Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the methodologies, techniques, and tools used in ethical hacking, focusing on assessing the security of computer systems and networks. Through theoretical instruction and practical lab exercises, students learn to identify system vulnerabilities, exploit weaknesses responsibly, and implement robust countermeasures to protect digital assets. The curriculum emphasizes legal and ethical considerations in penetration testing, vulnerability assessment, and incident response, preparing students to think like attackers in order to design more secure information systems and protect organizations from evolving cyber threats.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 2nd Edition by William Stallings
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) The more critical a component or service,the higher the level of availability required.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Masquerade,falsification,and repudiation are threat actions that cause __________ threat consequences.
A)unauthorized disclosure
B)disruption
C)deception
D)usurpation
Answer: C
Q3) __________ is the insertion of bits into gaps in a data stream to frustrate traffic analysis attempts.
A)Traffic padding
B)Traffic control
C)Traffic routing
D)Traffic integrity
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) The purpose of the __________ algorithm is to enable two users to securely reach agreement about a shared secret that can be used as a secret key for subsequent symmetric encryption of messages.
Answer: Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
Q2) Some form of protocol is needed for public-key distribution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Cryptanalytic attacks try every possible key on a piece of ciphertext until an intelligible translation into plaintext is obtained.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Digital signatures and key management are the two most important applications of __________ encryption.
A)private-key
B)public-key
C)advanced
D)preimage resistant
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) The __________ is the pattern formed by veins beneath the retinal surface.
Answer: retinal pattern
Q2) A __________ is a separate file from the user IDs where hashed passwords are kept.
Answer: shadow password file
Q3) A __________ strategy is one in which the system periodically runs its own password cracker to find guessable passwords.
A)user education
B)reactive password checking
C)proactive password checking
D)computer-generated password
Answer: B
Q4) A __________ authentication system attempts to authenticate an individual based on his or her unique physical characteristics.
Answer: biometric
Q5) Voice pattern,handwriting characteristics,and typing rhythm are examples of __________ biometrics.
Answer: dynamic
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) A user may belong to multiple groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is verification that the credentials of a user or other system entity are valid.
A)Adequacy
B)Authentication
C)Authorization
D)Audit
Q3) Basic access control systems typically define three classes of subject: owner,__________ and world.
Q4) A concept that evolved out of requirements for military information security is ______ .
A)reliable input
B)mandatory access control
C)open and closed policies
D)discretionary input
Q5) __________ functions provide the capability to create,delete,and maintain RBAC elements and relations.
Q6) The basic elements of access control are: subject,__________,and access right.
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Chapter 5: Database Security
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Q1) _________ is a model for enabling ubiquitous,convenient,on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
Q2) To create a relationship between two tables,the attributes that define the primary key in one table must appear as attributes in another table,where they are referred to as a foreign key.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A telephone directory is an example of a statistical database.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Statistics are derived from a database by means of a ___________.
A)characteristic formula
B)compromise
C)partition
D)data perturbation
Q5) A foreign key value can appear multiple times in a table.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) Packet sniffers are mostly used to retrieve sensitive information like usernames and passwords.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Computer viruses first appeared in the early __________.
A)1960s
B)1970s
C)1980s
D)1990s
Q3) In addition to propagating,a worm usually carries some form of payload.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sometimes known as a "logic bomb",the __________ is the event or condition that determines when the payload is activated or delivered.
Q5) Many forms of infection can be blocked by denying normal users the right to modify programs on the system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A __________ virus is explicitly designed to hide itself from detection by anti-virus software.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) A _____ is an action that prevents or impairs the authorized use of networks,systems,or applications by exhausting resources such as central processing units,memory,bandwidth,and disk space.
Q2) Using forged source addresses is known as _________.
A)source address spoofing
B)a three-way address
C)random dropping
D)directed broadcast
Q3) A DoS attack targeting application resources typically aims to overload or crash its network handling software.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DoS attacks cause damage or destruction of IT infrastructures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A characteristic of reflection attacks is the lack of _______ traffic.
A)backscatter
B)network
C)three-way
D)botnet
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) The masquerader is most likely an insider.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is a security service that monitors and analyzes system events for the purpose of finding,and providing real-time warning of attempts to access system resources in an unauthorized manner.
Q3) ________ detection techniques detect intrusion by observing events in the system and applying a set of rules that lead to a decision regarding whether a given pattern of activity is or is not suspicious.
Q4) The _______ is the ID component that analyzes the data collected by the sensor for signs of unauthorized or undesired activity or for events that might be of interest to the security administrator.
A)data source
B)sensor
C)operator
D)analyzer
Q5) The IDS component responsible for collecting data is the user interface.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) A packet filtering firewall is typically configured to filter packets going in both directions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ___________ makes use of both signature and anomaly detection techniques to identify attacks.
