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Essentials of Pediatric Nursing provides a comprehensive overview of nursing care for infants, children, and adolescents. The course focuses on growth and development, family-centered care, and health promotion while addressing common pediatric diseases, disorders, and nursing interventions. Emphasis is placed on effective communication with children and families, pediatric assessment techniques, safety and ethical considerations, medication administration, and the role of the nurse in supporting children through illness and hospitalization. Students gain foundational knowledge and skills required to deliver compassionate, holistic, and evidence-based care to the pediatric population.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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1126 Verified Questions
1126 Flashcards
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Q1) Which is the leading cause of death from unintentional injuries for females ranging in age from 1 to 14?
A) Mechanical suffocation
B) Drowning
C) Motor vehicle-related fatalities
D) Fire- and burn-related fatalities
Answer: C
Q2) Which behaviors by the nurse indicate therapeutic nurse-family boundaries? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nurse visits family on days off.
B) House rules are negotiated.
C) Nurse buys child expensive gifts.
D) Communication is open and two-way.
Answer: B, D
Q3) Which action by the nurse demonstrates use of evidence-based practice (EBP)?
A) Gathering equipment for a procedure
B) Documenting changes in a patient's status
C) Questioning the use of daily central line dressing changes
D) Clarifying a physician's prescription for morphine
Answer: C
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Q1) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments, "I want to go back to work, but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." The nurse's most appropriate answer would be which statement?
A) "I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good babysitter."
B) "You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C) "You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
D) "Let's talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric."
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is admitting a child, in foster care, to the hospital. The nurse recognizes that foster parents care for the child _____ hours a day. (Record your answer as a whole number.)
Answer: 24
The term foster care is defined as 24-hour substitute care for children outside of their own homes.
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Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syndrome involves a common sex chromosome defect?
A) Down
B) Turner
C) Marfan
D) Hemophilia
Answer: B
Q2) An infant who weighs 7 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at age 1 year?
A) 14
B) 16
C) 18
D) 21
Answer: D
Q3) A nurse observes a toddler playing with sand and water. How should the nurse document this type of play?
A) Skill
B) Dramatic
C) Social-affective
D) Sense-pleasure
Answer: D

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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to assess a 3-year-old child. What communication technique should the nurse use for this child?
A) Focus communication on child.
B) Explain experiences of others to child.
C) Use easy analogies when possible.
D) Assure child that communication is private.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to test a school-age child's vision. Which eye chart should the nurse use?
A) Denver Eye Screening Test
B) Allen picture card test
C) Ishihara vision test
D) Snellen letter chart
Q3) During examination of a toddler's extremities, the nurse notes that the child is bowlegged. What should the nurse recognize regarding this finding?
A) Abnormal and requires further investigation
B) Abnormal unless it occurs in conjunction with knock-knee
C) Normal if the condition is unilateral or asymmetric
D) Normal because the lower back and leg muscles are not yet well developed
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Q1) A nurse is using the FLACC scale to evaluate pain in a preverbal child. The nurse makes the following assessment: Face: occasional grimace; Leg: relaxed; Activity: squirming, tense; Cry: no cry; Consolability: content, relaxed. The nurse records the FLACC assessment as which number? (Record your answer as a whole number.)
Q2) Surgery has informed a nurse that the patient returning to the floor after spinal surgery has an opioid epidural catheter for pain management. The nurse should prepare to monitor the patient for which side effects of an opioid epidural catheter? (Select all that apply.)
A) Urinary frequency
B) Nausea
C) Itching
D) Respiratory depression
Q3) A 2-year-old child has been returned to the nursing unit after an inguinal hernia repair. Which pain assessment tool should the nurse use to assess this child for the presence of pain?
A) FACES pain rating tool
B) Numeric scale
C) Oucher scale
D) FLACC tool
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Q1) Parents tell the nurse that their child keeps scratching the areas where he has poison ivy. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge?
A) Poison ivy does not itch and needs further investigation.
B) Scratching the lesions will not cause a problem.
C) Scratching the lesions will cause the poison ivy to spread.
D) Scratching the lesions may cause them to become secondarily infected.
Q2) Which is a common childhood communicable disease that may cause severe defects in the fetus when it occurs in its congenital form?
