Ethics and the Law
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Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of ethics and their intersection with the law, examining how moral theories and ethical reasoning inform legal decision-making and professional conduct. Students will analyze landmark cases and contemporary legal issues to understand the role of ethics in shaping legal standards, policies, and accountability. Topics include the ethical obligations of legal professionals, conflicts of interest, justice and fairness in the legal system, and the impact of emerging technologies on ethical and legal norms. The course aims to cultivate critical thinking and ethical awareness for those pursuing careers in law, public policy, or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Legal Ethical and Regulatory Environment of Business in a Diverse Society 1st Edition by Dawn
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Business and Ethics
Environment in a Diverse Society
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Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding torts EXCEPT:
A) tort liability generally results in financial liability on the part of the tortfeasor.
B) negligent infliction of emotional distress would be an example of tort.
C) torts are noncontract violations of civil law.
D) tort cases are brought by the state.
Answer: D
Q2) According to which of the following ethical theories, in the event of an ethical dilemma, everyone should act as they would want someone else to act in the situation?
A) Utilitarian approach
B) Deontological
C) Categorical imperative
D) Consequentialism
Answer: C
Q3) Equitable remedies are generally available when no law has been violated, but a party wishes to have relief.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Alternative Dispute Resolution
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Q1) Which of the following is the largest arbitration organization in the U.S?
A) Federal Mediation & Conciliation Service
B) Chicago International Dispute Resolution Association
C) American Arbitration Association
D) Commercial Arbitration and Mediation Centre for the Americas (CAMCA)
Answer: C
Q2) The decision reached by an arbitrator is called a(n) _____.
A) endorsement
B) award
C) agreement
D) prize
Answer: B
Q3) In the case of binding agreement, the awards should be consistent with the concept of stare decisis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: The Court System and Legal Process
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Q1) Once all of the evidence has been presented, both sides have the opportunity to present to the jurors their _____, which is a summary of the evidence and the law.
A) cross-examination
B) opening statement
C) closing argument
D) direct examination
Answer: C
Q2) During a trial, when a plaintiff's witness is testifying for the plaintiff, the questions and answers are called _____.
A) closing argument
B) cross-examination
C) opening statement
D) direct examination
Answer: D
Q3) Trial courts have appellate jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Administrative Law
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Q1) What is a quasi-judicial authority?
Q2) The general law governing how federal agencies must conduct business is set forth in the Administrative Procedures Act.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is an executive agency? Give an example of an executive agency. What is the difference between an administrative agency and an executive agency?
Q4) Why is the knowledge of administrative law important?
Q5) Describe briefly, Congressional oversight hearings.
Q6) A business can monitor relevant agencies for actions impacting it by:
A) periodically reading the Congressional Directory.
B) joining a trade organization.
C) being a member of national labor relations board.
D) joining an executive agency.
Q7) Which of the following agencies enforces safe work place laws?
A) EEOC
B) Occupational Safety & Health Administration
C) National Labor Relations Board
D) Federal Trade Commission
Chapter 5: Contracts and Sales
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Q1) What are the two sets of laws that govern contracts?
Q2) If an incompetent party enters into a contract, the contract will be:
A) a contract implied in law.
B) an express contract.
C) a quasi contract.
D) a void contract.
Q3) A contract that is required to be in writing and is not or part of an agreement reached orally before or at the time of contracting is not included in the final written agreement then the contract will be _____.
A) void
B) voidable
C) unenforceable
D) unilateral
Q4) If it is illegal to do an act, then it is illegal to contract to have the act done. Which of the following terms best describes this concept?
A) Consideration
B) Capacity to enter into a contract
C) Legality
D) Mutual assent
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Chapter 6: Torts
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Q1) Proximate cause is a legal mechanism used to allow legal responsibility only for consequences of our actions if the consequences were foreseeable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an employee leaves a business and takes information which he then uses for his own purposes, financial gain, or economic advantage, it is most likely to be an example of:
A) disparagement.
B) palming off.
C) assault.
D) theft of trade secrets.
Q3) Strict liability is responsibility imposed on tortfeasors for:
A) engaging in assault.
B) contributing to an act of negligence.
C) engaging in activity deemed by statute to be dangerous until the tortfeasors must take responsibility for all harm that arises therefrom.
D) engaging in activity banned by statute.
Q4) What is product liability?
Q5) What are the three large categories of torts?
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Chapter 7: Property, Real and Personal
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Q1) The first to claim mislaid personal property acquires title to the personal property and becomes the owner of the property.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the life estate interest?
A) The transfer of property taking place as per the life estate interest is known as adverse possession.
B) The holder of a life estate can will the property to someone else.
C) The holder of a life estate owns the property forever.
D) The holder of a life estate only owns the land during the measuring life.
Q3) What is an abandoned property?
Q4) Discuss sole ownership.
Q5) List the various ways in which a person can acquire title to personal property.
Q6) A donee who receives a valid completed gift can sell it to someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is eminent domain?
Q8) Personal property is anything other than land.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Business Crimes
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Q1) If two or more firms engage in a conspiracy to fix prices, they have formed a(n)
A) oligopoly
B) monopoly
C) oligopsony
D) cartel
Q2) Price discrimination is an antitrust violation under the _____.
A) Federal Trade Commission Act
B) Robinson-Patman Act
C) Sherman Act
D) Clayton Act
Q3) The securities laws are made to protect people from bad investment decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Copyright and trademark violations are example of frauds included under the category of public corruption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is insider trading?
Q6) What is misappropriation?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Secured Transactions and Bankruptcy
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Q1) Pensions are exempt from bankruptcy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With reference to indispensable paper, the term _____ includes negotiable instruments, stocks, bonds, and other investment securities.
A) license
B) chattel paper
C) document
D) instrument
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding a surety?