Q3) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
Q4) An important aspect of a distributed firewall configuration is security monitoring.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A _________ consists of a set of computers that interconnect by means of a relatively unsecure network and makes use of encryption and special protocols to provide security.
A)proxy
B)UTM
C)VPN
D)stateful inspection firewall
Q6) __________ anomaly watches for unusual traffic activities,such as a flood of UDP packets or a new service appearing on the network.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) A ________ is a condition where more input is placed into a buffer or data holding area than the capacity allocated and thus overwrites other information.
Q2) Buffer overflow attacks result from careless programming in applications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The function of the _______ was to transfer control to a user command line interpreter that gave access to any program available on the system with the privileges of the attacked program.
Q4) At the basic machine level,all of the data manipulated by machine instructions executed by the computer processor are stored in either the processor's registers or in ________.
Q5) _______ was one of the earliest operating systems written in a high-level language.
Q6) The JAVA programming language is extremely vulnerable to buffer overflows.
A)True B)False
Q7) ______ defenses aim to harden programs to resist attacks in new programs.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) Program _______ refers to any source of data that originates outside the program and whose value is not explicitly known by the programmer when the code was written.
Q2) A _______ attack is where the input includes code that is then executed by the attacked system.
A)SQL injection
B)cross-site scripting
C)code injection
D)interpreter injection
Q3) Without suitable synchronization of accesses it is possible that values may be corrupted,or changes lost,due to over-lapping access,use, and replacement of shared values.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is a problem anticipating and testing for all potential types of non-standard inputs that might be exploited by an attacker to subvert a program.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If privileges are greater than those already available to the attacker the result is a
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) A very common configuration fault seen with Web and file transfer servers is for all the files supplied by the service to be owned by the same "user" account that the server executes as.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unix and Linux systems grant access permissions for each resource using the ______ command.
Q3) The three operating system security layers are: physical hardware,operating system kernel,and _________.
Q4) ______ virtualization systems are more common in clients,where they run along side other applications on the host OS,and are used to support applications for alternate operating system versions or types.
Q5) Manual analysis of logs is a reliable means of detecting adverse events.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Configuration information in Windows systems is centralized in the _______,which forms a database of keys and values.
Q7) System security begins with the installation of the ________.
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) Problems with providing strong computer security involve only the design phase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
Q3) The _______ access mode allows the subject both read and write access to the object.
A)read
B)append
C)write
D)execute
Q4) The BLP model includes a set of rules based on abstract operations that change the state of the system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To structure the need for assurance the CC defines a scale for rating assurance consisting of _____ evaluation assurance levels ranging from the least rigor and scope for assurance evidence to the most.
Q6) In the United States the ______ and the NSA jointly operate the Common Criteria Evaluation and Validation Scheme.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) The term ________ refers to a document that details not only the overall security objectives and strategies,but also procedural policies that define acceptable behavior,expected practices,and responsibilities.
Q2) Legal and regulatory constraints may require specific approaches to risk assessment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _________ approach involves conducting a risk analysis for the organization's IT systems that exploits the knowledge and expertise of the individuals performing the analysis.
A)baseline
B)combined
C)detailed
D)informal
Q4) IT security management functions include:
A)determining organizational IT security objectives,strategies,and policies
B)detecting and reacting to incidents
C)specifying appropriate safeguards
D)all of the above
Q5) Not proceeding with the activity or system that creates the risk is _________.
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls, plans, and Procedures
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Q1) Periodically reviewing controls to verify that they still function as intended,upgrading controls when new requirements are discovered,ensuring that changes to systems do not adversely affect the controls,and ensuring new threats or vulnerabilities have not become known are all ________ tasks.
A)security compliance
B)maintenance
C)incident handling
D)program management
Q2) _________ controls focus on preventing security beaches from occurring by inhibiting attempts to violate security policies or exploit a vulnerability.
Q3) The _______ plan documents what needs to be done for each selected control,along with the personnel responsible,and the resources and time frame to be used.
Q4) Contingency planning falls into the _________ class of security controls.
Q5) The selection of recommended controls is not guided by legal requirements.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A _________ on an organization's IT systems identifies areas needing treatment. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) ________ threats are specifically designed to overcome prevention measures and seek the most vulnerable point of attack.
A)Human-caused
B)Technical
C)EMI
D)Environmental
Q2) Physical security must also prevent any type of physical access or intrusion that can compromise logical security.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The role of physical security is affected by the operating location of the information system,which can be characterized as ______ .
A)static
B)portable
C)mobile
D)all of the above
Q4) _________ security,also called infrastructure security,protects the information systems that contain data and the people who use,operate,and maintain the systems.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) Having all of the security functions and audit responsibilities reside in the same person is a wise decision on the part of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______ are ways for an awareness program to promote the security message to employees.