A) Erythema infectiosum
B) Roseola
C) Rubeola
D) Rubella
Q3) A mother tells the nurse that she does not want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections. What should the nurse explain?
A) This cannot be prevented.
B) Infants do not feel pain as adults do.
C) This is not a good reason for refusing immunizations.
D) A topical anesthetic, EMLA, can be applied before injections are given.
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Q1) In a newborn's eyes, strabismus is a normal finding because of:
A) congenital cataracts.
B) lack of binocularity.
C) absence of red reflex.
D) inability of pupil to react to light.
Q2) Which statement best represents the first stage of the first period of reactivity in the newborn?
A) It begins when the newborn awakes from a deep sleep.
B) It ends when the amount of respiratory mucus has decreased.
C) It is an excellent time to acquaint the parents with the newborn.
D) It is an excellent time for mother to sleep and recover.
Q3) The Apgar score of a newborn 5 minutes after birth is 8. Which is the nurse's best interpretation of this?
A) Resuscitation is likely to be needed.
B) Adjustment to extrauterine life is adequate.
C) Additional scoring in 5 more minutes is needed.
D) Maternal sedation or analgesia contributed to the low score.
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Q1) What causes meconium aspiration syndrome?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Carbon dioxide retention
C) Bowel obstruction with meconium
D) Aspiration of meconium in utero or at birth
Q2) Which term refers to a newborn born before completion of week 37 of gestation, regardless of birth weight?
A) Postterm
B) Preterm
C) Low birth weight
D) Small for gestational age
Q3) Which are clinical manifestations of the postterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive lanugo
B) Increased subcutaneous fat
C) Absence of scalp hair
D) Parchment-like skin
E) Minimal vernix caseosa
F) Long fingernails
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Q1) A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands, but she will not voluntarily grasp it. How should the nurse interpret this action?
A) Normal development
B) Significant developmental lag
C) Slightly delayed development due to prematurity
D) Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy
Q2) The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A) Normal finding
B) Finding requiring a referral
C) Abnormal finding
D) Normal finding, but requires rechecking in 1 month
Q3) At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli?
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 4 months
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Q1) Rickets is caused by a deficiency in:
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin C.
C) vitamin D and calcium.
D) folic acid and iron.
Q2) An infant has been pronounced dead from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in the emergency department. Which is an appropriate question to ask the parents?
A) "Did you hear the infant cry out?"
B) "Why didn't you check on the infant earlier?"
C) "What time did you find the infant?"
D) "Was the head buried in a blanket?"
Q3) An infant is having an anaphylactic reaction, and the nurse is preparing to administer epinephrine 0.001 mg/kg. The child weighs 22 pounds. What is the epinephrine dose the nurse should administer? (Record your answer using two decimal places.)
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Q1) The child of 15 to 30 months is likely to be struggling with which developmental task?
A) Trust
B) Initiative
C) Autonomy
D) Intimacy
Q2) Which statement is correct about toilet training?
A) Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B) Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C) Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D) Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
Q3) The parent of a 16-month-old toddler asks, "What is the best way to keep our son from getting into our medicines at home?" The nurse's best advice is:
A) "All medicines should be locked securely away."
B) "The medicines should be placed in high cabinets."
C) "The child just needs to be taught not to touch medicines."
D) "Medicines should not be kept in the homes of small children."
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Q1) Which toys should a nurse provide to promote imaginative play for a 3-year-old hospitalized child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Plastic telephone
B) Hand puppets
C) Jigsaw puzzle (100 pieces)
D) Farm animals and equipment
E) Jump rope
Q2) The nurse is guiding parents in selecting a daycare facility for their child. Which is especially important to consider when making the selection?
A) Structured learning environment
B) Socioeconomic status of children
C) Cultural similarities of children
D) Teachers knowledgeable about development
Q3) Which should the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child?
A) Jump rope
B) Ride a two-wheel bicycle
C) Skip on alternate feet
D) Balance on one foot for a few seconds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a clinical manifestation of acetaminophen poisoning?
A) Hyperpyrexia
B) Hepatic involvement
C) Severe burning pain in stomach
D) Drooling and inability to clear secretions
Q2) The home health nurse is planning care for a 3-year-old boy who has Down syndrome and is receiving continuous oxygen. He recently began walking around furniture. He is spoon-fed by his parents and eats some finger foods. Which is the most appropriate goal to promote normal development?
