Essentials of Nutrition Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Essentials of Nutrition provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of human nutrition and its impact on health and well-being. The course explores the functions and sources of essential nutrients, the role of diet in disease prevention, and the basics of digestion, absorption, and metabolism. Topics include dietary guidelines, energy balance, nutritional requirements throughout the lifespan, and the relationship between nutrition, physical activity, and chronic diseases. Students will also examine food labels, healthy eating patterns, and current nutritional controversies, gaining practical skills to make informed dietary choices for themselves and others.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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15 Chapters
825 Verified Questions
825 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Why Does Nutrition Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water is essential for human well-being because
A) it serves as a solvent for chemical reactions within cells.
B) it enables nutrient transport around the body.
C) it helps to maintain body temperature.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) One of the main functions of lipids in the human body is
A) energy production.
B) bone development and structure.
C) muscular strength and development.
D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Dietary fiber is a _____ important for maintaining the health of the digestive system.
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) lipid
D) fat
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Choosing Foods Wisely
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrition content claims and health claims on food labels
A) are similar because they both indicate the content of a certain nutrient in the food.
B) are both used by manufacturers to increase the likelihood of consumer purchase.
C) both compare the food to other similar foods.
D) must both be supported by evidence of positive health benefits.
Answer: B
Q2) Malnutrition describes conditions of both undernutrition and overnutrition.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) You can use _____ to find out how many servings of each food group would be needed to meet nutritional needs.
A) the USDA food patterns
B) the DRIs
C) the MyPlate food guide
D) All of the above
E) A and C
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Body Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria present in the large intestine
A) are called the intestinal pathogenic load.
B) are a sign of illness.
C) help to maintain a healthy environment in the colon.
D) consist of large population of a single species of bacteria.
Answer: C
Q2) The cephalic phase of digestion describes a response that
A) stimulates of the muscles in the GI tract.
B) triggers the release of substances that facilitate chemical breakdown of food.
C) can be initiated by the thought, smell, or sight of food.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The consistency of feces depends mainly on A) water content.
B) presence of bacteria.
C) the amount of dead cells.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant monosaccharide in the human body is A) galactose.
B) glucose.
C) fructose.
D) sucrose.
Q2) Treatment of type 1 diabetes always requires insulin injections (or an insulin pump).
A)True B)False
Q3) Most of the fiber in a kernel of wheat is found in A) the germ.
B) the endosperm.
C) the bran.
D) the stalk.
Q4) Artificial sweeteners are typically hundreds of times sweeter than table sugar, but do not contribute calorically to a food item.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) When dietary protein consumption exceeds protein needs, the extra amino acids can be converted to fat and stored.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemical digestion of proteins begins in the mouth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Secretin, gastrin, insulin, and glucagon are examples of proteins that are A) enzymes.
B) hormones.
C) antibodies.
D) neurotransmitters.
Q4) Kwashiorkor is a form of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by A) extreme wasting of muscles.
B) gain of abdominal adipose tissue.
C) severe edema in the extremities.
D) unusual growth of the jaw.
Q5) Amino acids can be used for ATP production. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Short- and medium-chain fatty acids
A) are taken up by intestinal cells without the aid of micelles.
B) are incorporated into micelles in order to be taken up by intestinal cells.
C) must be incorporated into chylomicrons to leave the intestinal cell.
D) are used by the intestinal cells and then excreted.
Q2) Dietary recommendations for reducing cardiovascular disease risk include lowering saturated and trans fatty acid intake to as minimal an amount as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under certain conditions, such as starvation, fatty acids can be used to form
A) ketones, an alternative energy source for some tissues.
B) amino acids so that protein synthesis can continue to occur.
C) glucose so that the brain can function normally.
Q4) The primary function of LDL particles is to
A) deliver fatty acids to cells.
B) deliver cholesterol to cells.
C) deliver fatty acids to the liver.
D) pick up cholesterol from nonliver cells and deliver it to the liver.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vitamins that must be included in enriched flours are thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and
A) vitamin B<sub>6</sub>.
B) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
C) folate.
D) vitamin C.
Q2) Dietary supplements may be worth taking when
A) you become an adult and you have stopped growing.
B) you are able to purchase, prepare, and consume a diet that is balanced and adequate.
C) you are changing to a dietary pattern that eliminates animal products.
Q3) Cholecalciferol must undergo 2 conversion steps before it becomes the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol. Those steps take place in the _____ and the _____.
A) liver, bone
B) liver, kidney
C) small intestine, kidney
D) heart, liver
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Chapter 8: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The iron transport protein in the blood that delivers iron to cells is
A) transferrin.
B) ferritin.
C) hemoglobin.
D) myoglobin.
Q2) An example of a hydrolysis reaction is
A) the synthesis of glycogen from single glucose units.
B) the synthesis of proteins from amino acids.
C) the removal of fatty acids from the glycerol backbone of a triglyceride molecule.
