medication can be used for this patient, because the patient is showing signs of toxicity.
B) Contact the provider to request a complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate for other, more serious side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that these effects occur early in treatment and will resolve over time.
D) Review the patient's chart for cytochrome P450 enzymes to see whether an increased dose is needed.
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Page 35

Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8427
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse recognizes that the actions of benzodiazepines include which findings? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sleep deprivation
B) Relief of general anxiety
C) Suppression of seizures and/or seizure activity
D) Development of tardive dyskinesia
E) Increase in muscle spasms
Q2) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired of being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?
A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."
B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."
C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."
D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8428
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports having occasional periods of tremors,palpitations,nausea,and a sense of fear,which usually dissipate within 30 minutes. To treat this condition,the nurse anticipates the provider will prescribe a drug in which drug class?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension,poor concentration,and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Buspirone [Buspar]
D) Paroxetine [Paxil]
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8429
Sample Questions
Q1) A young adult begins taking clonidine [Kapvay] to treat ADHD symptoms after suffering anorexia with methylphenidate [Ritalin]. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about taking clonidine?
A) "Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "Insomnia may still occur while taking this drug."
C) "You will need to pick up a written prescription every 30 days."
D) "You may crush the tablets and put them in food."
Q2) A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder about methylphenidate [Concerta]. Which statement by the child's parents indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "The effects of this drug will wear off in 4 to 6 hours."
B) "The tablet needs to be swallowed whole, not crushed or chewed."
C) "This medication has fewer side effects than amphetamines."
D) "We should call the provider if we see parts of the medicine in our child's stools."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8430
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about management of controlled substances in medication administration. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the federal law takes precedence."
B) "Prescriptions for drugs in Schedules III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills."
C) "Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients."
D) "To reduce the possibility of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy."
Q2) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:
A) abstinence from the drug.
B) decreasing episodes of relapse.
C) minimizing drug cravings.
D) reduction of drug use.
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8431
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has undergone treatment for alcoholism several times,with relapse occurring shortly after each treatment,has just completed detoxification. The patient requests a medication to help maintain abstinence. Which drug will the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
A) Acamprosate [Campral]
B) Chlordiazepoxide [Librium]
C) Disulfiram [Antabuse]
D) Naltrexone [ReVia]
Q2) A patient who is an alcoholic is prescribed disulfiram [Antabuse] to help prevent relapse and the nurse provides teaching about the use of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may use alcohol in cooking since heating foods destroys the alcohol."
B) "I should avoid shaving lotion and mouthwashes that contain even small amounts of alcohol."
C) "If I decide to drink, I should stop taking the disulfiram at least one week prior to consuming alcohol."
D) "If I use alcohol, the effects will be uncomfortable but are not dangerous."
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8432
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."
B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."
C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."
D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."
Q2) The spouse of a patient who smokes wonders why anyone would want to engage in "such a disgusting habit." What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep.
B) Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release.
C) Nicotine lowers blood pressure.
D) Nicotine settles the stomach and reduces nausea and vomiting.
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8433
Sample Questions
Q1) A college student tells the nurse that several friends have been using synthetic marijuana to get high. What will the nurse tell this patient about this type of substance?
A) "These substances are fairly safe because they are derived from herbs."
B) "They can cause hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and hallucinations."
C) "These substances do not have mind-altering affects."
D) "These substances produce a high and they are not illegal."
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department acutely intoxicated and difficult to arouse. The patient's friends tell the nurse that the patient took a handful of diazepam [Valium] pills while at a party several hours ago. The nurse will expect to administer which drug?
A) Buprenorphine [Subutex]
B) Flumazenil [Romazicon]
C) Nalmefene [Revex]
D) Naloxone [Narcan]
Q3) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?
A) Ease of access
B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm
C) Peer pressure
D) Prolonged sense of euphoria
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8434
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension is taking furosemide [Lasix] for congestive heart failure. The prescriber orders digoxin to help increase cardiac output. What other medication will the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?
A) Bumetanide [Bumex]
B) Chlorothiazide [Diuril]
C) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]
D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]
Q2) Besides having diuretic effects for patients with congestive heart failure,thiazides are also used to treat what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Hepatic failure
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) Intraocular pressure
E) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
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43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8435
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the nurse learns that the patient is taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse notes that the admission electrolyte levels include a sodium level of 142 mEq/L,a chloride level of 95 mEq/L,and a potassium level of 3 mEq/L. The prescriber has ordered digoxin to be given immediately. What will the nurse do initially?
A) Give the digoxin and maintain close cardiac monitoring.
B) Hold the digoxin and report the laboratory values to the provider.
C) Hold the thiazide diuretic and give the digoxin.
D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Q2) A nurse is caring for a child whose respirations are shallow and marked by a prolonged expiratory phase. The nurse auscultates wheezes and poor air movement bilaterally. The child's respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute,and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
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Page 44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8436
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases,which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased heart rate
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Syncope
Q2) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how blood can return to the heart when pressure in the venous capillary beds is very low. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Constriction of small muscles in the venous wall increases venous pressure."
B) "Negative pressure in the left atrium draws blood toward the heart."
C) "Skeletal muscles relax to allow the free flow of blood."
D) "Venous valves help prevent the backflow of blood."
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Page 45

Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone
System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8437
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?
A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."
B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."
C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."
D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."
Q2) A provider has ordered captopril [Capoten] for a patient who has hypertension. The patient reports a history of swelling of the tongue and lips after taking enalapril [Vasotec] in the past. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the captopril and monitor for adverse effects.
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.
C) Request an order to administer fosinopril instead of captopril.
D) Reassure the patient that this is not a serious side effect.
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8438
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."
B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."
C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."
D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for:
A) AV blockade.
B) gingival hyperplasia.
C) migraine headaches.
D) reflex tachycardia.
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8439
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:
A) administer a beta blocker.
B) administer a drug that dilates veins.
C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.
D) give the patient a diuretic.
Q2) Which patients may receive hydralazine to treat hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) A 1-month-old infant
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A mother breast-feeding a newborn
E) An older adult
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8440
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses."
B) "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents."
C) "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success."
D) "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."
Q2) A 5-year-old patient seen in an outpatient clinic is noted to have hypertension on three separate visits. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring confirms that the child has hypertension. As an initial intervention with the child's parents,the nurse will expect to:
A) perform a detailed health history on the child.
B) provide teaching about antihypertensive medications.
C) reassure the parents that their child may outgrow this condition.
D) teach the parents about lifestyle changes and a special diet.
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8441
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with volume overload begins taking a thiazide diuretic. The nurse will tell the patient to expect which outcome when taking this drug?
A) Improved exercise tolerance
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Prevention of cardiac remodeling
D) Prolonged survival
Q2) A patient with Stage C heart failure (HF)who has been taking an ACE inhibitor,a beta blocker,and a diuretic begins to have increased dyspnea,weight gain,and decreased urine output. The provider orders spironolactone [Aldactone]. The nurse will instruct the patient to:
A) avoid potassium supplements.
B) monitor for a decreased heart rate.
C) take extra fluids.
D) use a salt substitute instead of salt.
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8442
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and develops a dysrhythmia. The nurse reports this finding to the prescriber,who will most likely order what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amiodarone
B) Diltiazem
C) Phenytoin [Dilantin]
D) Quinidine
E) Serum electrolytes
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient in the intensive care unit who is receiving intravenous lidocaine. The patient is drowsy and confused and reports numbness of the fingers and toes. Which standing order will the nurse initiate at this time?
A) Administer diazepam.
B) Reduce the rate of infusion.
C) Discontinue the infusion.
D) Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8443
Sample Questions
Q1) Lovastatin [Mevacor] is prescribed for a patient for the first time. The nurse should provide the patient with which instruction?
A) "Take lovastatin with your evening meal."
B) "Take this medicine before breakfast."
C) "You may take lovastatin without regard to meals."
D) "Take this medicine on an empty stomach."
Q2) An Asian patient will begin taking rosuvastatin [Crestor] to treat hypercholesterolemia. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?
A) Higher than usual doses may be necessary for this patient.
B) Renal toxicity is a common adverse effect among Asian patients.
C) Serum drug levels must be monitored more frequently than with other patients.
D) Yellow skin and sclera are more common side effects with Asian patients but are not concerning.
Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?
A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels
B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke
C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients
D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8444
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with angina who also has type 2 diabetes mellitus,asthma,and hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "An ACE inhibitor, in addition to nitroglycerin, will lower my risk of cardiovascular death."
B) "Beta blockers can help me control hypertension."
C) "I should begin regular aerobic exercise."
D) "Long-acting, slow-release calcium channel blockers can help with anginal pain."
Q2) A patient who takes nitroglycerine to treat stable angina reports having erectile dysfunction and states that he plans to ask his primary provider for a prescription for tadalafil [Cialis]. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "You may take these two drugs together safely as long as you take them as directed."
B) "You should not take tadalafil and nitroglycerine within 30 to 60 minutes of each other."
C) "You should discuss another anti-angina medication with your provider."
D) "You should avoid sexual activity since this increases oxygen demands on the heart."
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8445
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. An electrocardiogram shows changes consistent with an evolving myocardial infarction. The patient's cardiac enzymes are pending. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:
A) administer aspirin when cardiac enzymes are completed.
B) give alteplase [Activase] within 2 hours.
C) give tenecteplase [TNKase] immediately.
D) obtain an order for an INR.
Q2) A patient has been receiving heparin while in the hospital to treat deep vein thromboses and will be discharged home with a prescription for enoxaparin [Lovenox].
The nurse provides teaching for the nursing student who asks about the advantages of enoxaparin over heparin. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Enoxaparin does not require coagulation monitoring."
B) "Enoxaparin has greater bioavailability than heparin."
C) "Enoxaparin is more cost-effective than heparin."
D) "Enoxaparin may be given using a fixed dosage."
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Page 54

Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8446
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has undergone a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with a stent placement. The provider has ordered a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin and clopidogrel. The patient asks the nurse how long the medications must be taken. What will the nurse tell this patient about the medication regimen?
A) This drug regimen will continue indefinitely.
B) The clopidogrel will be discontinued in one year and the aspirin will be given indefinitely.
C) The aspirin will be discontinued in one year and the clopidogrel will be given indefinitely.
D) Both drugs will be discontinued in one year.
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately?
A) Aspirin 325 mg chewable
B) Beta blocker given IV
C) Ibuprofen 400 mg orally
D) Morphine intravenously
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8447
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?
A) Desmopressin
B) Factor VIII
C) Ibuprofen
D) Tranexamic acid
Q2) A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given:
A) on demand when bleeding occurs.
B) on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal.
C) prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity.
D) prophylactically three times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.
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56

Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was given a 30-day supply of Feosol and has been taking the drug for 4 weeks for iron deficiency anemia. The patient's initial hemoglobin was 8.9 gm/dL. The nurse notes that the hemoglobin has risen to 9.7 gm/dL. What will the nurse ask the patient about?
A) Dietary iron intake
B) Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
C) Whether stools have been tarry or black
D) Whether the prescription needs to be refilled
Q2) A patient who has been prescribed oral ferrous sulfate reports taking extra doses for the past few months. The patient's serum iron level is 560 mcg/dL. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Discontinuing the ferrous sulfate and rechecking the iron level in 1 month
B) Gastric lavage and treatment for acidosis and shock
C) Giving oral deferasirox [Exjade]
D) Giving parenteral deferoxamine [Desferal]
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with lung cancer receives filgrastim [Neupogen] after chemotherapy to reduce neutropenia. The patient reports a moderate degree of bone pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Obtain an order to administer acetaminophen.
B) Request an order for a complete blood count (CBC).
C) Request an order to reduce the dose of filgrastim.
D) Suspect metastasis of the cancer to the bone.
Q2) A patient with a hemoglobin of 7.2 gm/dL begins therapy with an ESA. Two weeks later the patient's hemoglobin is 8.3 gm/dL. The nurse anticipates that the provider will:
A) reduce the ESA dose.
B) discontinue the ESA.
C) order a blood transfusion.
D) order heparin.
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse counsels a patient with diabetes who is starting therapy with an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor. The patient should be educated about the potential for which adverse reactions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Flatulence
C) Elevated iron levels in the blood
D) Fluid retention
E) Diarrhea
Q2) A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which instruction should be included?
A) "You may eat any foods you want and cover the glucose increase with sliding scale, regular insulin."
B) "Most of the calories you eat should be in the form of protein to promote fat breakdown and preserve muscle mass."
C) "Your total caloric intake should not exceed 1800 calories in a 24-hour period."
D) "You should use a carbohydrate counting approach to maintain glycemic control."
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8451
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a free T<sub>4</sub> level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T<sub>3</sub> of 220 pg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the nurse respond?
A) "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves' disease."
B) "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism."
C) "We will need to obtain a total T<sub>4</sub> and a total T<sub>3</sub> to tell for sure."
D) "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about levothyroxine [Synthroid]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider."
B) "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider."
C) "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the Synthroid."
D) "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of Synthroid."
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8452
Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child who is otherwise healthy is receiving mecasermin [Increlex] replacement therapy to treat severe primary deficiency of insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1). The child develops tonsillar hypertrophy. The nurse anticipates that the provider will recommend:
A) antibiotics.
B) reducing the dose of mecasermin.
C) discontinuing the mecasermin.
D) tonsillectomy.
Q2) A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP)and vasopressin [Pitressin]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin."
B) "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin."
C) "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation."
D) "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8453
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11:00 PM; a plasma cortisol level recorded at 8:00 PM the next day is normal. The nurse knows that this is an indication that the patient has what condition?
A) Addison's disease
B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C) Cushing's syndrome
D) Secondary adrenal insufficiency
Q2) A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication?
A) Cosyntropin
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef]
D) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:
A) waistline and shoulders."
B) abdomen and arms."
C) breasts and abdomen."
D) thighs and calves."
Q2) According to studies of estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT),what are its known benefits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients
B) Decreased osteoporosis risk
C) Glycemic control
D) Improved wound healing
E) Prevention of colorectal cancer
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63
Chapter 62: Birth Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8455
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing various ways to obtain a medical abortion with a patient. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of mifepristone (RU 486)[Mifeprex]? "This drug is most effective if I use it:
A) before the first missed menstrual period."
B) the day after unprotected intercourse."
C) within 7 weeks of conception."
D) immediately after ovulation."
Q2) A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills."
B) "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately."
C) "Use another form of contraception for the next month."
D) "You may take the pills at different times of day."
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64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8456
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease."
B) "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications."
C) "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels."
D) "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."
Q2) A patient who has endometriosis has been unable to conceive. She asks the nurse about medications to treat the condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Combination oral contraceptives are effective for improving fertility.
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists are used for long-term treatment.
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are second-line agents for treating pain.
D) Pharmacologic agents used to treat endometriosis do not enhance fertility.
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8457
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cervical ripening
B) Fetal monitoring
C) Renal function
D) Respiratory function
E) Uterine activity
Q2) A patient is admitted to the obstetric unit in preterm labor at 36 weeks' gestation. The prescriber orders a tocolytic agent. When teaching the patient about this medication,the nurse will tell her that tocolytics:
A) are given until term to reduce fetal mortality.
B) are used to help the fetal lungs mature.
C) help delay delivery while glucocorticoids are given.
D) help treat the infections that cause preterm labor.
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66

Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8458
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing education to a patient who is beginning therapy with AndroGel testosterone gel. What statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not shower or swim for at least 5 to 6 hours after application."
B) "I should avoid direct skin-to-skin contact with my spouse where the medication was applied."
C) "I should have my blood drawn for laboratory tests in 14 days."
D) "I should apply the medication to my genitals for best results."
Q2) A 12-year-old male patient diagnosed with hypogonadism will begin testosterone injections. What will the nurse include when teaching the family about this therapy?
A) Annual x-rays of the hands and wrists are necessary to monitor epiphyseal closure.
B) Gynecomastia may occur and is a common side effect.
C) Injections are given every 2 to 4 weeks for 3 to 4 years.
D) Use of this drug may lead to prostate cancer later in life.
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8459
Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:
A) doxazosin [Cardura].
B) finasteride [Proscar].
C) silodosin [Rapaflo].
D) a transurethral prostatectomy.
Q2) Tadalafil [Cialis] was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin [Minipress] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil [Cialis]?
A) "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse."
B) "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose."
C) "I should take this medication with food."
D) "I should take this medication no more than once a day."
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Page 68

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone organ transplantation. Because the sequence of amino acids in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)molecules of the donor is different from that of the patient,the nurse will expect to administer which class of drugs?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihistamines
C) Immune globulins
D) Immunosuppressants
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about immunoglobulins. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "IgD provides a first line of defense against microbes entering the body through the lungs."
B) "IgE plays a role in hypersensitivity reactions and responses to parasites."
C) "IgG and IgM participate in the complement response to promote target cell lysis."
D) "Neonatal immunity is the result of IgG crossing the placenta."
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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461
Sample Questions
Q1) An immigrant child is in the clinic for MMR vaccination. The nurse learns that the child has recently received an immune globulin injection for a viral infection,currently has an upper respiratory infection with a temperature of 100°F,and has a recent history of thrombocytopenia,which has resolved. What does the nurse tell the child's parents?
A) "The vaccine is contraindicated in this child because of the history of thrombocytopenia."
B) "The child should be brought back for the vaccine when the temperature is back to normal."
C) "The child is at increased risk of developing autism from this vaccine."
D) "The vaccine must be postponed for 3 months after administration of the immune globulin."
Q2) The parent of a 2-month-old infant who has just received the first dose of DTaP asks the nurse about expected reactions to the vaccine. The nurse will respond by saying that:
A) "Mild reactions, including a low-grade fever, are common."
B) "Most children do not experience any reaction."
C) "Seizures are common and may require anticonvulsant medication."
D) "The most common reaction is a rash that develops into itchy vesicles."
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has undergone liver transplantation. The provider orders cyclosporine [Sandimmune],prednisone,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. What will the nurse do?
A) Question the order for sirolimus.
B) Request an order for a serum glucose level.
C) Request an order for a macrolide antibiotic.
D) Suggest changing the cyclosporine to tacrolimus.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient after recent renal transplantation. The patient is taking sirolimus [Rapamune] to prevent transplant rejection. What other medications would the nurse expect the patient to be taking?
A) Rifampin and ketoconazole
B) Carbamazepine and phenobarbital
C) Cyclosporine and glucocorticoids
D) Amphotericin B and erythromycin
Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?
A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]
B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]
C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]
D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8463
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking fexofenadine [Allegra] for hay fever. The nurse teaching this patient will tell the patient that:
A) fexofenadine should be taken with food to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.
B) the medication may be taken once or twice daily.
C) tolerance to sedation will occur in a few weeks.
D) with renal impairment, this drug should be taken every other day.
Q2) A patient has seasonal allergies and needs an antihistamine to control symptoms. The patient likes to have wine with dinner occasionally and wants to know which antihistamine will be the safest to take. The nurse will tell the patient to discuss which medication with the provider?
A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec]
B) Fexofenadine [Allegra]
C) Levocetirizine [Xyzal]
D) Loratadine [Claritin]
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8464
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking low-dose aspirin for several days. The nurse notes that the patient has copious amounts of watery nasal secretions and an urticarial rash. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering epinephrine.
B) changing to a first-generation NSAID.
C) reducing the dose of aspirin.
D) giving an antihistamine.
Q2) A pregnant patient in her third trimester asks the nurse whether she can take aspirin for headaches. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is safe during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy."
B) "Aspirin may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in your baby."
C) "Aspirin may induce premature labor and should be avoided in the third trimester."
D) "You should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication."
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73

Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8465
Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Gout
E) Ulcerative colitis
Q2) A 60-year-old female patient is about to begin long-term therapy with a glucocorticoid. Which of the following will be important for minimizing the risk of osteoporosis?
A) Baseline vitamin D level
B) Calcium and vitamin D supplements
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Skeletal x-rays before treatment
Q3) A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child."
B) "Ask your provider about every other day dosing."
C) "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression."
D) "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8466
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.
B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.
C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.
D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.
Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide [Arava] and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?
A) That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy
B) That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it
C) To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine
D) To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception
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Page 75

Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8467
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with gout who has increasingly frequent acute gouty attacks will begin receiving allopurinol [Zyloprim] and colchicine. The nurse will include which statement when teaching the patient about this drug regimen?
A) "Allopurinol helps reduce the gastrointestinal side effects of colchicine."
B) "Allopurinol reduces the likelihood of gouty episodes that usually occur with initial colchicine therapy."
C) "The colchicine is given to enhance the effects of the allopurinol."
D) "You will take both drugs initially and then stop taking the colchicine."
Q2) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101°F and a rash. What will the nurse do?
A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.
B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.
C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.
D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8468
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes teriparatide [Forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Go ahead and use the remaining drug; I know it is so expensive."
B) "The drug may not be stable after 28 days."
C) "You are probably not giving the drug accurately."
D) "You should be giving the drug more frequently.
Q2) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding ____ daily and ____ IU of vitamin D<sub>3</sub> each day.
A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000
B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000
C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000
D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8469
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication should be used for asthma patients as part of step 1 management?
A) Combination inhaled glucocorticoids/long-acting beta<sub>2</sub>agonists
B) Inhaled low-dose glucocorticoids
C) Long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
D) Short-acting beta<sub>2 </sub>agonists
Q2) A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask whether the patient is rinsing the mouth after each dose.
B) Request an order for an antifungal medication.
C) Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection.
D) Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.
Q3) A young adult woman will begin using an inhaled glucocorticoid to treat asthma. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of which action?
A) Lowering her calcium intake and increasing her vitamin D intake
B) Participating in weight-bearing exercises on a regular basis
C) Taking oral glucocorticoids during times of acute stress
D) Using two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8470
Sample Questions
Q1) A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast [Singulair] to replace the glucocorticoid,because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast,the nurse will include which statement?
A) "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis."
B) "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child."
C) "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis."
D) "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."
Q2) A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used."
B) "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old."
C) "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays."
D) "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."
Q3) Which medication used for asthma has off-label uses to treat allergic rhinitis?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D]
C) Guaifenesin [Mucinex]
D) Omalizumab [Xolair]
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Page 79

Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8471
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the hospital has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The patient takes ranitidine [Zantac] and sucralfate [Carafate]. The patient tells the nurse that discomfort is usually controlled but that symptoms occasionally flare up. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider about ordering an endoscopic examination.
B) Contact the provider to discuss serologic testing and an antibiotic.
C) Contact the provider to discuss switching to a proton pump inhibitor.
D) Counsel the patient to avoid beverages containing caffeine.
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with PUD reports taking low-dose aspirin (ASA)for prevention of cardiovascular disease. The nurse learns that the patient drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee each day and has a glass of wine with dinner 3 or 4 nights per week. The patient eats three meals a day. The nurse will counsel this patient to:
A) change the meal pattern to five or six smaller meals per day.
B) discontinue taking aspirin, because it can irritate the stomach.
C) stop drinking wine or any other alcoholic beverage.
D) switch to a decaffeinated coffee and reduce the number of servings.
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8472
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child has frequent constipation. The nurse provides teaching after the parent asks the nurse why the provider recommended using laxatives only when needed. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Children who take laxatives regularly can become dehydrated."
B) "Chronic laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances."
C) "Frequent use of laxatives can cause diverticulitis."
D) "The normal reflex to defecate can be inhibited with overuse of laxatives."
Q2) The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has pebble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider?
A) Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories
B) Magnesium citrate
C) Methylcellulose [Citrucel]
D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8473
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching to a nursing student about to care for a woman with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D)who is receiving alosetron [Lotronex]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should evaluate the patient's abdomen for distension and bowel sounds."
B) "Patients with diverticulitis and IBS-C may take this drug."
C) "This drug can cause ischemic colitis in some patients."
D) "This drug is given only to women with severe IBS-D."
Q2) A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is to begin taking oral metoclopramide [Reglan]. The patient asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "After 3 months, if the drug is not effective, you may need to increase the dose."
B) "Metoclopramide may cause hiccups, especially after meals."
C) "Serious side effects may occur but will stop when the drug is discontinued."
D) "You should take the drug 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime."
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8474
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult who has been self-medicating,using nutritional therapy for an elevated cholesterol level,complains of repeated episodes of flushing. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking:
A) niacin.
B) thiamine.
C) riboflavin.
D) pyridoxine.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who recently immigrated from a Third World country. The patient is thin and appears malnourished. The nurse notes that the patient has loose and missing teeth,gingivitis,and bleeding gums. The patient has multiple sores and ecchymoses. The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>).
B) high-dose nicotinic acid.
C) intramuscular thiamine for 1 to 2 weeks.
D) intravenous ascorbic acid.
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8475
Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old patient with a body mass index (BMI)of 26 and a waist circumference (WC)of 37 who smokes asks a nurse about drugs for weight loss. She tells the nurse,"I keep trying to eat less,but it doesn't work." What will the nurse do?
A) Ask her to begin keeping a log of her food intake and activities.
B) Counsel her to quit smoking to reduce her health risk.
C) Suggest she begin walking every day to increase the number of calories burned.
D) Tell her she is a candidate for drug therapy and suggest she contact her provider.
Q2) A patient who has received a prescription for orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss asks the nurse how the drug works. The nurse will tell the patient that orlistat works by:
A) altering how the body stores energy.
B) reducing the body's absorption of fats.
C) increasing the body's metabolic rate.
D) suppressing the appetite.
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84
Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8476
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall."
B) "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid."
C) "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells."
D) "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."
Q2) Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced cost
B) Reduced risk of superinfection
C) Reduced toxicity
D) Reduced resistance
E) Reduced risk in severe infection
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85
Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8477
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs)work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins:
A) disinhibit transpeptidases.
B) disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibit autolysins.
D) inhibit host cell wall function.
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.
C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.
D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.
Q3) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin].
B) ampicillin.
C) nafcillin.
D) penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].