A) Encourage mobility.
B) Encourage assistance in self-care.
C) Promote oral-motor development.
D) Provide opportunities for socialization.
Q3) Which describes a child who is abused by the parent(s)?
A) Unintentionally contributes to the abusing situation
B) Belongs to a low socioeconomic population
C) Is healthier than the nonabused siblings
D) Abuses siblings in the same way as child is abused by the parent(s)
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Q1) Which describes moral development in younger school-age children?
A) The standards of behavior now come from within themselves.
B) They do not yet experience a sense of guilt when they misbehave.
C) They know the rules and behaviors expected of them but do not understand the reasons behind them.
D) They no longer interpret accidents and misfortunes as punishment for misdeeds.
Q2) Parents ask the nurse whether it is common for their school-age child to spend a lot of time with peers. The nurse should respond, explaining that the role of the peer group in the life of school-age children provides:
A) opportunity to become defiant.
B) time to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time.
C) time to establish a one-on-one relationship with the opposite sex.
D) security as they gain independence from their parents.
Q3) What is the earliest age at which puberty begins?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
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Q1) The nurse should teach the adolescent that the long-term effects of tanning can cause which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Phototoxic reactions
B) Increased number of moles
C) Premature aging
D) Striae
E) Increased risk of skin cancer
Q2) What is the most common cause of death in the adolescent age group?
A) Drownings
B) Firearms
C) Drug overdoses
D) Motor vehicles
Q3) A nurse is conducting parenting classes for parents of adolescents. Which parenting style should the nurse recommend?
A) Laissez-faire
B) Authoritative
C) Disciplinarian
D) Confrontational
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Q1) What is smokeless tobacco?
A) Not addicting
B) Proven to be carcinogenic
C) Easy to stop using
D) A safe alternative to cigarette smoking
Q2) The nurse is teaching the parents of a child recently diagnosed with ADHD who has been prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). Which should the nurse include in teaching about the side effects of methylphenidate?
A) "Your child may experience a sense of nervousness."
B) "You may see an increase in your child's appetite."
C) "Your child may experience daytime sleepiness."
D) "You may see a decrease in your child's blood pressure."
Q3) A 12-year-old male has short stature because of a constitutional growth delay. What should the nurse be the most concerned about?
A) Proper administration of thyroid hormone
B) Proper administration of human growth hormones
C) Child's self-esteem and sense of competence
D) Helping child understand that his height is most likely caused by chronic illness and is not his fault
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Q1) At the time of a child's death, the nurse tells his mother, "We will miss him so much." What is the best interpretation of this statement?
A) Pretending to be experiencing grief
B) Expressing personal feelings of loss
C) Denying the mother's sense of loss
D) Talking when listening would be better
Q2) A common parental reaction to a child with special needs is parental overprotection. What parental behavior is suggestive of this behavior?
A) Giving inconsistent discipline
B) Providing consistent, strict discipline
C) Forcing child to help self, even when not capable
D) Encouraging social and educational activities not appropriate to child's level of capability
Q3) Which intervention will encourage a sense of autonomy in a toddler with disabilities?
A) Avoid separation from family during hospitalizations.
B) Encourage independence in as many areas as possible.
C) Expose child to pleasurable experiences as much as possible.
D) Help parents learn special care needs of their child.
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Q1) A newborn assessment shows separated sagittal suture, oblique palpebral fissures, depressed nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and transverse palmar creases. Of what are these findings most suggestive?
A) Microcephaly
B) Down syndrome
C) Cerebral palsy
D) Fragile X syndrome
Q2) The nurse is discussing sexuality with the parents of an adolescent girl with moderate cognitive impairment. Which should the nurse consider when dealing with this issue?
A) Sterilization is recommended for any adolescent with cognitive impairment.
B) Sexual drive and interest are limited in individuals with cognitive impairment.
C) Individuals with cognitive impairment need a well-defined, concrete code of sexual conduct.
D) Sexual intercourse rarely occurs unless the individual with cognitive impairment is sexually abused.
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Q1) Kimberly, age 3 years, is being admitted for about 1 week of hospitalization. Her parents tell the nurse that they are going to buy her "a lot of new toys, because she will be in the hospital." The nurse's reply should be based on an understanding of which concept?
A) New toys make hospitalization easier.
B) New toys are usually better than older ones for children of this age.