A) The creditor must first try to collect from the debtor before the surety becomes obligated on the debt.
B) A surety usually does not become a part of the original agreement between the debtor and the creditor.
C) A surety is obligated to pay the debt as soon as it becomes due.
D) A surety usually enters into a separate contract with the surety who binds him to the first contract between the debtor and the creditor.
Q4) Discuss briefly Chapter 7 bankruptcy.
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Chapter 10: Agency and Business Organizations
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Q1) Discuss the following statement, 'An agency results in a fiduciary relationship between an agent and a principal.'
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporation?
A) The board of directors is the center of management authority for the corporation.
B) The ownership of the corporation and the management of the corporation are in the same hands.
C) Corporations can exist without a statute permitting them.
D) The amount of funds that can be gathered by a corporation is limited to the amount of money it can gather from friends and family.
Q3) A(n) _____ is one who acts primarily for the benefit of another.
A) principal
B) fiduciary
C) independent contractor
D) dealer
Q4) In the case of a sole proprietorship, the owner is legally separate from the business.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Employment Relationship and Equal Employment Opportunity
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding discrimination based on religion?
A) According to Title VII, employers are prohibited from discriminating on the basis of religion provided the religion is a legitimate one.
B) Discrimination on the basis of religion is prohibited by Title VII.
C) Employers refrain from asking applicants or employees their religious affiliation.
D) Employers should refrain from treating employees differently based upon religion.
Q2) The employer cannot be held liable for the supervisory or managerial employees who sexually harass their subordinates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The defense of business necessity can be used against discrimination claims that are based on disparate impact.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss business necessity.
Q5) Under what circumstances are affirmative action plans implemented?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Labor and Management Relations
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Q1) The NLRA applies only to the private sector.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ was the outcome of discrimination by the unions against blacks.
A) The Colored National Labor Union
B) The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947
C) The Coalition of Labor Union Women
D) The Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959
Q3) Which of the following employees are governed by the NLRA?
A) Private sector
B) Federal government
C) State government
D) Local government
Q4) Under a no-strike, no-lockout clause:
A) a grievance procedure can be used to handle labor disputes.
B) management can engage in locking employees out of the workplace.
C) unions can engage in locking employees out of the workplace.
D) matters can be resolved through arbitration.
Q5) What are "right to work states?" Name any two such states.
Q6) What is the difference between an open shop and an agency shop?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Securities Regulation and Compliance
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Q1) The financial statements file by an organization at the time of going public must be certified for the past _____ years.
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding a proxy solicitation?
A) It needs to be filed with the SEC along with the registration statement before the initial public offering.
B) It is used at the time of initial public offering to announce the upcoming sale of securities.
C) It is a writing signed by a shareholder of a corporation authorizing a named person to vote his or her shares of stock at a specified meeting of the shareholders.
D) It is a part of the red herring prospectus.
Q3) Discuss the following statement "Management's Discussion and Analysis (MD&A) is often the most important disclosure item in the annual report."
Q4) What is a security?
Q5) What is a proxy solicitation?
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Chapter 14: Antitrust and Trade Regulation
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Q1) Two telecom companies in the same market are vertical competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Power of a buyer to dominate the market is called _____.
A) oligopsony
B) monopsony
C) monopoly
D) oligopoly
Q3) The Federal Trade Commission has both criminal and civil jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Robinson-Patman Act barred price discrimination unless:
A) it was necessary to facilitate a corporate merger.
B) it was supported by the need to eliminate competition.
C) it was supported by cost savings.
D) it was necessary to create a monopoly.
Q5) Describe the provisions of the Robinson-Patman Act.
Q6) Why are horizontal mergers subject to most scrutiny?
Q7) What is entrenchment?
Q8) What is meant by oligopoly?
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Chapter 15: Intellectual Property
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Q1) The work-for-hire doctrine states that an employer automatically owns copyright in employees' works that are prepared within the scope of employment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A trade name identifies a product or a service produced rather than the producer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the context of the Copyright Act, what is meant by fixed image?
Q4) Which of the following is the most common type of patent?
A) Design patent
B) Utility patent
C) Plant patent
D) Prototype patent
Q5) According to the work-for-hire doctrine, an employer is entitled to any ownership of property created by an independent contractor.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss copyright infringement.
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Chapter 16: Environmental Law and Business
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Q1) The requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act are invoked under which of the following circumstances?
A) When the doctrine of riparian right is involved
B) When conservation of a threatened species is involved
C) When federal funding is involved
D) When a state government action is involved
Q2) Because local, state, and federal efforts with respect to the environment can be undermined by pollutants from other nations, the U.S. Environment Protection Agency's _____ has entered into many agreements with the governments of other nations.
A) Office of International Affairs
B) Environmental Management Office
C) Council for Environmentally Responsible Economies
D) Green Building Council
Q3) Mention some of the doctrines and principles that address the issue of ownership of water.
Q4) Write a few lines on the Environmental Protection Agency.
Q5) When can the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act be invoked?
Q6) Write a few lines on the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act.
Q7) What are the functions of the Clean Water Act?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: International Law and Business
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to be used to make up for the competitive edge gained by the reduction in cost to produce the item created by the subsidy?
A) Countervailing duty
B) Antidumping laws
C) Product-specific quotas
D) Packaging and labeling conditions
Q2) The _____ is located within the Department of Commerce. It promotes world trade and strengthens the position of the United States in international trade and investments. It also assists the International Trade Commission when the latter investigates charges of unfair trade practices.
A) Agency for International Development
B) Administrative Conference of the United States
C) U.S. Customs and Border Protection
D) International Trade Administration
Q3) Discuss the various functions performed by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS).
Q4) Discuss the permanent normal trade relations status.
Q5) Discuss the duties and the responsibilities of the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR).
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