Ethics for Health Professionals
Exam Review
Course Introduction
Ethics for Health Professionals explores the fundamental ethical principles and moral theories that guide clinical decision-making and professional conduct in healthcare settings. The course examines topics such as patient autonomy, confidentiality, informed consent, professional responsibility, and cultural sensitivity. Through real-world case studies and practical scenarios, students will learn how to identify and analyze ethical dilemmas, apply ethical reasoning, and navigate complex situations to uphold patient welfare and professional integrity. This course is essential for students pursuing careers in nursing, medicine, allied health, and other healthcare professions, providing them with the knowledge and tools needed to make sound, ethical choices in their practice.
Recommended Textbook
Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 3rd Edition by Dana C. McWay
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30 Chapters
838 Verified Questions
838 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2338
Page 2
Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46483
Sample Questions
Q1) An electronic case filing system (ECFS) is an automated system that _____.
A)allows the general public to search pleadings and testimony
B)eliminates the need to charge a fee for the search
C)is rarely a component for case management
D)prohibits the processing and exchange of information
Answer: A
Q2) The burden of proof as a "preponderance of the evidence found" is associated with _____ law.
A)civil
B)criminal
C)intellectual property
D)public
Answer: A
Q3) Consensus ad idem is Latin for the element of a contract associated with _____.
A)obligation
B)acceptance
C)consideration
D)meeting of the minds
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System: Part A
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statutes are:
A)based on case law and serve as precedents during court trials.
B)considered part of the Constitution of the United States of America.
C)interpretations of laws by health care providers and others at the federal level.
D)written by legislatures and signed by the executive branch of government.
Answer: D
Q2) Res judicata is a doctrine that courts are subject to, and it means
A)a matter [already] judged.
B)let the master answer.
C)to let the decision stand.
D)utmost good faith.
Answer: A
Q3) Punishment associated with _____ law may include fines and/or imprisonment.
A)civil
B)contract
C)criminal
D)tort
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The jurisdiction for medical malpractice cases:
A)always falls to state courts.
B)could be either state or federal.
C)depends on the defendant's citizenship.
D)is dependent on the plaintiff's citizenship.
Answer: B
Q2) The person who initiates a lawsuit is the _____.
A)Attorney
B)Defendant
C)Plaintiff
D)Surrogate
Answer: C
Q3) The questions presented to a party used to gather evidence are part of a(n):
A)Deposition.
B)Interrogatory.
C)Mental examination.
D)Request for admission.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures: Part A
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The person being sued is called the _____.
A)court clerk
B)defendant
C)judge
D)plaintiff
Q2) Methods of dispute resolution to resolve conflicts and disagreements are called
A)alternative dispute resolution.
B)diversity jurisdiction
C)subject-matter jurisdiction
D)satisfying the judgment
Q3) An order of preservation results in which of the following?
A)Alteration of evidence
B)Failure to protect data
C)Preservation of electronic data
D)Wrongful destruction of data
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6
Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which allows a healthcare record to be admitted into evidence?
A)business record exception
B)deposition exception
C)evidentiary exception
D)expert witness exception
Q2) Rules of evidence cover what is considered both pertinent and proper for use by a jury and a judge in reaching a decision, and such evidence is considered _____.
A)admissable
B)hearsay
C)spoliation
D)worthy
Q3) The health record become admissible to court after:
A)a subpoena duces tecum has been issued/processed
B)it is retrieved under court order, signed by a judge
C)meeting foundation and trustworthiness requirements
D)the patient signs an authorization to release information
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information: Part A
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an approved method used to challenge the validity of a subpoena duces tecum?
A)Business record exception
B)Litigation hold
C)Motion to quash
D)Show cause order
Q2) Hearsay is defined as _____.
A)authorizing the disclosure of information that is otherwise prohibited by statute.
B)out-of-court statements that are offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted.
C)pertinent and proper evidence used by a jury and a judge in reaching a decision.
D)that which is considered both pertinent and proper as governed by rules of evidence.
Q3) A subpoena ad testificandum _____.
