Ethical Issues in Genetics Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course explores the ethical, legal, and social implications associated with advancements in genetics, including genetic testing, gene therapy, genetic modification, and genomic research. Students will examine issues such as genetic privacy, informed consent, discrimination, and the potential impact of genetic information on individuals, families, and society. Through case studies and critical discussions, the course encourages reflection on how emerging genetic technologies challenge traditional notions of identity, responsibility, and justice, as well as the role of ethics in guiding policy and scientific practice.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1140 Verified Questions
1140 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss some negative implications of recombinant DNA technology.
Answer: The use of herbicide-resistant corn and soybeans may speed the development of herbicide-resistant weeds and increase our use of and dependence on chemical herbicides.There is also the possibility that genetically engineered traits may be transferred to other organisms,leading to irreversible and deleterious changes in ecosystems.
Q2) Results from the ____________________ and the development of new technologies have revolutionized the detection,diagnosis,and treatment of cancer.
Answer: Human Genome Project
HGP
Q3) A human pedigree ____.
A) is a family tree chart showing birth and death dates
B) certifies that an individual has a particular genome
C) certifies good genetic health
D) represents the inheritance of a trait through several generations of a family
E) summarizes the health history of an individual and his/her parents
Answer: D
Q4) A trait is a(n)____________________ property of an organism.
Answer: observable
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only cytoplasmic organelles in animal cells aside from nuclei that contain DNA are ____________________.
Answer: mitochondria
Q2) In mitosis,chromatids separate and move to the center of the cell during ____________________.
Answer: metaphase
Q3) Cells are largely constructed from four classes of large molecules called ____________________.
Answer: macromolecules
Q4) In cell division,toward the end of nuclear division,the cytoplasm divides by a process called ____________________ to produce two identical cells.
Answer: cytokinesis
Q5) In meiosis,cells become haploid ____.
A) at the end of telophase I
B) during metaphase I
C) during anaphase I
D) at the beginning of metaphase II
E) at the end of prophase II
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phenotype is ____.
A) only expressed in a heterozygous organism
B) an observable property or expression of a trait in an organism
C) the specific genetic constitution of an organism
D) the variation of genes
E) cannot be determined by knowing genotype
Answer: B
Q2) Gregor Mendel was a completely self-trained scientist and never attended university.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In spite of the benefits offered by genetic screening for newborns,critics charge that patients' ____________________ rights are violated because the programs are mandatory.
Answer: privacy
Q4) Pedigree construction can be a difficult task.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In autosomal dominant inheritance,____.
A) the trait often skips generations
B) about one-fourth of the progeny in a pedigree will show the trait
C) two affected individuals may have unaffected children
D) males are more affected than females
E) the aa phenotype will be affected
Q2) Common recessive alleles present in a family can result in a pedigree that looks like ____ inheritance.
A) X-linked recessive
B) X-linked dominant
C) autosomal dominant
D) autosomal recessive
E) Y-linked
Q3) Draw and label a pedigree of Noah and his parents based on the theory that he was affected with an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.Explain your drawing and briefly describe the disorder that Noah might have had.
Q4) Summarize the usefulness of the online catalog of human genetic traits developed and maintained by researchers at Johns Hopkins University.
Q5) OMIM is an acronym that stands for ____________.
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) Describe the breeding program initiated by King Frederick William of Prussia in the early 1700s to supply tall soldiers to the Potsdam Grenadier Guard.Was it successful? Why or why not?
Q2) IQ is calculated by dividing the individual's ____________________ age by his or her ____________________ age and multiplying the quotient by 100.
Q3) Describe the relationship between single nucleotide polymorphisms and haplotypes and explain how each is used in genome-wide association studies.
Q4) Define and give examples of discontinuous and continuous phenotypic variation and explain how understanding of these two concepts resulted in important advances in human genetics.
Q5) According to Wilhelm Stern's method of measurement,a ten-year-old child who is able to perform the mental tasks of a ten-year-old (but not of an eleven-year old)has an IQ of ____.
A) 80
B) 90
C) 100
D) 110
E) 120
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) One possible explanation for why ____________________ is a primary risk factor for autosomal trisomy is that oocytes remain in meiosis I until ovulation,which could take place many years after birth,making them more susceptible to damage.
Q2) One important difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling is that ____.
A) chorionic villus sampling is more routine
B) amniocentesis can diagnose chromosome disorders, while chorionic villus sampling cannot
C) chorionic villus sampling can be done earlier in the pregnancy than amniocentesis
D) maternal risks are higher with chorionic villus sampling
E) the risk of miscarriage is higher with amniocentesis than with chorionic villus sampling
Q3) Define the term translocation and describe the two major types and their phenotypic consequences.
Q4) There are ____________________ chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell.
