Evidence-Based Pharmacology in Rehabilitation Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and application of evidence-based pharmacology within the context of rehabilitation. Students will develop a comprehensive understanding of various drug classes commonly used to manage conditions encountered in rehabilitation settings, including musculoskeletal, neurological, and chronic systemic disorders. Emphasis is placed on pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, drug interactions, and considerations for special populations. Through critical analysis of current research and clinical guidelines, students will learn to evaluate evidence supporting pharmacological interventions, integrate pharmacology with non-pharmacologic therapies, and collaborate effectively with healthcare teams to optimize patient outcomes in rehabilitation practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating drug safety,the dosage that causes 50 percent of subjects to exhibit a specific adverse effect is known as the
A) median therapeutic dose
B) median toxic dose
C) therapeutic index
D) ceiling effect
E) threshold dose
Answer: B
Q2) If there is no existing patent for a drug,or if the patent has expired,the same drug may be marketed by separate drug companies under different
A) chemical names
B) generic names
C) trade names
D) nonproprietary names
E) organic names
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) The ______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action.
A) malabsorptive
B) first pass
C) Bohr
D) bioequivalence
E) pharmacodynamic
Answer: B
Q2) The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as
A) bioequivalence
B) biotransformation
C) bioavailability
D) biodistribution
E) last pass metabolism
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drug metabolism by the liver and other organs typically creates a more ____ compound,thus enabling the compound to be ____ when it reaches the nephrons in the kidney.
A) polar; excreted
B) neutral; excreted
C) polar; reabsorbed
D) neutral; reabsorbed
E) none of the above; metabolism does not affect the polarity of drug byproducts
Answer: A
Q2) The primary location for drug metabolism (biotransformation)is the A) liver
B) kidneys
C) lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a drug to bind to its receptor can be influenced by local chemicals such as guanine nucleotides,ammonium ions,and divalent cations.These local regulators are commonly known as _____.
A) competitive agonists
B) noncompetitive agonists
C) allosteric modulators
D) partial antagonists
E) chelators
Q2) A drug that binds readily to available receptors even if the concentration of drug is relatively low is said to have _______ for that receptor.
A) low specificity
B) high affinity
C) a short half-life
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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6
Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs can alter CNS neurotransmission by affecting neurotransmitter
A) synthesis in the presynaptic terminal
B) release from the presynaptic terminal
C) degradation or breakdown at the synapse
D) reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
E) all the above are true
Q2) All of the following substances are considered central nervous system neurotransmitters EXCEPT
A) monoamines such as norepinephrine
B) second messengers such as cyclic AMP
C) amino acids such as glycine
D) hormones such as vasopressin
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) Diazepam (Valium)and other benzodiazepines bind to specific GABA receptors in the CNS,and inhibit neuronal activity by _____ the conductance of ______ ions into the neuron.
A) increasing; sodium
B) decreasing; sodium
C) increasing; potassium
D) decreasing; potassium
E) increasing; chloride
Q2) In addition to traditional sedatives like the benzodiazepines (e.g.,diazepam [Valium]),all of the following drug strategies can produce sedation EXCEPT
A) antihistamines
B) amphetamines
C) certain antidepressants
D) certain antipsychotics
E) opioids
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Aside from their antidepressant effects,tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline and nortriptyline may be useful in treating
A) chronic pain syndromes
B) hypertension
C) viral infections
D) bacterial infections
E) gastric ulcers
Q2) Antidepressant drugs that inhibit the ______ enzyme allow more amine neurotransmitters to remain in the synaptic cleft and continue to exert an effect in CNS synapses involved in depression.
A) cholinesterase
B) sodium-potassium ATPase
C) monoamine oxidase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Traditional antipsychotic drugs such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine are _____ receptor ______.
