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Essentials of Nutrition Science Practice Exam - 2299 Verified Questions

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Essentials of Nutrition Science Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Essentials of Nutrition Science provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of nutrition and their role in human health. The course explores the structure, function, and metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, as well as their impact on physiological processes. Students will learn about nutrient requirements, dietary guidelines, digestion, absorption, and the assessment of nutritional status. Emphasis is placed on understanding how nutrition influences health outcomes, prevention of chronic diseases, and the importance of evidence-based dietary recommendations in promoting optimal well-being.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney

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Page 2

Chapter 1: An Overview of Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat?

A)8.5%

B)15.0%

C)19.0%

D)25.5%

E)32.0%

Answer: C

Q2) Which statement is true of minerals in their role as nutrients?

A)They are organic.

B)They yield 4 kcalories per gram.

C)Some become dissolved in body fluids.

D)Some may be destroyed during cooking.

E)They are more fragile than vitamins.

Answer: C

Q3) The normal range for ____________________ is 18 to 21% for young men and 23 to 26% for young women.

Answer: body fat composition

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3

Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet

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Sample Questions

Q1) Providing enough, but not an excess, of a food is a diet-planning principle known as

A)safety

B)variety

C)moderation

D)undernutrition

E)conservatism

Answer: C

Q2) What term describes a food that resembles and substitutes for another food but is nutritionally inferior to it?

A)faux food

B)pseudo food

C)imitation food

D)food substitute

E)fraudulent food

Answer: C

Q3) Diet-planning tools that organize foods by their proportions of carbohydrate, fat, and protein are called ____________________.

Answer: exchange lists

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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Transport

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a feature of peristalsis?

A)It occurs when longitudinal muscles oppose the action of transverse muscles.

B)Its rate is consistent throughout the GI tract.

C)It occurs at powerful levels in the small intestine but not at all in the colon.

D)It is caused by alternate tightening and relaxing of circular and longitudinal muscles.

E)It may occur unpredictably but is typically in response to a full stomach.

Answer: D

Q2) The hepatic portal vein empties into the ____.

A)liver

B)heart

C)pancreas

D)hepatic vein

E)spleen

Answer: A

Q3) ____________________ is the potentially harmful internal washing of the large intestine with a powerful machine.

Answer: Colonic irrigation

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Chapter 4: The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches, and Fibers

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percentage of the world's adult population show good tolerance to lactose ingestion?

A)15

B)30

C)45

D)60

E)75

Q2) Give several examples of soluble and insoluble dietary fibers. List food sources of these fibers. Contrast the physical characteristics and features of these two types of fibers and their effects on gastrointestinal tract function.

Q3) About how many grams of carbohydrate are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group?

A)5

B)10

C)15

D)20

E)25

Q4) ____________________ is a pair of two glucose molecules.

Q5) How is fiber thought to exert an influence over cancer of the colon?

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Chapter 5: The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and

Sterols

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Sample Questions

Q1) What methods are used by the food industry to inhibit rancidity of the unsaturated lipids in foods?

Q2) Explain the position of the American Heart Association concerning intake of butter and margarine.

Q3) What is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?

A)Oleic acid

B)Stearic acid

C)Linolenic acid

D)Arachidonic acid

E)Lineolic acid

Q4) Cholesterol from outside the body is called ____________________ cholesterol.

Q5) What is the function of adipose cell hormone-sensitive lipase?

A)Hydrolyzes hormones involved in fat breakdown

B)Synthesizes new adipose cells from simple fatty acids

C)Hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells

D)Synthesizes long-chain fatty acids to provide precursors for other cells

E)Regulation of blood pressure and blood clotting

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Q6) Discuss the meaning and significance of trans-fatty acids in the diet. List four common food sources.

Q7) The best-known phospholipid is ____________________.

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Chapter 6: Protein: Amino Acids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as ____.

A)stiffening

B)condensation

C)denaturation

D)destabilization

E)hydrolization

Q2) What is a ribosome?

A)A template for protein synthesis

B)A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass

C)A structure upon which proteins are assembled

D)An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells

E)The product of failed protein synthesis

Q3) The ____________________ is determined by weak electrical attractions within the polypeptide chain.

Q4) List and define 5 major roles of proteins in the body.

Q5) What are the assumptions made by the DRI Committee in setting the RDA for protein?

Q6) What is a limiting amino acid? What are the four amino acids most likely to be limiting in protein nutrition?

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Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?

A)Excess fat is almost all stored.

B)Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation.

C)Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins.

D)Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient.

E)Excess dietary fat facilitates conversion of other macronutrients to fat.

Q2) The final common metabolic pathway for carbohydrates, fats, and amino acids is the ____________________.

Q3) After digestion and absorption, an amino acid not used to build protein will first be subjected to ____.