C) At this age, children often need the comfort and reassurance of familiar toys from home.
D) Buying new toys for a hospitalized child is a maladaptive way to cope with parental guilt.
Q2) A nurse is interviewing the parents of a toddler about use of complementary or alternative medical practices. The parents share several practices they use in their household. Which should the nurse document as complementary or alternative medical practices? (Select all that apply.)
A) Use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for fever
B) Administration of chamomile tea at bedtime
C) Hypnotherapy for relief of pain
D) Acupressure to relieve headaches
E) Cool mist vaporizer at the bedside for "stuffiness"
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Q1) Which is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants?
A) Deltoid
B) Dorsogluteal
C) Rectus femoris
D) Vastus lateralis
Q2) A nurse is caring for a child in droplet precautions. Which instructions should the nurse give to the unlicensed assistive personnel caring for this child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wear gloves when entering the room.
B) Wear an isolation gown when entering the room.
C) Place the child in a special air handling and ventilation room.
D) A mask should be worn only when holding the child.
E) Wash your hands upon exiting the room.
Q3) A 2-year-old child comes to the emergency department with dehydration and hypovolemic shock. Which best explains why an intraosseous infusion is started?
A) It is less painful for small children.
B) Rapid venous access is not possible.
C) Antibiotics must be started immediately.
D) Long-term central venous access is not possible.
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Q1) A child with cystic fibrosis (CF) receives aerosolized bronchodilator medication. When should this medication be administered?
A) Before chest physiotherapy (CPT)
B) After CPT
C) Before receiving 100% oxygen
D) After receiving 100% oxygen
Q2) The mother of a toddler yells to the nurse, "Help! He is choking to death on his food." The nurse determines that lifesaving measures are necessary based on which symptom?
A) Gagging
B) Coughing
C) Pulse over 100 beats/min
D) Inability to speak
Q3) Which is an appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature?
A) Give tepid water baths to reduce fever.
B) Encourage food intake to maintain caloric needs.
C) Have child wear heavy clothing to prevent chilling.
D) Give small amounts of favorite fluids frequently to prevent dehydration.
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the supervisors for a home health agency asks the nurse to give the family a survey evaluating the nurses and other service providers. How should the nurse interpret this request?
A) Inappropriate, unless nurses are able to evaluate family.
B) Appropriate to improve quality of care.
C) Inappropriate, unless nurses and other providers agree to participate.
D) Inappropriate, because family lacks knowledge necessary to evaluate professionals.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to care for an infant returning from pyloromyotomy surgery. Which prescribed orders should the nurse anticipate implementing? (Select all that apply.)
A) NPO for 24 hours
B) Administration of analgesics for pain
C) Ice bag to the incisional area
D) IV fluids continued until tolerating PO
E) Clear liquids as the first feeding
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Q1) Which defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow?
A) Pulmonic stenosis
B) Tricuspid atresia
C) Atrial septal defect
D) Transposition of the great arteries
Q2) A chest radiograph film is ordered for a child with suspected cardiac problems. The child's parent asks the nurse, "What will the radiograph show about the heart?" What knowledge about the x-ray should the nurse include in the response to the parents?
A) Bones of chest but not the heart
B) Measurement of electrical potential generated from heart muscle
C) Permanent record of heart size and configuration
D) Computerized image of heart vessels and tissues
Q3) An 8-month-old infant has a hypercyanotic spell while blood is being drawn. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Assess for neurologic defects
B) Place the child in the knee-chest position
C) Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
D) Prepare family for imminent death
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Q1) The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on childhood blood disorders. Which describes the pathology of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A) Bone marrow failure in which all elements are suppressed
B) Deficiency in the production rate of globin chains
C) Diffuse fibrin deposition in the microvasculature
D) An excessive destruction of platelets
Q2) Chelation therapy is begun on a child with b-thalassemia major. What is the purpose of this therapy?
A) Treat the disease
B) Eliminate excess iron
C) Decrease risk of hypoxia
D) Manage nausea and vomiting
Q3) A young child with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is receiving several antiretroviral drugs. What is the purpose of these drugs?
A) Cure the disease
B) Delay disease progression
C) Prevent spread of disease
D) Treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
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Q1) One of the supervisors for a home health agency asks the nurse to give the family a survey evaluating the nurses and other service providers. The nurse should recognize this as:
A) inappropriate, unless nurses are able to evaluate family.