A) dopamine; agonists
B) dopamine; antagonists
C) acetylcholine; agonists
D) acetylcholine; antagonists
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine; agonists
Q2) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of _______ pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q3) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) It appears that antiseizure medications can be successfully discontinued in a large percentage of people with seizure disorders,especially if these patients
A) have been free of seizures for at least 2 years while on medications
B) have a normal neurologic examination prior to withdrawal
C) were relatively young when the seizures started
D) all the above are true
E) antiseizure drugs can never be discontinued under any circumstances
Q2) Newer or "second-generation" antiseizure drugs are helpful in treating certain patients because
A) newer agents generally have milder side effects than traditional antiseizure drugs
B) newer agents have favorable pharmacokinetic characteristics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and so forth)
C) newer agents can be combined with a traditional antiseizure drug to provide adequate seizure control in patients who did not respond to a single traditional antiseizure agent
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to levodopa administration,"end-of-dose akinesia" describes the phenomenon where
A) a patient experiences hallucinations and other psychotropic effects of levodopa
B) drug effects follow an on-off pattern throughout the day
C) levodopa seems to become less effective when it is administered for prolonged periods (3 to 4 years)
D) the effectiveness of levodopa seems to wear off prior to the next dose
E) none of the above are true
Q2) To prevent premature conversion of L-dopa to dopamine in the bloodstream,L-dopa is often administered with carbidopa because carbidopa is
A) a dopamine antagonist
B) an anticholinergic drug
C) a cholinesterase inhibitor
D) a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
E) an antioxidant
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12
Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
Q2) When general anesthetics are administered by the inhalation route,a major advantage is they
A) take effect slowly
B) take effect rapidly
C) permit better control over the level of anesthesia
D) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage I of anesthesia
E) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage II of anesthesia
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthetics inhibit action potential propagation along neuronal axons by blocking the opening of ________ channels.
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
Q2) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
Q3) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Centrally-acting antispasm drugs such as cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)and carisoprodol (Soma)were originally thought to inhibit polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord (polysynaptic inhibitors)but these drugs most likely work by producing
A) decreased acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
B) decreased calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) generalized sedation in the CNS
D) inhibition of myosin ATPase activity
E) increased vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone
A) is a strong opioid antagonist
B) has much more severe withdrawal symptoms than other opioids
C) has opioid-like effects even though methadone is not an opioid
D) methadone does not cross the blood-brain barrier
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia)when given opioid drugs.This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.
A) increased activity of glutamate
B) decreased activity of substance P
C) increased activity of GABA
D) decreased activity of acetylcholine
E) opioids never cause increased pain when administered in clinical situations
Q3) Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?
A) sedation
B) increased respiration
C) constipation
D) orthostatic hypotension
E) mood changes (euphoria)
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) the ability to decrease inflammation
B) the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma
C) the ability to relieve mild-to-moderate pain (analgesia)
D) the ability to decrease the elevated body temperature associated with fever (antipyresis)
E) the ability to decrease blood clotting by inhibiting platelet aggregation (anticoagulation)
Q2) Which of the following conditions is not normally treated with aspirin or other NSAIDs?
A) mild to moderate pain
B) mild to moderate inflammation
C) fever in adults
D) asthma
E) recurrent heart attacks
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) Because they may supply key ingredients needed for the production of articular cartilage and synovial fluid,dietary supplements such as _________ are used by some patients with osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin and acetaminophen
B) prednisone and methylprednisone
C) chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
D) ibuprofen and ketoprofen
E) glucosamine and chondroitin
Q2) All of the following drugs are considered "disease-modifying" antirheumatic drugs EXCEPT
A) NSAIDs such as aspirin
B) gold compounds such as auranofin (Ridaura),
C) tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept (Enbrel)
D) antimalarials such as chloroquine (Aralen)
E) methotrexate
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Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) During patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),the lockout interval is
A) the time between the end of surgery and the start of PCA
B) the time between activation of the delivery device and the onset of analgesia
C) the number of days that PCA is used before switching to more traditional pain medications
D) the minimum amount of time between each demand dose
E) the minimum amount of time between each loading dose
Q2) The technique where the patient self-administers small doses of a pain medication (usually an opioid)at relatively frequent intervals to provide optimal pain relief is known commonly as
A) traditional oral pain medication
B) intracranial drug delivery
C) patient-controlled analgesia
D) continuous transdermal drug administration
E) none of the above are true
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of
A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q2) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
Q3) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions
EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
Q2) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19968
Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchospasm associated with respiratory ailments such as asthma,bronchitis,and emphysema is often treated with
A) beta-1 adrenergic agonists
B) beta-1 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
C) beta-2 adrenergic agonists
D) beta-2 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
E) alpha-1 adrenergic agonists
Q2) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q3) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretics ______ the excretion of water by _______ sodium reabsorption at the kidneys.