A)removal of its amino group

B)removal of its carboxyl group

C)hydrolysis of its peptide bond

D)condensation of its peptide bond

E)removal of its acetyl group

Q4) Describe the effects of excess alcohol intake on folate utilization.

Q5) Describe specific effects of alcohol on each of the following organs: heart, kidney, and brain.

Q6) Describe interactions among the energy nutrients when each is consumed in excess.

Page 10

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Chapter 8: Energy Balance and Body Composition

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____________________ is an estimation of the energy required to process food (digest, absorb, transport, metabolize, and store ingested nutrients);

Q2) What term is given to the condition of a female athlete who has an eating disorder and develops amenorrhea and osteoporosis?

A)Female athlete triad

B)Triathlete medical disorder

C)High stress tertiary disorder

D)Nonadaptable training syndrome

E)Athletic hormonal disruption

Q3) An individual with a BMI of ____________________ or more is said to be obese.

Q4) Compare basal metabolic rate with resting metabolic rate.

Q5) What characterizes the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa?

A)Binge eating usually occurs during the daytime.

B)Binge eating is frequently done at restaurant buffets.

C)Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting.

D)A binge eating episode is usually completed within 20 minutes.

E)Young women are particularly likely to have "binge buddies" with whom they binge.

Q6) How does consumption of fiber and protein induce satiation and satiety?

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Chapter 9: Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity, and Underweight

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a feature of meal eating?

A)Taking large bites helps to reduce food intake.

B)Faster eating correlates with higher body weight.

C)Total kcal intake in higher when meals are eaten more slowly.

D)Satiety hormones are blunted when meals are eaten more slowly.

E)Eating on a smaller plate increases food intake.

Q2) Explain the set point theory of weight change.

Q3) Why are fad diets so appealing?

Q4) List five guidelines each for identifying a fad diet.

Q5) A(n) ____________________ includes all of the circumstances that we encounter daily that push us toward fatness.

Q6) What is the principal reason that the FDA has banned the sale of products containing ephedrine?

A)The costs are prohibitive.

B)The products were found to be ineffective for weight loss.

C)The products were implicated in several cases of heart attacks and seizures.

D)The products were found to contain contaminants that were believed to be responsible for inducing liver failure.

E)They were contaminated with substances that induced a Parkinson-like syndrome.

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Chapter 10: The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C

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Sample Questions

Q1) Provide a brief definition of a vitamin.

Q2) Older adults with B deficiencies may develop ____________________, a condition that damages the cells of the stomach.

Q3) Which of the following contains the highest concentration of thiamin?

A)Pork

B)Fish

C)Beef

D)Chicken

E)Tofu

Q4) What factors are associated with vitamin B inadequacy other than low intake?

Q5) Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?

A)Bleeding gums

B)Pernicious anemia

C)Appearance of a cold

D)Hysteria and depression

E)Oily skin

Q6) Discuss riboflavin nutrition including functions, risk factors for deficiency, symptoms of deficiency, food sources, and stability.

Q7) What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin? How is it determined?

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Chapter 11: The Fat-Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E, and K

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following vitamins has been noted as preventing the oxidation of low-density lipoproteins?

A)A

B)E

C)K

D)D<sub>2</sub>

E)D<sub>3</sub>

Q2) Which of the following compounds serves as the major precursor for the body's synthesis of vitamin D?

A)Cholesterol

B)Tryptophan

C)Beta-carotene

D)Eicosapentanoic acid

E)Histamine

Q3) The plant version of vitamin D is known as

A)ergocalciferol.

B)foliocalciferol.

C)cholecalciferol.

D)phyllocalciferol.

E)xanthociferol.

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Chapter 12: Water and 123 the Major Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the major extracellular cation?

A)Sodium

B)Sulfate

C)Protein

D)Potassium

E)Phosphorus

Q2) ____________________ is found not only in bones and teeth, but also in all body cells as part of a major buffer system, and is found in almost all foods, making deficiency rare.

Q3) Deficiencies of ____________________, an oxidized form of a mineral, do not occur when diets contain protein.

Q4) Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body?

A)High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany.

B)Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor.

C)Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness.

D)Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and adults.

E)High calcium diets are highly effective in reducing body weight.

Q5) Discuss the choices of diet and drugs for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in women.

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Chapter 13: The Trace Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common cause of iodine deficiency is

A)insufficient intake of iodine from foods.

B)overconsumption of other trace elements.

C)overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances.

D)pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

E)excess alcohol intake.

Q2) A measure of the rate at which a nutrient is absorbed and used by the body is termed

A)net utilization.

B)bioavailability.

C)biological value.

D)utilization efficiency.

E)biofunctionality.

Q3) Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed from a mixed diet?

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Chapter 14: Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body

Adaptations

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Sample Questions

Q1) What high-energy compound acts as a reservoir of energy for the maintenance of a steady supply of ATP?

A)Glycerol

B)Glycogen

C)Fatty acids

D)Creatine phosphate

E)ADP

Q2) Which of the following is a property of conditioned muscles?

