Ethical Issues in Genetics and Genomics Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the complex ethical questions raised by advances in genetics and genomics, including issues related to genetic testing, privacy and confidentiality of genetic information, informed consent, gene editing, and the implications of genetic research for individuals and society. Students will critically analyze case studies and current debates on topics such as genetic discrimination, the use of genomics in medicine and research, and the broader social and cultural implications of genetic technologies. The course aims to provide students with a framework for understanding and evaluating the ethical challenges that arise as genetic science progresses.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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18 Chapters
307 Verified Questions
307 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
A)The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B)Activity stops and the cell "sleeps."
C)All DNA is completely replicated.
D)Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.
Answer: C
Q2) What are the expected expressed blood types of children born to a mother who is B/O for blood type and a father who is A/B for blood type?
A)25% A,25% B,25% O,25% AB
B)25% A,50% B,0% O,25% AB
C)50% A,25% B,25% O,0% AB
D)50% A,25% B,0% O,25% AB
Answer: B
Q3) In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located?
A)Nucleus
B)Mitochondrion
C)Cytoplasm
D)Plasma membrane
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the introns within one gene is correct?
A)These small pieces of DNA form microRNAs that regulate gene expression.
B)They are part of the desert DNA composing the noncoding regions.
C)When expressed,they induce post-translational modifications.
D)The introns of one gene may be the exons of another gene.
Answer: D
Q2) Why are ribonucleases that digest mature messenger RNA a necessary part of protein synthesis?
A)These enzymes prevent overexpression of critical proteins.
B)Without ribonucleases,messenger RNA could leave one cell type and lead to excessive protein synthesis in a different cell type.
C)When ribonucleases degrade RNA,the degradation products are recycled,making protein synthesis more energy efficient.
D)The activity of these enzymes promotes increased translation of individual messenger RNAs so that fewer RNA molecules are needed for protein production.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell
Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event characterizes embryonic commitment?
A)Meiotic cell division
B)Selective loss of genes
C)Increased suppressor gene activity
D)Progressive increase in nuclear size
Answer: C
Q2) In what way is hypertrophic tissue growth more advantageous than hyperplastic tissue growth?
A)There is no limit to how large a tissue or organ can become.
B)It proceeds at the same rate throughout a person's life span.
C)Less energy is required for hypertrophic growth.
D)Differentiated functions change with aging.
Answer: C
Q3) Which feature or characteristic of early embryonic cells is unique in comparison with normal differentiated cells?
A)Diploidy
B)Pluripotency
C)Controlled cell division
D)Mitosis resulting in four new daughter cells
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does histone modification alter gene expression?
A)Modified histones result in increased DNA methylation,which increases transcription of genes in that area.
B)In areas where histones are modified the DNA is more tightly wound and genes are not transcribed.
C)Histone modification results in an increase in microRNA production,which inhibits gene expression by preventing translation.
D)Histone modification results in an increase in microRNA production,which promotes gene expression by enhancing translation.
Q2) Which situation most closely represents an example of "regression to the mean?"
A)Two hearing impaired parents produce a child who has normal hearing.
B)A 40-year-old man whose father developed type 2 diabetes mellitus at age 50 is diagnosed with the disorder.
C)The three children of a mother who has an intelligence quotient (IQ)of 170 all have IQs in the 110 to 120 range.
D)A child whose biologic parents are thin is adopted by a family whose members are obese and eventually becomes overweight.
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Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the risk for a man with a 47,XYY karyotype to produce a child with a 47,XYY karyotype?
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
Q2) What factor most strongly influences the development of the paramesonephric tissue into female sex organs?
A)Proper positioning of the bipotential gonad
B)The presence of estrogen during puberty
C)The presence of two X chromosomes
D)The absence of a Y chromosome
Q3) Which chromosome is trisomic in Patau syndrome?
A)13
B)18
C)22
D)X
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are twins indicated on a pedigree?
A)The two gender symbols are placed on top of each other.
B)Each of the gender symbols is surrounded by an inward-facing set of brackets.
C)The vertical lines to each twin begin at the same point on parents' horizontal mating line.
D)The one born first has a vertical line connected to the parents' horizontal mating line;the twin born second has a vertical line extending down from the first twin's gender symbol.
Q2) Which issue is considered a "red flag" for the need for referral to a genetics professional?
A)A family history of both breast and colon cancer
B)Myocardial infarction in several parents or grandparents older than 64 years of age
C)The presence of brothers and sisters who do not resemble any known family member
D)The presence of neurodevelopmental disorders in one or more members of the kindred
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Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition in a newborn should be described as a deformation if it is the only abnormal finding?