A) increase; inhibiting
B) decrease; inhibiting
C) increase; stimulating
D) decrease; stimulating
Q2) Systemic heat (e.g.Hubbard tank)should be avoided in patients taking ______ drugs because the combination of these two interventions will cause excessive A) vasodilators
B) alpha-2 antagonists
C) beta-1 agonists
D) beta-2 agonists
E) all the above are true
Q3) Beta blockers are said to be cardioselective if they bind preferentially to A) beta-1 receptors
B) beta-2 receptors
C) beta-3 receptors
D) all the above are true
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23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19970
Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
Q2) Angina pectoris can be permanently resolved (cured)in most patients after short term (2 week use)of
A) organic nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) organic nitrates such as isosorbide nitrate
C) beta blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) antianginal drugs do not sure this disease but only treat symptoms of myocardial ischemia
Q3) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19971
Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium channel blockers are useful in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they
A) decrease the rate of discharge of the SA node
B) increase conduction velocity through the AV node
C) block the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine) on cardiac tissues
D) inhibit the ability of sodium to excite cardiac membranes
E) none of the above are true; calcium channel blockers are not used to treat arrhythmias
Q2) Beta blockers are effective in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they _____ the excitatory effects of ______ on the heart
A) increase; acetylcholine
B) decrease; acetylcholine
C) increase; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
D) decrease; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
E) increase; beta interferons
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19972
Sample Questions
Q1) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing excessive sympathetic stimulation of the failing heart are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q2) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
Q3) Angiotensin enzyme (ACE)inhibitors are often essential in treating heart failure because ACE inhibitors
A) stimulate renin production from the kidneys
B) increase heart rate
C) prevent the detrimental effects of epinephrine on the failing heart
D) may increase life expectancy in people with heart failure
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19973
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient taking statins to improve plasma lipid profiles may be at increased risk for statin-induced myopathy if they
A) are elderly
B) have multiple diseases
C) have frail stature
D) are taking immunosuppressant drugs
E) all the above
Q2) Low molecular weight heparins such as enoxaparin are often preferred to more traditional (unfractionated)heparin because low molecular weight heparins
A) can be administered subcutaneously
B) usually do not need to be administered as frequently as traditional heparin
C) provide more predictable anticoagulant effects
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19974
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions are known commonly as _______,whereas drugs that facilitate the production and ejection of mucus are known commonly as ________.
A) expectorants; mucolytics
B) mucolytics; expectorants
C) antihistamines; bronchodilators
D) bronchodilators; antihistamines
E) antitussives; anticholinergics
Q2) Treatment of bronchospasm in conditions like asthma are often treated with commercial products that combine ____ with _____.
A) an anti-inflammatory steroid; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
B) an anti-inflammatory steroid; a beta-2 receptor agonist
C) a beta-2 receptor agonist; an acetylcholine agonist
D) an acetylcholine agonist; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
E) a leukotriene blocker; a beta-2 receptor antagonist
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged or excessive use of antacids should be avoided because
A) these drugs can alter the metabolism of other drugs that rely on gastric acidity to activate the drug
B) these drugs can affect the elimination of other drugs by altering urinary pH
C) these drugs can cause other GI problems such as constipation or diarrhea
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Natural and synthetic opioid drugs _____ gastrointestinal motility,and are therefore useful in treating _____.
