Ethical Hacking and Network Defense
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Ethical Hacking and Network Defense provides students with a comprehensive understanding of network vulnerabilities, cyber-attack methods, and defensive strategies used to protect digital assets. The course covers fundamental principles of ethical hacking, including legal and ethical considerations, reconnaissance, vulnerability assessment, and exploitation techniques. Students learn to perform penetration testing, use industry-standard tools, and implement countermeasures to safeguard networks from unauthorized access and threats. Emphasis is placed on real-world scenarios and hands-on labs to develop practical skills in network defense, risk assessment, and the creation of robust security policies.
Recommended Textbook
Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 4th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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14 Chapters
588 Verified Questions
588 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1054 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Security
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20875
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe script kiddies.
Answer: Script kiddies are individuals who want to break into computers to create damage yet lack the advanced knowledge of computers and networks needed to do so. Instead, script kiddies do their work by downloading automated attack software (scripts) from Web sites and using it to perform malicious acts. Today, these scripts have been replaced by attack software with menu systems. This makes creating attacks even easier for these unskilled users.
Q2) The position of ____ is generally an entry-level position for a person who has the necessary technical skills.
A) security technician
B) security administrator
C) CISO
D) security manager
Answer: A
Q3) _________________________ is focused on protecting the valuable electronic information of organizations and users.
Answer: Information security
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Chapter 2: Malware and Social Engineering Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________________________ contains the program necessary for the computer to start up and a description of how the hard drive is organized (the partition table).
Answer: Master Boot Record (MBR)
Master Boot Record
MBR
Q2) A ____ is a program advertised as performing one activity but actually does something else.
A) script
B) virus
C) Trojan
D) worm
Answer: C
Q3) A ____ is a computer program or a part of a program that lies dormant until it is triggered by a specific logical event.
A) Trojan
B) logic bomb
C) macro virus
D) metamorphic virus
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Application and Network Attacks
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The SQL injection statement ____ finds specific users.
A) whatever' OR full_name = '%Mia%'
B) whatever' OR full_name IS '%Mia%'
C) whatever' OR full_name LIKE '%Mia%'
D) whatever' OR full_name equals '%Mia%'
Answer: C
Q2) ____ is designed to display data, with the primary focus on how the data looks.
A) XML
B) HTML
C) SGML
D) ISL
Answer: B
Q3) Describe the two types of privilege escalation.
Answer: There are two types of privilege escalation. The first is when a user with a lower privilege uses privilege escalation to access functions reserved for higher-privilege users. The second type of privilege escalation is when a user with restricted privileges accesses the different restricted functions of a similar user.
Q4) All Web traffic is based on the ____________________ protocol.
Answer: HTTP
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Chapter 4: Vulnerability Assessment and Mitigating Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe a penetration testing report.
Q2) ____ is a comparison of the present state of a system compared to its baseline.
A) Baseline reporting
B) Compliance reporting
C) Baseline assessment
D) Compliance review
Q3) List and describe the elements that make up a security posture.
Q4) ____ is the proportion of an asset's value that is likely to be destroyed by a particular risk.
A) SLE
B) ARO
C) EF
D) ER
Q5) ____________________ for organizations are intended to identify vulnerabilities and alert network administrators to these problems.
Q6) Discuss the purpose of OVAL.
Q7) If port 20 is available, then an attacker can assume that FTP is being used.
A)True
B)False
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Q8) A(n) ____________________ scan uses various techniques to avoid detection.
Chapter 5: Host, Application, and Data Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ security involves restricting access to the areas in which equipment is located.
Q2) ____ is defined as a security analysis of the transaction within its approved context.
A) Content aggregation
B) Content inspection
C) Content delivery
D) Content management
Q3) ____ are combination locks that use buttons which must be pushed in the proper sequence to open the door.
A) Biometric locks
B) Cipher locks
C) Multifactor locks
D) Reaction locks
Q4) A ____ is designed to separate a nonsecured area from a secured area.
A) lockout
B) mantrap
C) closet
D) pit
Q5) What are the three states of data that DLP typically examines?
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Chapter 6: Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe three advantages to subnetting.
Q2) List and describe three features of Internet content filters.
Q3) In order to allow untrusted outside users access to resources such as Web servers, most networks employ a ____.
A) bastion
B) choke
C) DMZ
D) reduction point
Q4) A(n) ____ does not serve clients, but instead routes incoming requests to the correct server.
A) forward proxy
B) application proxy
C) system proxy
D) reverse proxy
Q5) Layer 3 of the OSI model is the ____ layer.
A) Network
B) Data Link
C) Session
D) Presentation
Q6) Describe all-in-one network security appliances.
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Chapter 7: Administering a Secure Network
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ Layer is omitted in the TCP/IP model.
