Essentials of Microbiology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Essentials of Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental concepts and principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, classification, and diversity of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores the roles of microorganisms in health, disease, and the environment, covering topics such as microbial metabolism, genetics, pathogenesis, immunity, and the impact of microbes on society. Students will also gain practical skills in laboratory techniques used for the identification and study of microorganisms while developing an understanding of the significance of microbiology in medicine, industry, and everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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818 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following scientists performed the first vaccination against smallpox?
A)Pasteur
B)Jenner
C)Semmelweis
D)Koch
Answer: B
Q2) All bacteria are __________ cells.
Answer: prokaryotic
Q3) Phase-contrast microscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: C
Q4) The total magnification of an object viewed with a compound microscope with an ocular lens of ´10 and an objective lens of ´40 is ´__________.
Answer: 400
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sucrose is composed of
A)glucose and galactose.
B)glucose and fructose.
C)fructose and maltose.
D)glucose and maltose.
Answer: B
Q2) Chemically,ATP is a(n)__________.
Answer: nucleic acid
Q3) Protons are
A)located in the shells.
B)part of the atomic nucleus.
C)negatively charged.
D)uncharged particles.
Answer: B
Q4) The unit molecules (monomers)of carbohydrates are A)monosaccharides.
B)amino acids.
C)nucleic acids.
D)fatty acids.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell organelles found only in algae and plant cells are
A)chloroplasts.
B)mitochondria.
C)vacuoles.
D)vesicles.
Answer: A
Q2) Peptidoglycan
A)Cytoskeleton
B)Cytosol
C)Mitochondria
D)Golgi apparatus
E)rER
F)Bacterial ribosome subunit
G)Enzyme
H)Dental plaque
I)Phospholipids
J)Endocytosis
K)Cell wall
L)Passive transport
Answer: K
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria with a spherical shape
A)Psychrotrophs
B)Thermophiles
C)Chemoautotrophs
D)Chemoheterotrophs
E)Sarcinae
F)Tetrads
G)Vibrios
H)Spirillium
I)Cocci
Q2) Microbes that use chemical compounds as the source of energy and carbon
A)Psychrotrophs
B)Thermophiles
C)Chemoautotrophs
D)Chemoheterotrophs
E)Sarcinae
F)Tetrads
G)Vibrios
H)Spirillium
I)Cocci
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
Q2) The Baltimore classification system places viruses into __________ groups.
A)four
B)five
C)seven
D)nine
Q3) Which of the following bunyaviruses is not arthropod-borne?
A)Phlebovirus
B)Hantavirus
C)Nairovirus
D)Uukuvirus
Q4) The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is
A)adsorption, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, release.
B)penetration, adsorption, assembly, uncoating, replication, release.
C)adsorption, uncoating, penetration, replication, assembly, release.
D)penetration, uncoating, adsorption, replication, assembly, release.
Q5) Group VI viruses according to the Baltimore classification system include the families Metaviridae,Pseudoviridae,and __________.
Q6) A fully assembled virus is called a __________.
Q7) A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a __________.
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conidiospores that bud from a parent cell
A)Mycelium
B)Algae
C)Sporangia
D)Fungi
E)Dimorphic fungi
F)Coenocytic
G)Blastospore
Q2) A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature?
A)15° C
B)20° C
C)25° C
D)37° C
Q3) A scolex is a structure found in A)algae.
B)fungi.
C)protozoans.
D)helminths.
Q4) The fungal saclike structure that contains sporangiospores is called a(n)__________.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Halogen
A)Iodine
B)Triclosan
C)Aldehydes
D)Quaternary compounds
E)Damage to DNA
F)Mercury
G)Osmotic pressure
H)Penicillin
Q2) The two types of pasteurization typically used today are __________ and __________.
Q3) High salt or sugar content/concentrations make use of ____________ to destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
Q4) The term "zone of inhibition" is used in which of the following procedures?
A)Use-dilution test
B)Growth inhibition test
C)Disk-diffusion test
D)Multiple inhibition test
Q5) Bacteria that thrive in extremely dry conditions are classified as
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selective medium for gram-positive bacteria while inhibiting gram-negative bacteria
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q2) A procedure performed under sterile conditions uses the __________ technique.
Q3) Used for culture of stool samples to detect Salmonella
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q4) Bacteria that appear red after gram staining are said to be gram-__________.
Q5) Substances that kill bacteria are referred to as __________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are bloodborne pathogens in the healthcare setting except
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)HIV
Q2) CDC stands for the Centers for Disease Control and __________.