A)authorizes disclosure of information otherwise prohibited by law
B)commands the appearance of a witness to provide testimony
C)is issued by a court to appear and present certain documents
D)seeks information stored electronically in any medium
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Chapter 4: Principles of Liability
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Johnson v.Misericordia Community Hospital legal case held that:
A)A psychotherapist had a duty to warn a person that his patient was making threats to harm a third person.
B)The hospital had a duty to require that patients be examined by members of the hospital staff who were skilled in the treatment required.
C)The hospital did not apply its own credentialing rules and, therefore, did not follow its own standard of care in determining the qualifications of physicians practicing at the facility.
D)When a physician withdraws from the contractual relationship with a patient, he must provide the patient with reasonable notice to obtain a new physician or alternative treatment.
Q2) When someone makes a hand gesture that substitutes for words and defames a third party, the transitory gesture is considered _____.
A)assault
B)battery
C)libel
D)slander
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Chapter 4: Principles of Liability: Part A
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical staff privileges include:
A)intentional torts.
B)failure to act prudently.
C)lack of intent to do wrong
D)the scope of a provider's practice in a hospital.
Q2) Which relationship begins with the credentialing process?
A)hospital-patient
B)hospital-physician
C)patient-physician
D)physician-patient
Q3) Breach of confidentiality is recognized as:
A)a nonintentional tort.
B)corporate negligence.
C)punitive damages.
D)the res ipsa loquitur.
Q4) Assault is an intentional tort that is defined as a(n):
A)nonintentional tort as well as a nonintentional tort.
B)physical contact involving injury or offense.
C)physician exceeding consent given by the patient.
D)threat that does not involve physical contact.
10
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46491
Sample Questions
Q1) Autonomy is viewed as a freedom unless it _____.
A)Annoys health providers
B)Causes financial stress
C)Interferes with another's rights
D)Disputes religious beliefs
Q2) The Hippocratic oath expresses both _____.
A)Autonomy and nonmaleficence
B)Fidelity and autonomy
C)Justice and beneficence
D)Nonmaleficence and beneficence
Q3) When comparing ethics with etiquette, laws, morals, and values, ethics are based on _____.
A)Legislation
B)Philosophy
C)Religion
D)Society
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards: Part A
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The just claim or entitlement that may be based on law, ethics or morality that others are obliged to respect is associated with a(n) _____.
A)consequentialism
B)justice
C)right
D)utilitarianism
Q2) How human beings relate under certain circumstances is called _____.
A)autonomy
B)ethics
C)etiquette
D)morals
Q3) Consequentialism is also known as _____.
A)deontology
B)justice
C)privacy
D)utilitarianism
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Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which would create an ethical concern?
A)Altering statistics to meet accreditation requirements.
B)Documenting late entries as such in a patient's record.
C)Revealing conflicts of interests to hospital administration
D)Televising press conferences at the health care facility.
Q2) Insurance companies may cause an ethical dilemma by requiring _____.
A)adherence with Medicare coding practices
B)limitations of inpatient hospitalization stays
C)primary care referrals to a healthcare specialist
D)use and distribution of just formulary medications
Q3) Which requires healthcare providers to inform patients about the law and their right to make advance decisions concerning health care?
A)AHA
B)ARRA
C)HIPAA
D)PSDA
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13
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges: Part A
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When monitoring of employee conduct is performed as a role of ethics in supervision, the supervisor is _____.
A)accepting responsibility for mistakes made by employees and setting a good example for others to follow
B)establishing a system of checks and balances to determine nonconformity with standards of performance
C)regularly communicating policies and procedures, which include ethical guidelines, to the employees.
D)using rewards for ethical behavior demonstrated by employees and punishment for unethical behavior.
Q2) Which is established within an organization or profession to evaluate current guidelines and establish new guidelines?
A)covered entity
B)ethics committee
C)patient representative
D)statutory provision
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14
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient right is associated with the issue of HIV/AIDS?