Q2) In the ____ model, the cloud computing vendor provides access to the vendor's software applications running on a cloud infrastructure.
A) Cloud Application as a Service
B) Cloud Infrastructure as a Service
C) Cloud Software as a Service
D) Cloud System as a Service
Q3) TCP port ____ is the FTP control port used for passing FTP commands.
A) 19
B) 20
C) 21
D) 22
Q4) ____ can be used to determine whether new IP addresses are attempting to probe the network.
A) DNS logs
B) Firewall logs
C) DHCP logs
D) Proxy logs
Q5) Why is the Physical Layer omitted in the TCP/IP model?
Q6) List and describe the three fields that each ICMP message contains.
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Chapter 8: Wireless Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and describe two types of wireless probes.
Q2) ____ is designed to detect any changes in a packet, whether accidental or intentional.
A) CBC
B) CRC
C) AES
D) TKIP
Q3) Slave devices that are connected to the piconet and are sending transmissions are known as ____ slaves.
A) active
B) passive
C) hybrid
D) neutral
Q4) The SSID can generally be any alphanumeric string from 2 to ___ characters.
A) 23
B) 28
C) 32
D) 34
Q5) ____________________ technology enables users to connect wirelessly to a wide range of computing and telecommunications devices.
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Chapter 9: Access Control Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capability to look up information by name under the X.500 standard is known as a(n) ____________________-pages service.
Q2) A RADIUS ____________________ is a computer that forwards RADIUS messages among RADIUS clients and RADIUS servers.
Q3) A(n) ____ is a set of permissions that are attached to an object.
A) ACE
B) DAC
C) entity
D) ACL
Q4) ____ indicates when an account is no longer active.
A) Password expiration
B) Account expiration
C) Last login
D) Account last used
Q5) Describe LDAP injection attacks.
Q6) The action that is taken by the subject over the object is called a(n) ____.
A) authorization
B) access
C) control
D) operation
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Authentication and Account Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a user typically accesses his bank's Web site from his home computer on nights and weekends, then this information can be used to establish a ____ of typical access.
A) usage map
B) computer footprint
C) beachhead
D) system
Q2) Trusted OSs have been used since the late 1960s, initially for government and military applications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ is the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released.
A) Dwell time
B) Lead time
C) Sync time
D) Show time
Q4) Passwords provide strong protection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the weaknesses of OpenID.
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Chapter 11: Basic Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) In information technology, ____________________ is the process of proving that a user performed an action, such as sending an e-mail message or a specific document.
Q2) A(n) ____________________ is a method used by operating systems to store, retrieve, and organize files.
Q3) The basis for a digital signature rests on the ability of ____ keys to work in both directions.
A) symmetric
B) shared
C) unique
D) asymmetric
Q4) A hash that is created from a set of data can be reversed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ____ cipher rearranges letters without changing them.
A) substitution
B) block C) loop
D) transposition
Q6) Cleartext data that is to be encrypted is called ____________________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Advanced Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of a(n) ____ is to verify the identity of the individual.
A) RA
B) CA
C) DA
D) PA
Q2) Identify the general duties of an RA.
Q3) TLS is an extension of ____.
A) Telnet
B) HTTP
C) SSL
D) FTP
Q4) List two requirements for verification of an EV SSL.
Q5) ____ certificates are frequently used to secure e-mail transmissions and typically only require the user's name and e-mail address in order to receive this certificate.
A) Private digital
B) Personal digital
C) Public digital
D) Server digital
Q6) Discuss the three areas of protection that are provided by IPsec.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Business Continuity
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Sample Questions
Q1) System availability is often expressed as a percentage of uptime in a year.
A)True
B)False
Q2) RAID 0 technology is based on ____________________.
Q3) Identify two scenarios that could be used in a BIA.
Q4) Generally, ____________________ focuses on restoring computing and technology resources to their former state.
Q5) ____________________ is data about data.
Q6) ____ is a form of eavesdropping in which special equipment is used to pick up telecommunication signals or data within a computer device by monitoring the electromagnetic fields.
A) Newton phreaking
B) Van Eck phreaking
C) Van Zek hacking
D) EMF phreaking
Q7) What are the steps in damage control?
Q8) Most metadata about a file is generated and recorded automatically without the user's knowledge.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Risk Mitigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the difference between a pedagogical approach versus an andragogical approach to subject matter.
Q2) A(n) ____ policy outlines how the organization uses personal information it collects.
A) VPN
B) network
C) encryption
D) privacy
Q3) The objective of incident response is to restore normal operations as quickly as possible with the least possible impact on either the business or the users.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe two risk categories.
Q5) A ____ is a collection of suggestions that should be implemented.
A) security policy
B) baseline
C) guideline
D) security procedure
Q6) Identify two opportunities for security education and training.
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