A)They can store more glycogen.

B)They are more efficient at converting fat to glucose.

C)They contain fewer mitochondria due to increased glucose utilization.

D)They rely less on fat breakdown and more on glucose oxidation for energy.

E)They are resistant to lactate build-up.

Q3) Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes?

A)Salt tablets

B)Protein powders

C)Nutrient-dense foods

D)Vitamin and mineral supplements

E)Sports beverages

Q4) Discuss the need for water in maintaining physical performance.

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Chapter 15: Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a blastocyst?

A)The 5-day-old zygote that becomes implanted in the uterine wall

B)The terminal end of the umbilical cord that attaches to the placenta

C)Fingerlike projections on the uterine wall that act to separate fetal from maternal tissues

D)The network of placental blood vessels that exchanges nutrients and waste products from mother to fetus

E)The structure that develops in place of the brain in an anencephalic infant

Q2) Of the following nutrient needs, which is considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy, often because of low body stores?

A)Iron

B)Protein

C)Vitamin D

D)Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>

E)Essential fatty acids

Q3) Discuss important concerns for vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation.

Q4) Describe the two most common neural tube defects and what is known about their development.

Q5) Discuss the term "critical periods" in relation to pregnancy.

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Chapter 16: Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The recommended amounts of vitamins and minerals for infants are based on the A)average amounts present in body tissues of thriving infants.

B)adult RDA scaled down to infants on a per kg body weight basis.

C)older child's RDA scaled down to the infant on a per kg body weight basis.

D)average amounts ingested by thriving infants breastfed by well-nourished mothers.

E)average amounts found in breast milk.

Q2) Which of the following is a feature of beverage intake in adolescents?

A)Juice intake is spread throughout the day.

B)Milk intake occurs primarily between meals.

C)Males typically drink less milk than females.

D)Four standard colas a day provides enough caffeine to alter behavior.

E)Soft drinks are typically consumed in addition to milk, not instead of it.

Q3) Discuss the effects of obesity in childhood. What steps can be taken to prevent and to treat this condition?

Q4) Describe the growth curve of infants from birth to one year. Compare the energy needs of this age group with those of adults.

Q5) What is the relationship between nutrition and hyperactivity in children?

Q6) Explain the feeding pattern of healthy breastfed infants.

Q7) ____________________ is a craving to consume nonfood items.

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Chapter 17: Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the thickenings that occur to the lenses of the eye, thereby affecting vision, especially in the elderly?

A)Retinitis

B)Keratoids

C)Cataracts

D)Rhodolipids

E)Glaucoma

Q2) What is thought to be the most important nutrition concern for people with Alzheimer's disease?

A)Maintenance of appropriate body weight

B)Ensuring adequate intakes of antioxidant nutrients and DHA

C)Monitoring intake of medications that may interfere with nutrient bioavailability

D)Treatment for iron overload to prevent formation of new neurofibrillary tangles

E)Taking vitamin and mineral supplements appropriate for dementia treatment

Q3) ____________________ is a person's perceived physical and mental well-being.

Q4) Why are the elderly especially vulnerable to adverse drug-nutrient interactions?

Q5) List the factors that increase the risk for vitamin B and iron deficiency in older adults.

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Chapter 18: Diet and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1?

A)5-10

B)10-15

C)15-20

D)20-25

E)25-30

Q2) ____________________ are large proteins of the blood and body fluids, produced by the immune system in response to the invasion of the body by foreign molecules.

Q3) What is the role of omega-3 fatty acids in immune functioning?

A)Maintain healthy skin and other epithelial tissues as barriers to infection.

B)Regulate T-cell responses.

C)Help to resolve inflammation when it is no longer needed for the immune response.

D)Participate in antibody production.

E)Helps maintain an effective immune response.

Q4) Explain the association of type 2 diabetes with insulin resistance and insulin deficiency.

Q5) Discuss the role of nutrition and genetics in assessing risks for chronic diseases.

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Chapter 19: Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry?

A)1/10

B)1/3

C)1/2

D)2/3

E)4/5

Q2) Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States?

A)It decreases udder infections in cows.

B)It cannot be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it.

C)If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract.

D)If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone.

E)Testing of BGH has indicated that its risks to human health are, at most, minor.

Q3) In the late 1970s, women in Taiwan Women who had eaten the rice oil tainted with ____________________ gave birth to children with developmental problems.

Q4) Identify and describe the major categories of food additives.

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Chapter 20: Hunger and the Global Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor's office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, " and thus, hunger worsens poverty...."

The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?

A)Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care.

B)No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty.

C)Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households.

D)Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive.

E)Sometimes, but only when unemployment is high and jobs are scarce.

Q2) Severe malnutrition characterized by failure to grow and develop, edema, changes in the pigmentation of hair and skin, fatty liver, anemia, and apathy is called

Q3) Discuss the effects of water misuse in agricultural production.

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