A)Confidentiality
B)Duty to treat
C)Genetic testing
D)Prenatal surgery
Q2) Which is true of DNA mapping?
A)Cannot provide information to develop new treatments
B)Definitely leads to practices incompatible with free will
C)Is cost-prohibitive, regardless of methods used
D)Will have an impact on disease prevention
Q3) Therapeutic abortion is defined as _____.
A)Accidental miscarriage any time during a pregnancy
B)Continuing a pregnancy until an abortion is safe to perform
C)Termination of a pregnancy prior to 20 weeks gestation
D)Voluntary termination of a pregnancy for medically necessary reasons
Q4) The Human Genome Project's purpose is to:
A)Generate funding from private sources
B)Map genes found in human DNA
C)Reduce occurrence of genetic anomalies
D)Track/identify people through DNA fingerprinting
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Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues: Part A
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stem cells that do not yet have a specific function _____.
A)are available only from embryos, and their use is viewed as unethical
B)can renew themselves and then change into needed specialized cells
C)genetically mutate by altering organisms to treat or prevent disease
D)to map the genes of human DNA to create the human genome
Q2) Euthanasia is the act or practice of causing death painlessly, with the aim to end suffering.Which act is associated with passive euthanasia?
A)DNR order
B)Initiating dying process
C)withdrawing treatment
D)withholding treatment
Q3) Ethical questions involved in or occurring during the period closely surrounding birth are known as _____ ethics.
A)eugenics
B)genetic
C)prenatal
D)perinatal
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16
Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46497
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a major concern regarding the destruction of records?
A)Information that identifies patients must be maintained as confidential
B)Prohibitive costs impact the quality of care provided to patients
C)Regulatory agencies might not have been informed about the destruction
D)Third parties must never be used for destruction of sensitive information
Q2) What is a process in development to combat increased costs associated with the legal discovery of the electronic health record?
A)ECRM
B)HIPAA
C)MMA
D)UNOS
Q3) Authorship of a health record entry may be complicated by _____.
A)Allowing the user to copy and paste, possibly into the wrong record
B)Authenticating the identification of the person making the entry
C)Taking care not to repeat entries that are no longer acceptable
D)The patient's right to alter or delete unsatisfactory entries
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements: Part A
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a regulatory source that governs the content requirements for health records?
A)American Osteopathic Association standards
B)Medical staff bylaws, rules and regulations
C)Medicare Conditions of Participation
D)State codes, rules and regulations
Q2) Which is a statutory source that governs the content requirements for health records?
A)Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act
B)Joint Commission accreditation standards
C)Medical staff bylaws, rules and regulations
D)State codes, rules and regulations
Q3) Which is an accreditation source that governs the content requirements for health records?
A)American Osteopathic Association standards
B)Medical staff bylaws, rules and regulations
C)Medicare Conditions of Participation
D)State codes, rules and regulations
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18
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Records held by a state agency correspond with principles of FOIA and fall into the _____ category of confidentiality protection?
A)Common law
B)Open record
C)Physician-patient privilege
D)Privacy
Q2) The elements of informed consent include _____.
A)Consent must be received from a competent adult for it to be valid
B)Explanations must be outlined in appropriate medical terms to be complete
C)Just benefits of intended treatment are necessary so as not to frighten the patient
D)Numerous clauses that relieve the provider of any liability for battery
Q3) The right to privacy is limited in the event that the _____.
A)Patient is an employee of the facility where the records are maintained
B)Patient rights to privacy interfere in some way with the public good
C)Right to privacy is absolute under the United States Constitution
D)Right to confidentiality and privacy is mandated by HIPAA legislation
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19
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which recognizes the patient's right to bring a lawsuit for damages or relief against someone who obtains, releases, or uses protected health information (PHI) inappropriately?
A)AMA ethical guidelines
B)common law basis
C)Freedom of Information Act
D)informed consent
Q2) The confidentiality of HIV and AIDS information about patients is usually _____.
A)disclosed to a patient's sexual partners
B)not applicable upon the patient's death
C)protected by state statutes
D)released according to HIPAA laws
Q3) Which is permitted to sign a document that grants informed consent to treatment?