Q3) Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)Bacillus subtilis
C)Salmonella
D)Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q4) Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
A)RG1
B)RG2
C)RG3
D)RG4
Q5) Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by __________.
Q6) Control of access to BSL-3 laboratories is the responsibility of the __________.
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
A)Cellular
B)Extracellular
C)Neuromuscular
D)Intracellular
Q2) A __________ name is a nonproprietary single name usually related to the drug's relationship to a therapeutic class.
Q3) ED is a measure of the __________ response.
Q4) Intrathecally
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q5) Drug administration,absorption,distribution,and clearance are collectively called
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against mycobacteria?
A)Penicillin
B)Rifampin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalosporin
Q2) Resistance to only one type of drug may allow resistance to a similar drug; this process is called __________.
Q3) A drug that kills pathogenic bacteria is referred to as __________.
Q4) When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect,the phenomenon is referred to as
A)antagonism.
B)mutualism.
C)synergism.
D)parasitism.
Q5) Which of the following is not a common characteristic used in the selection of an antimicrobial drug?
A)Selective toxicity
B)Ease of delivery to the site of infection
C)Ability to administer intravenously
D)Potential for allergic reaction
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The virulence factors of bacteria include
A)size, adhesion, resistance, and mutation.
B)colonization, invasion, toxins, and adhesion.
C)toxins, evasion of body defenses, motility, and size.
D)colonization, chemotaxis, fermentation, and toxins.
Q2) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
Q3) Healthcare-associated infections are also known as A)incidental infections.
B)accidental infections.
C)nosocomial infections.
D)secondary infections.
Q4) Vectors that transmit pathogens and also serve as host for part of the pathogen's life cycle are __________ vectors.
Q5) Infections that may result from the use of catheters are classified as A)iatrogenic infections.
B)local infections.
C)exogenous infections.
D)endogenous infections.
Q6) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
Q7) The study of the cause of disease is called __________.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monomer bound to surface of B cells
A)Basophil
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)Monocyte
E)IgD
F)T cell
G)IgA
H)IgG
Q2) Cells infected with a virus produce glycoproteins that interfere with viral replication and impede its spread; these glycoproteins are called
A)interferons.
B)suppressors.
C)pyrogens.
D)prostaglandins.
Q3) Large,circulating phagocytic agranulocytes that develop into macrophages as they leave the blood vessels are called __________.
Q4) Granulocytes are subdivided into three groups: __________,__________,and __________.
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Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leprosy is also known as ____________________________.
Q2) The most important fungi that cause diseases of the skin,hair,and nails are called
A)Plasmodium.
B)sporozoites.
C)dermatophytes.
D)nematodes.
Q3) The organism often called "flesh-eating bacteria" is
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Propionibacterium acnes
Q4) Variola virus of the orthopoxvirus family causes the acute,highly contagious disease
A)shingles.
B)smallpox.
C)jock itch.
D)ringworm.
Q5) Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
Page 16
Q6) A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called "__________."
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are structures of the lower respiratory system except A)Lungs
B)Pharynx
C)Bronchi
D)Trachea
Q2) Tuberculosis is transmitted primarily through A)aerosols.
B)fomites.
C)blood transfusions.
D)oral-fecal route.
Q3) The most virulent pathogen of the human flu virus is type A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.
Q4) Anthrax is caused by A)Haemophilus anthracis.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Streptococcus anthracis.
D)Klebsiella anthracis.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human pinworm Enterobius vermicularis lives in the __________ of humans.
A)duodenum
B)ileum
C)transverse colon
D)rectum
Q2) Botulism is a disease caused by the production of a potent neurotoxin by bacteria of the genus
A)Staphylococcus.
B)Klebsiella.
C)Salmonella.
D)Clostridium.
Q3) A microbial biofilm that can form on the enamel surface of teeth and often causes tooth decay and/or periodontal problems is referred to as __________.
Q4) Microbial life on teeth was first observed by A)Jenner.
B)Semmelweis.
C)Van Leeuwenhoek.
D)Pasteur.
Q5) Botulism is caused by __________.
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rabies is caused by which of the following organisms?
A)Virus
B)Bacterium
C)Protozoan
D)Fungus
Q2) One of the first signs of the onset of tetanus is trismus,also referred to as
Q3) Sleeping sickness
A)Prion
B)Rhabdovirus
C)Clostridium tetani
D)Dimorphic fungus
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
F)Clostridium difficile
G)Trypanosoma
H)Bacillus tetani
Q4) African trypanosomiasis is caused by __________.