A)Posters
B)Newsletters
C)Workshops and training sessions
D)All of the above
Q3) ___________ scan critical system files,directories,and services to ensure they have not been changed without proper authorization.
A)Intrusion prevention systems
B)System integrity verification tools
C)Log analysis tools
D)Network and host intrusion detection systems
Q4) Employees have no expectation of ______ in their use of company-provided e-mail or Internet access,even if the communication is personal in nature.
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) The audit analyzer prepares human-readable security reports.
A)True
B)False
Q2) System conditions requiring immediate attention is a(n)_______ severity.
A)alert
B)err
C)notice
D)emert
Q3) ______ is the process of defining normal versus unusual events and patterns.
Q4) Severe messages,such as immediate system shutdown,is a(n)_____ severity.
A)alert
B)emerg
C)crit
D)warning
Q5) Messages in the BSD syslog format consist of three parts: PRI,Header,and ___.
Q6) _________ is a form of auditing that focuses on the security of an organization's IS assets.
Q7) Monitoring areas suggested in ISO 27002 include: authorized access,all privileged operations,unauthorized access attempts,changes to (or attempts to change)system security settings and controls,and __________.
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) A ________ provides distribution channels,such as an online shop or a Web retailer.
A)content provider
B)distributor
C)consumer
D)clearinghouse
Q2) A ______ handles the financial transaction for issuing the digital license to the consumer and pays royalty fees to the content provider and distribution fees to the distributor accordingly.
Q3) The Common Criteria specification is primarily concerned with the privacy of personal information concerning the individual rather than the privacy of an individual with respect to that individual's use of computer resources.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The 2001 _________ is the first international treaty seeking to address Internet crimes by harmonizing national laws,improving investigative techniques,and increasing cooperation among nations.
Q5) The invasion of the rights secured by patents,copyrights,and trademarks is
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) Symmetric encryption is also referred to as secret-key or single-key encryption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One desirable property of a stream cipher is that the ciphertext be of the same length as the plaintext.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _______ module performs end-to-end encryption and obtains session keys on behalf of users.
A)PKM
B)RCM
C)SSM
D)CCM
Q4) A ________ cipher processes the input elements continuously,producing output one element at a time as it goes along.
Q5) _________ is the process of attempting to discover the plaintext or key.
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Q6) The _________ was issued as a federal information-processing standard and is intended to replace DES and 3DES with an algorithm that is more secure and efficient.
Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) The purpose of the algorithm is to enable two users to exchange a __________ securely that can then be used for subsequent encryption of messages.
Q2) Four possible approaches to attacking the RSA algorithm are: brute force,timing attacks,_________ attacks,and chosen ciphertext attacks.
Q3) HMAC can be proven secure provided that the embedded hash function has some reasonable cryptographic strengths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although the _________ attack is a serious threat,there are simple countermeasures that can be used such as constant time calcs,random delays or blinding computations.
A)timing
B)chosen ciphertext
C)mathematical
D)none of the above
Q5) __________ are alarming for two reasons: they come from a completely unexpected direction and they are a ciphertext-only attack.
Page 23
Q6) One of the simplest hash functions is the ________ of every block.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) The IAB included authentication and encryption as necessary security features in IPv6.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A signed data message can only be viewed by a recipient with __________ capability.
Q3) The basic tool that permits widespread use of S/MIME is ________.
A)the domain key
B)the public-key certificate
C)the MIME security payload
D)radix-64
Q4) MIME is an extension to the old RFC 822 specification of an Internet mail format.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most complex part of SSL is the __________.
A)TLS
B)message header
C)payload
D)handshake protocol
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) ______ is the set of hardware,software,people,policies,and procedures needed to create,manage,store,distribute,and revoke digital certificates based on asymmetric cryptography.
Q2) An obvious security risk is that of impersonation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ requires that a user prove his or her identity for each service invoked and,optionally,requires servers to prove their identity to clients.
A)FIM
B)Kerberos
C)X.509
D)PKI
Q4) Because serial numbers are unique within a CA,the serial number is sufficient to identify the certificate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is a set of SOAP extensions for implementing message integrity and confidentiality in Web services.
Q6) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The concerns for wireless security,in terms of threats,and countermeasures,are different to those found in a wired environment, such as an Ethernet LAN or a wired wide-area network.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The MPDU exchange for distributing pairwise keys is known as the _______.
A)pseudorandom function
B)cryptographic function
C)nonce
D)4-way handshake
Q3) A wireless client can be _______.
A)a cell phone
B)a Wi-Fi enabled laptop
C)a Bluetooth device
D)all of the above
Q4) The transmission medium carries the radio waves for data transfer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The security requirements are: confidentiality,integrity,availability,authenticity,and
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