A)competent patient
B)legally incompetent adult
C)minor under the age of majority
D)minor who is not pregnant
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum necessary standard refers to the healthcare provider's effort to
A)Invoice third-party payers for the least reasonable amount associated with care provided to the patient
B)Limit patient-specific health information released to that which is needed to accomplish the intended purpose only
C)Minimalize the risk of negligence that would result in becoming involved in a malpractice lawsuit
D)Provide the patient with the minimum amount of procedures and medications to maintain reasonable insurance costs
Q2) Which is a direct identifier that must be removed from research subjects' records in order to comply with the use of a limited data set include _____.
A)Account number
B)Age
C)Gender
D)Race
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) ARRA confines the release of personal health information to a(n) _____ data set or to the minimum necessary to accomplish the purpose of use, disclosure, or request.
A)broad
B)extensive
C)limited
D)varied
Q2) Failure to report a public health threat, such as _____, may be considered an infraction of the law.
A)an injury caused by a deadly weapon
B)an overuse of healthcare resources
C)the breach of adoption information
D)the theft of a patient's identity
Q3) HIPAA requires _____ inform patients about the use of their health record, such as that provided for continuing care, education, fund raising, marketing, or research?
A)business associates
B)covered entities
C)departments of health
D)health record banks
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22
Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records
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Sample Questions
Q1) State laws may provide additional requirements regarding mental health care documentation in excess of federal regulations, such as _____.
A)Companies used to purchase physical restraints
B)Jury sequestering during trials involving patients
C)Staffing requirements for electroshock therapy
D)Written program plans with goals of treatment
Q2) HIPAA addresses genetic testing by _____.
A)Allowing pre-employment screening of prospective employees prior to hiring them
B)Determining insurance premiums criteria (e.g., charging higher premiums)
C)Prohibiting it from being considered a preexisting condition for health insurance
D)Requiring it for government employees for the purpose of granting promotions
Q3) Genetic information _____.
A)Can be found in different forms and in different part of a health record
B)Is protected from discrimination by the Health and Human Services Dept.
C)Never impacts potential or current employers' actions against employees
D)Provides a look into past health information about a particular patient
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which has the potential for misuse of information obtained from genetic testing?
A)Child custody battles would not involve a parent's predisposition for a future genetic disease.
B)Employment status is not affected if employers make incorrect and damaging conclusions based on genetic information received.
C)Insurance companies might deny or cancel coverage based upon genetic information received about a patient.
D)Patients might be monitored more extensively by health care providers if it is discovered they have genetic predisposition to develop a certain disease.
Q2) Breaches of drug and alcohol patient confidentiality are reported to the:
A)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA) if a narcotic is involved.
C)State department of health in which the breaches occurred.
D)US attorney for the district in which the infraction occurred.
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Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) An incident report _____.
A)Is always discoverable as part of the official malpractice litigation process
B)May help determine patterns of healthcare activity that should be altered
C)Requires discussion with the plaintiff's legal team of malpractice attorneys
D)Should be included as a part of the patient's permanent medial record
Q2) Utilization review is described as a(n) _____.
A)combination of activities aimed at loss prevention
B)legally unenforceable system that increases lawsuits
C)optional process to be implemented by healthcare facilities
D)required component of Joint Commission accreditation
Q3) Which involves a combination of planned functions directed toward prudent allocation of medical resources and the administration of appropriate treatment?
A)case management
B)health information management
C)quality management
D)risk management
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25
Chapter 12:
Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk manager would typically have a _____ background.
A)administration
B)billing
C)legal
D)monetary
Q2) With regard to importance, an incident report is _____.
A)equally significant for defendant's and plaintiff's attorney
B)more significant for defendant's attorney
C)of no significance for either defendant's or plaintiff's attorney
D)significant to the patient who gets a copy of the report
Q3) Risk managers may report to various lines of authority, depending on the organizational structure of the health care facility, including the _____.