A)A unilateral club foot
B)A sealed (imperforate)anus
C)The absence of a thyroid gland
D)The presence of six toes on each foot
Q2) Which characteristic or feature distinguishes a major anomaly from a minor anomaly?
A)Major anomalies affect tissue structure,and minor anomalies affect tissue function. B)Minor anomalies affect tissue structure,and major anomalies affect tissue function.
C)Minor anomalies occur in external tissues,and major anomalies occur in internal tissues.
D)Major anomalies require medical attention,whereas minor anomalies are considered a variation in structure.
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9
Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the expected outcome of pregnancy for women with phenylketonuria when the blood levels of phenylalanine are high throughout the pregnancy?
A)Most births are postmature
B)High incidence of infertility
C)Infant develops phenylketonuria
D)High incidence of cardiovascular birth defects
Q2) Which action or behavior is considered an "executive function?"
A)Hopping on one foot
B)Learning the names of animals
C)Deciding what to give as a present
D)Counting the number of objects in a picture
Q3) Which substance fails to form normally in individuals with Marfan syndrome?
A)Elastin
B)Glycogen
C)Collagen
D)Fibrillin
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Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding type 1 von Willebrand disease (VWD)is true?
A)Incomplete or reduced penetrance is common.
B)It represents a female form of classic hemophilia.
C)Carriers can transmit the disease to their children.
D)Males are affected twice as frequently as females
Q2) A son with achondroplasia is born to parents with no family history of the disease.What is the most likely explanation for the son's disorder?
A)The son is not biologically related to the father.
B)The son is not biologically related to the mother.
C)The gamete of one parent had a spontaneous mutation.
D)The son's DNA underwent a spontaneous mutation during the second trimester of pregnancy.
Q3) Which relative of a patient who has cystic fibrosis has the correct risk for being a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A)Sister 0%
B)Mother 50%
C)Father 100%
D)Brother 100%
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11
Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition or factor most strongly supports a genetic basis for development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Type 2 diabetes occurring in two cousins before age 30 years
B)The disease developing in a person whose parents also have type 2 diabetes
C)The incidence of disease concordance is higher in dizygotic twins than in monozygotic twins
D)The fact that type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in one city than it is in another similar size city
Q2) What can be interpreted about type 2 diabetes mellitus in monozygotic twins when it affects only one twin 70% of the time and affects both twins 30% of the time?
A)The trait is recessive.
B)Mutation repair is incompletely penetrant.
C)Nongenetic factors can influence expression.
D)Homologous genes can undergo chromatid exchanges.
Q3) Which genetic disorder is associated with an increased risk for type 2 diabetes?
A)Achondroplasia
B)Down syndrome
C)Huntington disease
D)Hereditary hemochromatosis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lethal cardiac arrhythmia can occur as a complication of long QT syndrome?
A)Atrial node reentry tachycardia
B)Prolonged atrial fibrillation
C)Mitral valve prolapse
D)Torsade de Pointes
Q2) Which lysosomal storage disease is associated with an increased risk for stroke?
A)Fabry disease
B)Gaucher disease
C)Hurler syndrome
D)Tay-Sachs disease
Q3) Why is Factor V Leiden disorder considered a form of thrombophilia?
A)Platelet activity is impaired.
B)Blood clots form more easily.
C)Atherosclerosis development is accelerated.
D)Excessive bleeding episodes occur in response to minor trauma.
Q4) Which statement about atrial fibrillation is correct?
A)It is the most common genetic cardiac disorder worldwide.
B)A variety of different genes contribute to its expression.
C)It is found exclusively in adults over 60 years old.
D)When severe,it leads to long QT syndrome.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a MSH2 gene mutation contribute to the development of colon cancer?
A)Suppressor gene function is enhanced.
B)DNA mutations are incorrectly repaired.
C)Trinucleotide repeat sequences are enhanced.
D)Drug resistance genes undergo amplification.
Q2) Which statement regarding general cancer development is true?
A)The risk for cancer development increases with age.
B)Cancers usually develop in tissues that are missing a nucleus.
C)Children of older mothers have a greater risk for cancer development.
D)Most mutations leading to cancer development occur in structural genes.
Q3) How are malignant tumors different from benign tumors?
A)Malignant tumors grow by expansion,and benign tumors grow by invasion.
B)Malignant tumors lose plasma membranes,and benign tumors continue to produce them.
C)Benign tumors retain parental cell functions,and malignant tumors lose parental cell functions.
D)Benign tumors have totally normal features,and malignant tumors have totally abnormal features.
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Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the heritability estimate for schizophrenia in the general population?
A)40%
B)60%
C)80%
D)100%
Q2) Which condition or behavior suggests attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A)A 5-year-old who does not want to go to bed at 8:00 p.m.and begs to be allowed to stay up later.