Q5) Define the terms triploidy and autosomal trisomy and describe characteristics and consequences of each genetic disorder.
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Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chorionic villi eventually form the placenta,a disc-shaped structure that ____.
A) releases sex hormones at appropriate times throughout pregnancy
B) initiates uterine contractions
C) binds to the zygote to accelerate organ development
D) nourishes the embryo throughout pregnancy
E) prevents infection by blocking the passage of microorganisms through the cervix during pregnancy
Q2) The duct between a testis and a seminal vesicle used for the transport of sperm is the ____________________.
Q3) A Barr body is a(n)____.
A) activated X chromosome
B) inactivated X chromosome
C) immature trophoblast
D) immature blastocyst
E) mature blastocyst
Q4) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is,for all practical purposes,a(n)____________________ trait.
Q5) X inactivation can lead to ____________________ in females who are heterozygous for X-linked genes.
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the early twentieth century,most scientists believed that only nucleic acids were complex enough to carry genetic information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A lawsuit,filed in 2009,challenged the idea that genes can be ____________________.
Q3) Summarize Fredrick Griffith's,Oswald Avery's,and others' experimental search for a treatment for pneumonia.
Q4) Friedrich Miescher,after he began to study the chemical composition of the nucleus,was one of the first to ____.
A) propose the nuclear structure of the H5N1 virus
B) discover that the nucleus contained DNA but no proteins
C) discover that human and mice chromosome chemistry differs greatly
D) isolate DNA and propose its structure
E) isolate and purify a cellular organelle
Q5) Describe the organization of a human chromosome.
Q6) Describe one experimental process used to manufacture a DNA vaccine for the SARS virus.
Q7) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are composed of subunits called ____ linked together by chemical bonds.
A) nucleotides
B) polynucleotides
C) mRNAs
D) amino acids
E) proteasomes
Q2) An N-terminus is the end of a(n)____________________ that has a free amino group.
Q3) Outline the four levels of protein structure that give the protein its three-dimensional shape and determine its function.
Q4) The set of proteins in a particular cell type is always equal to the number of genes in the genome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During the elongation step of translation,____.
A) the small ribosomal subunit pairs with an anticodon
B) amino acids are added to a growing polypeptide chain
C) methionine is inserted at the beginning of all proteins
D) mRNA is transformed into tRNA
E) release factors bind to stop codons
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In people with PKU,phenylalanine from dietary proteins cannot be converted to tyrosine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mutation that leads to the buildup of homogentisic acid causes ____________________.
Q3) Discuss factors that must be taken into account when setting standards for safe levels of exposure to potentially harmful chemicals in the environment.Explain why setting these standards is such a complex task.
Q4) Women with breast cancers that are estrogen-sensitive ____.
A) become ill when taking prescription estrogen
B) can exacerbate their symptoms with only a small increase in estrogen levels
C) are in danger of faster growth of cancer cells in the presence of estrogen
D) will often experience cancer remission with increased uptake of estrogen
E) do not produce their own estrogen and must obtain it through diet or supplements
Q5) Discuss how only one blocked metabolic pathway,such as the one leading from phenylalanine,has the potential to cause many different disorders.
Q6) Summarize the metabolic process represented in the accompanying diagram.
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Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several lines of research provide strong evidence that ____ to environmental signals influence behavior.
A) epigenetic responses
B) epigenetic feedback
C) base analog reconstruction due
D) base analog reactions
E) base analog responses
Q2) In sickle cell anemia,affected individuals carry ____.
A) one of several different nucleotide substitutions
B) the same single nucleotide substitution
C) more than one nucleotide substitution
D) a number of mutant alleles
E) one mutant allele in several genes
Q3) Sense mutations produce ____.
A) elongated proteins
B) shortened proteins
C) extra termination codons
D) frameshifts
E) cell death
Q4) Summarize the arguments both for and against irradiating foods.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cancer drugs Gleevec and Herceptin bind to receptor ____________________ and stop the growth of cancer cells.
Q2) Viral infection is a major cause of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mutant forms of proto-oncogenes are called ____________________.
Q4) Stem cells have the ability to differentiate to form specific cell types,which divide only slowly or not at all.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Leukemia is a type of cancer that involves the uncontrolled division of ____________________ cells.
Q6) Epigenetics is the study of heritable alterations in gene expression caused by ____.
A) mechanisms that do not alter any DNA sequence
B) the mutation of a single gene
C) translocations between alleles
D) environmental factors
E) replication and then improper repair of DNA coding mistakes
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize the three requirements for cloning once a source of DNA has been selected.
Q2) During PCR,____________________ serve as a starting point for the synthesis of the new DNA strand.
Q3) The polymerase chain reaction allows DNA to be copied in a test tube without using a ____________________ or a host cell.
Q4) A restriction enzyme is a ____.