A)HIM department
B)IT security department
C)Outside legal counsel
D)Safety department
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Chapter 13: Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Permissions granted in an electronic health record system involve _____.
A)Authenticating individual entries made in the EHR
B)Ensuring that people are who they say that they are
C)Levels of access granted to an operating system
D)Preventing malicious attempts to destroy health data
Q2) An advantage of switching to electronic health records is _____.
A)Decreased accessibility of information
B)Establishment of data mining procedures
C)Illegibility of information in the patient record
D)Reduced capacity for information storage
Q3) Which is considered a human resources security issue that impacts health care records?
A)Backing up healthcare data
B)Documenting care provided
C)Court-ordered release of records
D)Hiring appropriate personnel
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Chapter 13: Information Systems: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legislation applies to the use of electronic signatures in e-commerce, nationally and globally.
A)ARRA
B)E-SIGN
C)HIPAA
D)TEFRA
Q2) A facility employee who has gained unauthorized access to information in the electronic health record (EHR) about a celebrity's health information is usually _____.
A)counseled about privacy issues
B)fined for gaining illegal access
C)immediately terminated
D)suspended without pay
Q3) The use of electronic communications and information technologies to provide or support clinical care at a distance is called _____.
A)digital imaging
B)electronic indexing
C)email communication
D)telemedicine
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28
Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Stark violation occurs when _____.
A)Billers submit insurance claims twice for the same service to the patients
B)Financial payment for patient referrals is requested from healthcare facilities
C)Insurance payments for patient services that were not provided are processed
D)Providers refer patients to a facility in which the provider holds a financial interest
Q2) According to the AMA, it is ethical for a physician to hold a financial interest in a health care facility when the physician's _____.
A)Arrangement with payers results in payment to patients
B)Facility is the only one available in the immediate region
C)Financial interest is disclosed to those referred for services
D)Patients are insured so payment for services is guaranteed
Q3) The Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services PEPP program _____.
A)Automates audits to reduce intentional fraud
B)Clarifies DHHS OIG regulations
C)Promotes the national correct coding initiative
D)Reduces Medicare payment error rates
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The False Claims Act was originally used during the Civil War to prosecute those who provided the Union with inferior products or cheated the government.Today, it is used to prosecute healthcare providers who _____.
A)charge for healthcare services not rendered
B)refuse to accept remuneration for referrals
C)sue the government for fraud and abuse
D)use the USPS or commercial wire services to commit fraud
Q2) Match the description with the appropriate Federal legislation. Bars physician self-referral of Medicare or Medicaid patients to another health care facility/service in which the physician or a family member has a financial interest.
A)American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
B)Deficit Reduction Act
C)False Claims Act
D)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
E)Stark I and Stark II
Q3) Match the examples of fraud and abuse with the appropriate type. Mistakenly sequencing codes out of order
A)Abuse
B)Fraud
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Page 30
Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) A living wage law requires employers to pay _____.
A)Employees the federal minimum wage
B)Health insurance for all employees
C)More than the Federal minimum wage
D)Workers even if illegal aliens
Q2) Which defines the process of providing work, engaging services or labor, and paying for the work performed?
A)Contracting
B)Employment
C)Hiring
D)Recruitment
Q3) Which legislation bans discrimination in compensation, terms, and conditions of employment based on race, religion, color, sex, or national origin?
A)Equity Pay Act
B)ERISA
C)Fair Labor Standards Act
D)Title VII
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31
Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assists the worker or the worker's family in replacing income and provides compensation for medical expenses if there is an injury, illness, or death occurring on the job?
A)Unemployment insurance
B)Workers' compensation
Q2) Which is the employment arrangement that allows the employer to terminate the employee at any time and allows the employee to leave the employer at any time?
A)At-will employment doctrine
B)Code of conduct
C)Quid pro quo
D)Reasonable accommodation
Q3) Match the Federal legislation with its definition.
Prohibits the misuse of genetic information in the workplace and insurance industry.
A)Consumer Credit Protection Act
B)Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C)Federal Labor Standards Act
D)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
E)Occupational Safety and Health Act
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