B)An 8-year-old who can hop on one foot but cannot ride a bicycle without training wheels.
C)A 9-year-old who does not focus on a favorite story or game for longer than 3 minutes.
D)A 10-year-old who prefers to play basketball rather than chess.
Q3) What is meant by the phrase "behavioral genetics"?
A)Identification of the single gene that corresponds to a specific undesired behavior
B)An area of research aimed at controlling behavior by genetic manipulation
C)The study of the behavior of genes in diverse settings
D)The examination of gene variants that influence behaviors
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tissue is most likely to provide an adequate DNA sample for genetic testing?
A)Distal ends of hair shafts
B)Mature red blood cells
C)Nasal epithelial cells
D)A mummy's tooth
Q2) Which type of genetic testing examines a person's chromosomes for variations in number or structure?
A)Cytogenetic testing
B)Pre-implantation testing
C)Predictive testing
D)Electropherogram testing
Q3) Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?
A)Immunohistochemistry
B)Direct DNA sequencing
C)Banded chromosomal analysis
D)Fluorescence in situ hybridization
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Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) An Asian American man and his Caucasian wife are both taking warfarin (Coumadin)daily because of atrial fibrillation.The husband asks why he is prescribed a much smaller than average dose of the drug to keep his international normalized ratio (INR)at 2.0 and his wife takes the average dose even though he is taller and heavier than she is.What is the nurse's best response?
A)"Body size is not important for warfarin but gender differences are because testosterone improves its action."
B)"You are probably anemic,which would reduce your ability to form blood clots,so your doses can be lower."
C)"Many Asian Americans do not break down warfarin as fast as Caucasians,so the drug is more effective at lower dosages."
D)"Caucasians have higher levels of the enzyme that breaks down warfarin,requiring higher dosages for the same effect on INR."
Q2) Which organ has the greatest concentration of cytochrome P (CYP)450 enzymes?
A)Stomach
B)Kidney
C)Brain
D)Liver
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Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Julia (aged 32)is BRCA<sub>1</sub> positive,which is known to greatly increase the risk for breast and ovarian cancer.She was tested because her mother,who had ovarian cancer,was BRCA<sub>1</sub> positive.Julia has decided to have both of her ovaries removed because she believes that,in her family,being BRCA<sub>1</sub> positive increases the risk for ovarian cancer only.How should a genetic counselor respond to Julia's statement?
A)Encourage her to consider a bilateral mastectomy.
B)Accept Julia's explanation as a manifestation of her autonomy and remain nondirective in the interactions with her.
C)Clarify that a BRCA<sub>1</sub> mutation does not preferentially express ovarian cancer over breast cancer in any given family.
D)Discuss Julia's responsibility to inform all the other female members of her family about her BRCA<sub>1</sub> status and cancer risk.
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18
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist in a distant country is working to develop a genetic test that will screen embryos so that only those producing tall children with beautiful features will be implanted.What area of genetic work or studies does this example represent?
A)Eugenics
B)Cybernetics
C)Cytogenetics
D)Genetic imprinting
Q2) How could the issue of "gene patenting" affect patients?
A)Access to genetic testing will be improved.
B)Some clinical genetic tests may be very expensive.
C)Genetic science will be able to proceed at a more rapid pace.
D)Gene patenting is the stuff of science fiction and will not impact patient care.
Q3) What group(s)of people is/are specifically protected by the Genetic Information and Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?
A)Veterans and those in the active military
B)Employers trying to use genetic information to make hiring decisions
C)People receiving their health care through federally financed health services
D)People applying for health insurance who have had predictive genetic testing
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Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Black Death was a pandemic spreading across Europe between 1348 and 1350.Estimates state that 30% to 60% of Europe's population died from the Black Death.If we look at Europe's population before the pandemic and compare it to the population several generations later,what are we likely to find?
A)More genetic diversity in later generations
B)Less genetic diversity in later generations
C)Less genetic diversity in earlier generations
D)The same degree of genetic diversity in later as in earlier generations
Q2) Which statement regarding genetic diversity is most accurate?
A)Larger genes are more likely to display diversity than small genes.
B)Genetic diversity is significant only when a population is isolated.
C)Genetic disorders are more common in populations that have greater genetic diversity.
D)Population bottlenecks result in loss of alleles that provide minimal selection advantage.
Q3) Why is it important to consider population genetics?
A)Natural selection can increase genetic diversity.
B)Accurate assessment of a person's ethnicity can be identified from DNA.
C)Disease risk can vary as a result of the geographic origin of one's ancestors.
D)Knowing ethnicity allows accurate prediction of Huntington disease risk.
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