Page 86
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8478
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as prescribed.
B) Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses.
C) Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider.
D) Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.
Q2) Besides the cost of administering a given drug,which are considerations when a provider selects a cephalosporin to treat an infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adverse effects
B) Antimicrobial spectrum
C) Brand name
D) Manufacturer
E) Pharmacokinetics
Q3) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8479
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe community-acquired pneumonia has been prescribed telithromycin [Ketek]. Which aspect of the patient's medical history is of concern to the nurse?
A) Anemia
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Renal disease
D) Strep. pneumoniae infection
Q2) A child with an upper respiratory infection caused by B. pertussis is receiving erythromycin ethylsuccinate. After 2 days of treatment,the parent asks the nurse why the child's symptoms have not improved. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Erythromycin eliminates the bacteria that causes the infection, but not the toxin that causes the symptoms."
B) "We may need to add penicillin or another antibiotic to increase the antimicrobial spectrum."
C) "We will need to review the culture sensitivity information to see whether a different antibiotic is indicated."
D) "Your child may have developed a suprainfection that we need to culture and treat."
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Page 88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8480
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do?
A) Request an order for a gentamicin peak level.
B) Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber.
C) Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation.
D) Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.
Q2) A patient who takes the loop diuretic ethacrynic acid is given intravenous gentamicin for an infection. After several days of treatment with gentamicin,the nurse reviews the patient's most recent laboratory results and notes a gentamicin trough of 2.1 mcg/mL and normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and serum creatinine levels. The nurse will question the patient about:
A) gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.
B) headache, dizziness, or vertigo.
C) presence of rash.
D) urine output.
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89

Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8481
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient,the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:
A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
B) eat foods that are high in potassium.
C) take the medication with food.
D) take folic acid supplements.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who takes an ACE inhibitor and an ARB medication who will begin taking TMP/SMZ to treat a urinary tract infection. Which serum electrolyte will the nurse expect to monitor closely?
A) Calcium
B) Chloride
C) Potassium
D) Sodium
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8482
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant female patient with bacteriuria,suprapubic pain,urinary urgency and frequency,and a low-grade fever is allergic to sulfa,ciprofloxacin,and amoxicillin. The nurse knows that the best alternative for treating this urinary tract infection is with:
A) cephalexin [Keflex].
B) fosfomycin [Monurol].
C) methenamine [Hiprex].
D) nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin].
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills,severe flank pain,dysuria,and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F,a pulse of 92 beats per minute,respirations of 24 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of:
A) acute cystitis.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) prostatitis.
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Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8483
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse reads a tuberculin skin test on a patient and notes a 6- to 7-mm area of induration. The patient is a young adult who has recently immigrated from a country with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. The patient has no other risk factors. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) begin treating this patient with a two-drug regimen of isoniazid and rifampin.
B) order a chest radiograph and a sputum culture to assess for active tuberculosis.
C) order a nucleic acid amplification test of the patient's sputum.
D) reassure the patient that this is not considered a positive test result.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)who has taken protease inhibitors for 18 months. The patient has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which drug(s)would the nurse expect to be added to the treatment plan of a patient with HIV/AIDS? (Select all that apply.)
A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampin [Rifadin]
C) Pyrazinamide [PZA]
D) Ethambutol [Myambutol]
E) Rifabutin [Mycobutin]
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]
C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]
D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]
E) Ofloxacin
Q2) A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to:
A) consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria.
B) stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin.
C) take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both.
D) take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8485
Sample Questions
Q1) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea pedis
Q2) A patient has come to the clinic with tinea corporis,and the prescriber has ordered clotrimazole. When educating the patient about this medication,the nurse will include which statement?
A) "Apply the medication over the entire body twice daily for 2 weeks."
B) "Sun exposure will minimize the drug's effects."
C) "This drug is effective after a single application."
D) "Use the medication for at least 1 week after the symptoms have cleared."
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse to explain the differences between amphotericin B [Abelcet] and the azoles group of antifungal agents. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Amphotericin B can be given orally or intravenously."
B) "Amphotericin B increases the levels of many other drugs."
C) "Azoles have lower toxicity than amphotericin B."
D) "Only the azoles are broad-spectrum antifungal agents."
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Page 94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8486
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the clinic and receives valacyclovir [Valtrex] for a herpes-zoster virus. The nurse instructs the patient to take the medication:
A) without regard to meals.
B) without any dairy products.
C) each morning.
D) on an empty stomach.
Q2) A patient with HIV contracts herpes simplex virus (HSV),and the prescriber orders acyclovir [Zovirax] 400 mg PO twice daily for 10 days. After 7 days of therapy,the patient reports having an increased number of lesions. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) extend this patient's drug therapy to twice daily for 12 months.
B) give intravenous foscarnet every 8 hours for 2 to 3 weeks.
C) increase the acyclovir dose to 800 mg PO 5 times daily.
D) order intravenous valacyclovir [Valtrex] 1 gm PO twice daily for 10 days.
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95

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8487
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking didanosine [Videx] reports nausea,vomiting,and abdominal pain. What will the nurse recommend to this patient?
A) "Take the drug with food to minimize these side effects."
B) "Stop taking the drug immediately and resume taking it once your symptoms subside."
C) "Take the medication in the evening to avoid experiencing these kinds of symptoms."
D) "You will need laboratory tests to determine if these are serious effects of the drug."
Q2) The nurse asks a graduate nurse,"When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed,which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Respiratory distress
B) Fever
C) Myalgia
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Insomnia
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8488
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient has come to the STD clinic and has been diagnosed with a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What education should be provided to this patient?
A) Male partners should always be treated, even if they are asymptomatic.
B) The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application.
C) The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication.
D) The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks.
Q2) During a routine screening,an asymptomatic,pregnant patient at 37 weeks' gestation learns that she has an infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug?
A) Azithromycin
B) Doxycycline
C) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
D) Sulfisoxazole
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8489
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department after a bicycle-automobile accident with multiple dirty abrasions. Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone iodine [Betadine]
D) Soap and water
Q2) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q3) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?
A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)
B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)
C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)
D) Sodium hypochlorite
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98

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8490
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that a close friend has ascariasis. The patient expresses worry about becoming infested. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ascariasis usually resolves without treatment, so you should not worry."
B) "Avoid going barefoot and practice good hygiene and you won't become infested."
C) "Treatment is always indicated if you are exposed, because ascariasis is contagious."
D) "You should be tested, because serious complications can occur without treatment."
Q2) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Rash with pruritus
D) Blurred vision
E) Bone and joint pain
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8491
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention,the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?
A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]
C) Primaquine phosphate
D) Quinine [Qualaquin]
Q2) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]
B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]
C) Artesunate
D) Quinine
Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8492
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?
A) Atovaquone [Mepron]
B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]
D) Pentamidine [Pentam]
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."
C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."
D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8493
Sample Questions
Q1) A child is seen in a clinic with a chief complaint of itching,especially at night. The nurse observes small ridges and dotted lines of erythema on the child's neck and buttocks. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication initially?
A) Benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]
B) Ivermectin [Stromectol]
C) Malathion [Ovide]
D) Permethrin [Elimite]
Q2) A parent has used permethrin [Nix] twice to treat head lice in a child. Two weeks after the last treatment,head lice are again found in the child's hair. The parent asks the nurse what to do. The nurse will recommend asking the child's provider about which therapy?
A) Applying lindane 1% shampoo
B) Cutting the child's hair
C) Ordering permethrin 5% [Elimite]
D) Using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]
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102

Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8494
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer has a tumor composed mostly of G<sub>0</sub> cells. When teaching this patient about the disease,the nurse will make which statement?
A) "Cells in this patient's type of tumor will proliferate rapidly."
B) "Chemotherapeutic agents that are not toxic to other tissues may be used."
C) "This type of tumor is especially sensitive to chemotherapy."
D) "This tumor will be managed primarily with surgery."
Q2) A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm³. The nurse expects the provider to:
A) begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics.
B) obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics.
C) order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia.
D) reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.
Q3) A patient asks a nurse about ways to minimize side effects of chemotherapy. Which response is correct?
A) "Avoid contact with people who are ill."
B) "Take antiemetics immediately after receiving chemotherapy."
C) "Treat fevers immediately with ibuprofen."
D) "Use a firm-bristled toothbrush to stimulate gums."
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Page 103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8495
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse how cancer cells become resistant to methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse is correct to respond by saying that cancer cells acquire resistance to methotrexate by:
A) reduced production of transporter that pumps methotrexate out of cells.
B) reduced synthesis of dihydrofolate reductase.
C) reduced uptake of methotrexate into cells.
D) increased ability to convert the drug to a polyglutamated form.
Q2) A nurse is discussing the care of a patient with cancer with a nursing student. The patient is about to begin chemotherapy with a bifunctional alkylating agent. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent?
A) "Alkylating agents are toxic to tissues that have rapidly dividing cells."
B) "Bifunctional alkylating agents cannot form cross-links in DNA."
C) "Resistance to alkylating agents is rare."
D) "This drug needs to be given as a prolonged infusion."
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104

Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8496
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."
B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."
C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."
D) "This drug must be given intravenously."
Q2) A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer,and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen.
B) Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma.
C) Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole.
D) Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.
Q3) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:
A) kill existing cancer cells directly.
B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.
C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.
D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8497
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with ocular hypertension will begin using brimonidine [Alphagan] for long-term reduction of increased ocular pressure (IOP). The nurse teaches the patient about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "After using the drops, I should wait 15 minutes before putting in contacts."
B) "Because this is a topical medication, drowsiness will not occur."
C) "I will not have cardiovascular side effects when using this medication."
D) "If my eyes begin to itch or turn red, it means I am allergic to this drug."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin using a fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol [Cosopt] for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Blurred vision, tearing, or eye dryness may occur with this medication."
B) "I may experience a bitter taste in my mouth after instilling these eye drops."
C) "I will need to instill two eye drops 3 times daily in each eye."
D) "If I notice redness in my eyes or eyelids, I should stop using these drops."
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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8498
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent has recently been experiencing pimples. The nurse notes several closed comedones across the patient's forehead and on the nose. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about the use of which medication?
A) Benzoyl peroxide
B) Topical clindamycin
C) Topical erythromycin
D) Topical retinoids
Q2) A patient with severe psoriasis will begin taking acitretin [Soriatane]. The nurse obtains a health history and learns that the patient takes a combination oral contraceptive. What will the nurse do?
A) Counsel the patient to use another form of birth control along with the OCP.
B) Tell the patient she may stop using contraception when the medication is withdrawn.
C) Tell the patient that acitretin is safe to take during pregnancy.
D) Tell the patient to report spotting to the provider so that another form of contraceptive may be ordered.
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has told a parent that a 3-year-old child has a minor ear infection and that an antibiotic would be prescribed in a couple of days if the child's symptoms worsened. The parent asks the nurse why the child cannot get an antibiotic today. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "If the eardrum ruptures, we can culture the fluid to determine which antibiotic is best."
B) "Most ear infections are caused by viruses, so antibiotics are not effective."
C) "Most ear infections will resolve on their own without antibiotics."
D) "Your child will develop tolerance to antibiotics if they are prescribed too often."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a parent about the observation strategy for managing a 3-year-old child's ear infection. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not give analgesics, because they may mask important symptoms."
B) "I will give ibuprofen or acetaminophen for pain or fever as needed."
C) "I will let my provider know if the symptoms are not better in 1 week."
D) "There is a slight risk of mastoiditis if antibiotic therapy is delayed."
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)is receiving epoprostenol [Flolan] at a rate of 210 ng per minute using a portable pump. The patient weighs 70 kg. The patient calls the clinic to report headache,nausea,and vomiting. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) decrease the infusion to 100 ng per minute.
B) discuss these side effects with the provider.
C) prepare for a hospital admission.
D) stop the infusion and contact the provider.
Q2) A patient with cancer is taking rasburicase [Elitek] to treat hyperuricemia and develops neutropenia with fever and respiratory distress on the fourth day of treatment. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:
A) administer allopurinol instead of rasburicase.
B) continue giving the drug and monitor the patient's symptoms closely.
C) tell the patient that this drug should never be used again.
D) tell the patient that these symptoms indicate severe sepsis.
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109

Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?
A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.
B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.
C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.
D) It increases the risk of bleeding.
Q2) A patient admitted to the emergency department with abdominal pain tells the nurse he has been taking kava. Which action is the nurse's priority at this time?
A) Review liver function studies.
B) Assess breath sounds and respiratory effort.
C) Monitor cardiovascular status.
D) Review complete blood count results.
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?
A) Activated charcoal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Fomepizole [Antizol]
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Q2) A parent brings a child to the emergency department,because the child drank a solution containing ferrous sulfate. The nurse will prepare for:
A) administration of activated charcoal.
B) gastric lavage.
C) peritoneal dialysis.
D) whole-bowel irrigation.
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters,and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry,barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?
A) Prepare for renal dialysis.
B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.
C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.
D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."
B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."
C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."
D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."
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