B) appropriate to improve quality of care.
C) inappropriate, unless nurses and other providers agree to participate.
D) inappropriate, because family lacks knowledge necessary to evaluate professionals.
Q2) Home care is being considered for a young child who is ventilator-dependent. Which factor is most important in deciding whether home care is appropriate?
A) Level of parents' education
B) Presence of two parents in the home
C) Preparation and training of family
D) Family's ability to assume all health care costs
Q3) A toddler with leukemia is on intravenous chemotherapy treatments. The toddler's lab results are WBC: 1000; neutrophils: 7%; nonsegmented neutrophils (bands): 7%. What is this child's absolute neutrophil count (ANC)? (Record your answer in a whole number.)
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Q1) Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis?
A) Risk for Injury related to malignant process and treatment
B) Fluid Volume Deficit related to excessive losses
C) Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration
D) Fluid Volume Excess related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces
Q2) A preschool child is being admitted to the hospital with dehydration and a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which urinalysis result should the nurse expect with these conditions?
A) WBC <1; specific gravity 1.008
B) WBC <2; specific gravity 1.025
C) WBC >2; specific gravity 1.016
D) WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030
Q3) Which should the nurse recommend to prevent urinary tract infections in young girls?
A) Wear cotton underpants.
B) Limit bathing as much as possible.
C) Increase fluids; decrease salt intake.
D) Cleanse perineum with water after voiding.
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Q1) Which drug should the nurse expect to administer to a preschool child who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) resulting from cerebral edema?
A) Mannitol (Osmitrol)
B) Epinephrine hydrochloride (Adrenalin)
C) Atropine sulfate (Atropine)
D) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium bicarbonate)
Q2) The nurse is monitoring an infant for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which are late signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in an infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tachycardia
B) Alteration in pupil size and reactivity
C) Increased motor response
D) Extension or flexion posturing
E) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Q3) Which statement best describes a subdural hematoma?
A) Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull.
B) Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum.
C) Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly.
D) The hematoma commonly occurs in the parietotemporal region.
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Q1) The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who is receiving methimazole (Tapazole) for the treatment of hyperthyroidism (Graves disease). Which statement made by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
A) "I would expect my child to gain weight while taking this medication."
B) "I would expect my child to experience episodes of ear pain while taking this medication."
C) "If my child develops a sore throat and fever, I should contact the physician immediately."
D) "If my child develops the stomach flu, my child will need to be hospitalized."
Q2) The parent of a child with diabetes mellitus asks the nurse when urine testing will be necessary. The nurse should explain that urine testing is necessary for which?
A) Glucose is needed before administration of insulin.
B) Glucose is needed four times a day.
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin is required.
D) Ketonuria is suspected.
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32 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4159
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child immobilized by a fractured hip. Which complication should the nurse monitor related to the child's immobilization status?
A) Metabolic rate increases
B) Increased joint mobility leading to contractures
C) Bone calcium increases, releasing excess calcium into the body (hypercalcemia)
D) Venous stasis leading to thrombi or emboli formation
Q2) A young girl has just injured her ankle at school. In addition to calling the child's parents, what is the most appropriate immediate action by the school nurse?
A) Apply ice.
B) Observe for edema and discoloration.
C) Encourage child to assume a position of comfort.
D) Obtain parental permission for administration of acetaminophen or aspirin.
Q3) Which can result from the bone demineralization associated with immobility?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Urinary retention
C) Pooling of blood
D) Susceptibility to infection
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4160
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is conducting reflex testing on infants at a well-child clinic. Which reflex finding should be reported as abnormal and considered as a possible sign of cerebral palsy?
A) Tonic neck reflex at 5 months of age
B) Absent Moro reflex at 8 months of age
C) Moro reflex at 3 months of age
D) Extensor reflex at 7 months of age
Q2) The nurse is admitting a school-age child with suspected Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). Which is a priority in the care for this child?
A) Monitoring intake and output
B) Assessing respiratory efforts
C) Placing on a telemetry monitor
D) Obtaining laboratory studies
Q3) Which clinical manifestations in an infant would be suggestive of spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffmann disease)?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Hypertonicity
C) Lying in the frog position
D) Motor deficits on one side of body

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