A) increase; diarrhea
B) decrease; diarrhea
C) increase; constipation
D) decrease; constipation
E) none of the above are true; opioids do not affect gastrointestinal motility
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29
Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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6 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased release of a specific hormone ultimately serves to inhibit its own release,thus preventing the amount of the released hormone from becoming excessive.The self-control of hormonal release that occurs commonly in the endocrine system is an example of A) autoregulation
B) positive feedback
C) negative feedback
D) modulation of positive outcomes
E) modulation of negative outcomes
Q2) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19977
Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged,systemic administration of glucocorticoids can produce
A) osteoporosis
B) muscle wasting
C) hypertension
D) suppression of the adrenal gland
E) all the above are true
Q2) From a physical therapy perspective,the most important adverse effect seen in patients taking systemic glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory steroid)drugs is
A) hypertension
B) aggravation of diabetes mellitus
C) aggravation of stomach ulcers
D) increased chance of infection
E) tissue catabolism (breakdown)
Q3) Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone act on the kidneys to _____
A) increase sodium excretion
B) increase water excretion
C) increase potassium reabsorption
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19978
Sample Questions
Q1) In certain older men,small doses of testosterone (testosterone replacement)may produce beneficial effects on body composition,strength,bone mineralization,mood,and libido,but may also cause an increased risk of A) anemia
B) osteoporosis
C) prostate hypertrophy and cancer
D) skin breakdown
E) hereditary angioedema
Q2) In postmenopausal women,estrogen replacement may provide beneficial effects on _____,but may also increase the risk of ____.
A) the heart; osteoporosis
B) bone; cardiovascular disease
C) the kidney; severe hypotension
D) the liver; Alzheimer disease
E) GI function; fibromyalgia
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32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drug strategies can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women EXCEPT
A) estrogen replacement
B) bisphosphonates
C) Vitamin C
D) calcium supplements
E) calcitonin
Q2) Prolonged,large doses of parathyroid hormone ______ bone breakdown,and small,intermittent amounts of parathyroid hormone ______ bone synthesis and remodeling.
A) decrease; decrease
B) decrease; increase
C) increase; decrease
D) increase; increase
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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8 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19980
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary problem in type 2 diabetes is _____.
A) decreased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
B) increased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
C) decreased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
D) increased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
E) decreased production of antidiuretic hormone
Q2) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Drugs that stimulate insulin secretion (e.g.,sulfonylureas)or increase tissue sensitivity to insulin (e.g.metformin)
A) are used to treat patients with poor glucagon production
B) are effective in some patients with Type I diabetes.
C) are effective in some patients with Type II diabetes.
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true; these drugs have no clinical indications
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aminoglycosides,erythromycin,the tetracyclines,and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______,thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.
A) nucleus; messenger RNA transcription
B) ribosome; messenger RNA translation
C) membrane; active transport
D) ribosome; passive diffusion
E) nucleus; messenger RNA translation
Q2) To limit the development of bacteria that are resistant to drug therapy,it is encouraged that
A) a broad spectrum drug should be used instead of a narrow spectrum agent
B) antibacterial drugs should be administered even before performing culture and sensitivity tests that identify the pathogenic bacteria
C) antiviral drugs should be administered along with antibacterial agents
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19982
Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true
Q2) In people infected with HIV,highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)typically consists of
A) one reverse transcriptase inhibitor at maximal dosage
B) one protease inhibitor at maximal dosage
C) two drugs, e.g. a RTI plus a protease inhibitor
D) two drugs, e.g. a nonnucleoside RTI plus a nucleoside RTI
E) three drugs, e.g. two nucleoside RTIs and one nonnucleoside RTI
Q3) Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g.,zidovudine,didanosine,and zalcitabine)are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they
A) prevent adsorption/penetration of HIV into T4 lymphocytes
B) inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA
C) inhibit insertion of viral DNA into host-cell chromosomes
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
Q2) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g.,cytokines)are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they
A) form strong alkyl bonds within the DNA of the cancerous cell
B) act as false nucleic acid precursors during DNA biosynthesis
C) encourage the body's immune system to fight cancerous cells
D) encourage the mitotic apparatus to function more effectively
E) stimulate the supply of blood and nutrients to the developing tumor
Q2) Anti-cancer drugs are classified as cell-cycle-nonspecific if they exert antineoplastic effects on the cell only when it is in the _______ phase of the cell cycle.
A) G1
B) G2
C) S
D) M
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are often used to suppress immune function following organ transplant,but long-term use of these drugs can also cause A) hypertension
B) increased chance of infection
C) adrenocortical suppression
D) breakdown of muscle, bone, skin, and various other tissues
E) all the above are true
Q3) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
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