A) viral enzyme that randomly cuts DNA
B) DNA ligase enhancer
C) bacterial enzyme that cuts DNA at specific sites
D) single-stranded RNA molecule
E) bacterial enzyme that functions in DNA replication
Q5) Explain why identical twins are clones.
Q6) Genes isolated from mice or rats can often be used as ____________________ to identify and isolate the human version of the same gene.
Q7) To make a typical Southern blot,genomic DNA is extracted and cut into fragments and the fragments are separated by ____________________.
Q8) Describe the steps in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Q1) Embryonic stem cells are harvested from the inner cell mass of an early stage embryo called a(n)____________________.
Q2) The analysis of only one STR is needed to obtain a DNA profile that is statistically unique to a given individual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Creating transgenic animal models for human disease research allows scientists to study new drugs and treatments in animals such as mice,before giving these drugs to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are transgenic animals engineered as models of human disease,rather than studying the disease in humans?
Q5) A(n)____________________ organism is one that carries a gene that has been transferred to it from another species.
Q6) To create a DNA profile from scarce quantities of DNA,such as a fossil or a single hair,the ____________________ technique is necessary to obtain enough DNA for analysis.
Q7) Why is the term GMO a misnomer for transgenic organisms?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic similarities between humans and laboratory animal models facilitate research on the cause,diagnosis,and treatment of human genetic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genetic maps are constructed by estimating the distances between linked genes based on the calculation of ____________________.
Q3) The distances between genes on a genetic map are measured in base pairs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The number of proteins produced by the human genome is significantly less than the number of genes it contains.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diet supplements that promote the growth and metabolic activity of beneficial bacteria are known as ____________________.
Q6) The ____________________ provides protection from discrimination based on one's genetic information.
Q7) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ____________________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In women,blocked oviducts can result from sexually transmitted diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What technique can be used to detect genetic defects in early stage embryos,prior to implantation?
A) genetic screening
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) PGD
D) amniocentesis
E) micromanipulation
Q3) Usually,the first procedure a genetic counselor performs for a client is _____.
A) amniocentesis
B) construction of a karyotype
C) biochemical testing
D) construction of a pedigree based on family and medical histories
E) ultrasonic imaging
Q4) List the three factors required for gene therapy,and explain the difference between ex vivo and in vivo gene therapy.
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Q5) Discuss the reasons why ART leads to more multiple and premature births than the general population.
Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Q1) Redness,swelling,heat,and pain of an infection are a result of the adaptive immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how a mutant CC-CKR5 allele offers protection from HIV infection.
Q3) Summarize the steps involved with the inflammatory response.
Q4) The life threatening body-wide response that can occur when allergens enter the circulatory system and cause a severe drop in blood pressure is called
Q5) The physical barrier of the skin and the mucus produced by the epithelial cells lining body cavities ____.
A) activate the complement system
B) release histamines
C) facilitate the production of antibodies
D) comprise the innate immune system
E) protect the body from infection by pathogens
Q6) Once formed,B cells mature in the _____,while T cells mature in the _____.
Q7) To protect future Rh+ fetuses,pregnant Rh- mothers are given RhoGam in order to destroy ____________________ fetal cells that enter the mother's blood.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) Since mice are over _____________________% genetically similar to humans,they are appropriate models for studying human conditions.
Q2) Family,twin,and adoption studies have revealed a(n)_____________________ component to mental illnesses,such as bipolar disorder.
Q3) An ALDH2 allele results in slow alcohol metabolism,leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde.Therefore,individuals with this allele tend to _____.
A) consume more alcohol than typical social drinkers
B) be protected against alcoholism
C) become alcoholics at high rates
D) contain other alleles that protect against alcoholism
E) have parents who are alcoholics
Q4) The only gene that has been positively identified with the onset of Alzheimer disease encodes a protein that _____.
A) is involved in cholesterol metabolism
B) breaks down neurotransmitters
C) maintains the health of striatum cells
D) attaches amino acids to tRNA molecules
E) breaks down fatty deposits around neurons
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hardy-Weinberg law is used to calculate allele and genotype frequencies ____.
A) in small populations
B) when mating is random
C) in migrating populations
D) when some alleles confer an evolutionary advantage over other alleles
E) the population descends from a single ancestor
Q2) In the U.S.,many states passed laws against miscegenation,or marriage between individuals of different races.What genetically based arguments would you use in support or opposition to such laws?
Q3) The observation that SNPs account for most of the differences in the coding regions between the human and chimpanzee genomes suggests that ____.
A) the two genomes are too different to suggest an evolutionary relationship
B) Neanderthals descended directly from chimpanzees
C) small changes in amino acid sequences account for big differences in phenotype
D) most of the differences in phenotype are due to DNA sequence changes
E) humans descended directly from chimpanzees
Q4) Outline the assumptions made in establishing the Hardy-Weinberg law.
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