D) the movement of water across a membrane in response to solute concentration differences.
Q3) Osteopenia refers to
A) achievement of peak bone mass.
B) improved bone density.
C) moderate loss of bone density.
D) the final stage of osteoporosis.
Q4) Iodine is essential for proper growth and development, but zinc is not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gastric bypass surgery entails
A) placing a band around the stomach.
B) diminishing the size of the stomach and bypassing a segment of the small intestine.
C) bypassing the entire stomach by re-routing food directly into the small intestine.
D) placing a tube for liquid food delivery directly into the small intestine.
Q2) Total energy expenditure is composed of all of the following components except:
A) basal metabolic rate.
B) physical activity.
C) energy losses through excretion.
D) thermic effect of food.
Q3) In response to changes in body fat mass, the brain signals changes in food intake but not energy expenditure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Overweight and obese people can be physically fit.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Life Cycle Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age-related changes in GI function that can result in diminished nutritional status include all of the following except:
A) changes in swallowing.
B) reduced peristalsis.
C) changes in GI. motility leading to constipation.
D) increased production of gastric juices.
Q2) Growth refers to cell hypertrophy, while development refers to cell hyperplasia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some contributors to the increases in childhood obesity include
A) easy access to high-fat, energy-dense foods.
B) low activity levels
C) the amount of time spent watching television.
D) All of the above
Q4) Beginning immediately after conception, a pregnant woman needs to consume an additional 500 calories per day to support the baby's growth until her baby is born.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) While the protein RDA for a healthy adult protein is 0.8 g per kg body weight per day, some experts believe that athletes should consume more. These experts contend that endurance athletes should consume _____ g protein per kg per day and strength training athletes should consume _____ g protein per kg per day.
A) 0.2-0.4, 0.6-0.7
B) 1.2-1.4, 1.6-1.7
C) 2.2-2.4, 2.6-2.7
D) 3.2-3.4, 4.6-3.7
Q2) Recommendations for fat intake for physically active individuals are
A) to consume 40% of calories as fat.
B) to consume equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
C) to consume a diet rich in mono- and polyunsaturated fatty acids.
D) to eat anything they want because they expend so much energy.
Q3) After exercise, foods should be consumed only after waiting one hour.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water is adequate as a fluid source when a workout lasts less than an hour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Disordered Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with an eating disorder is likely to think about food
A) only when it's time for a food ritual.
B) all the time.
C) only around the holidays.
D) when and if the new food is introduced.
Q2) Treating people with eating disorders requires a team of professionals including a dietitian, a medical doctor, and a(n)
A) physical therapist.
B) occupational therapist.
C) mental health specialist.
D) pharmacist.
Q3) Binging is never a characteristic of anorexia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Treatment goals for people with bulimia nervosa include all of the following except:
A) achieving a healthy body weight by reducing bingeing and purging.
B) elimination of bingeing and purging.
C) developing a healthy relationship with food.
D) resolving psychological issues.
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Chapter 13: Alcohol, Health, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heavy drinking increases the risk of developing certain cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The alcohol content of hard liquor is greater than that of beer or wine because of a process called
A) fermentation.
B) distillation.
C) proofreading.
D) concentration.
Q3) The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans define moderate alcohol consumption as not exceeding _____ drink(s) per day for women and _____ drink(s) per day for men.
A) 1, 1
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 2
D) 3, 4
Q4) Alcohol can cause a temporary loss of inhibition, making a person feel relaxed and outgoing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Keeping Food Safe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Home canning utilizes _____ to kills pathogens within the foods being canned. This process creates a(n) _____ environment that inhibits the growth of most pathogens except C. botulinum.
A) salting, highly acidic
B) salting, highly alkaline
C) heat, oxygen-rich
D) heat, oxygen-free
Q2) What property of melamine led to the inappropriate incorporation of this chemical into pet foods?
A) It is a high-fat molecule and therefore made the pet foods better for the pets' skin.
B) It is a flavor enhancer and therefore made it more likely that pets would consume the food.
C) It is a nitrogen-containing chemical and therefore made the pet foods appear to have a higher protein content.
D) It binds acrylamide and therefore prevents that potential carcinogen from being absorbed.
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16
Chapter 15: Food Security, Hunger, and Malnutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conditions that might contribute to food insecurity in a household with income above the poverty line include
A) an unexpected medical expense.
B) an unexpected repair bill.
C) keeping up with utility bills.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following does not contribute to the high rates of obesity, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease in disadvantaged groups?
A) Entry of farmers markets into disadvantaged communities
B) A lack of supermarkets in disadvantaged communities
C) Poor food choices
D) Socioeconomic disparities in food access
Q3) Assessing food insecurity in prosperous countries
A) can be difficult because it is not necessarily associated with detectable signs of malnutrition.
B) is simple because weight and height are the only indicators measured to determine food access.
C) is not necessary; instead efforts should be focused on non-prosperous countries.
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