Q5) Pneumococcal infection of the middle ear is referred to as________________.
Q6) Chemically,prions are __________.
Q7) The most common bacterial infection/inflammation of the eye is _____________. Page 19
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)______________________ mosquito.
Q2) The toxic condition caused by the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from the site of infection is called __________.
Q3) When microorganisms enter the circulatory system through the lymphatic drainage and cause an infection,the condition is called A)bacteremia.
B)septicemia.
C)microbemia.
D)viremia.
Q4) Babesiosis is a vector-borne,malaria-like illness caused by a A)bacterium.
B)virus.
C)helminth.
D)protozoan.
Q5) Chagas' disease is caused by __________.
Q6) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
Q7) When bacteria are found in the blood,the condition is referred to as __________.
Page 21
Q8) Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus __________.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A urinary tract infection of the kidneys is called A)urethritis.
B)cystitis.
C)cellulitis.
D)pyelonephritis.
Q2) The main organs/structures of the urinary system are the A)large intestine, stomach, esophagus, and urinary bladder.
B)small intestine, liver, urinary bladder, and urethra.
C)urethra, pancreas, liver, and kidneys.
D)kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.
Q3) Ureteric stenosis in kidney transplant patients has been associated with A)E.coli.
B)polyomaviruses. C)fungi.
D)helminths.
Q4) The organism that is primarily responsible for causing cystitis is ___________________________.
Q5) The current drug of choice to treat viral urinary infections is __________.
Q6) The reverse flow of urine from the bladder up the ureters and back into the kidneys is called __________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaginal yeast infection
A)Candida albicans
B)Borrelia vincentii
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Flagellated protozoan
E)Bacillus subtilis
F)Streptococcus pyogenes
G)Gardnerella vaginalis
1. 30% of vaginitis cases
Q2) 30% of vaginitis cases
A)Candida albicans
B)Borrelia vincentii
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Flagellated protozoan
E)Bacillus subtilis
F)Streptococcus pyogenes
G)Gardnerella vaginalis
1. 30% of vaginitis cases
Q3) __________ is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granuloma inguinale is also called __________.
Q2) The causative agent for chancroid is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
D)Haemophilus ducreyi.
Q3) The bacteria typically responsible for causing nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)are __________, __________,and __________.
Q4) The only currently known STI that is transmitted by a protozoan is A)giardiasis.
B)malaria.
C)trichomoniasis.
D)syphilis.
Q5) Typically the first step in testing for the presence of HIV antibodies in a blood sample is the __________.
Q6) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea?
A)Treponema
B)Neisseria
C)Mycoplasma
D)Ureaplasma
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Q1) A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
Q2) Microcephaly
A)Congenital toxoplasmosis
B)Micrococcus
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Neisseria
F)Congenital rubella
G)Streptococcus
Q3) The common name for rubella is __________.
Q4) The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is
A)IgA.
B)IgM.
C)IgG.
D)IgD.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) Which of the following is a Category A agent?
A)Bacillus anthracis
B)Escherichia coli
C)Vibrio cholerae
D)Chlamydia psittaci
Q2) The incubation time for Ebola is 2 to __________ days.
Q3) Which of the following is not found in the atmosphere?
A)Carbon dioxide
B)Nitrogen
C)Sulfur
D)Phosphorus
Q4) Which of the following is the sixth most abundant element in the universe?
A)Nitrogen
B)Oxygen
C)Carbon
D)Hydrogen
Q5) Cholera is considered a Category __________ disease.
Q7) The bacterial genus Rhizobium is involved primarily in the __________ cycle. Page 26
Q6) A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the __________.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A)Ehrlichiosis
B)Peptic ulcer
C)Lyme disease
D)Tularemia
Q2) The Marburg virus was originally spread by
A)laboratory rats.
B)birds.
C)green monkeys.
D)wild turkeys.
Q3) Which of the following organisms belongs in the group I category?
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Bacillus anthracis
Q4) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
Q5) Acanthamebiasis is a group __________ emerging/reemerging infectious disease.
Q6) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
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Q7) Small changes in the viral coat that happen over time are referred to as antigenic
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) When a single bacterium can produce millions of identical cells,the population is called a(n)__________.
Q2) The synthetic interferon that is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis is
A)interferon alfa-2b.
B)interferon beta-1a.
C)interferon alfa-2a.
D)interferon gamma-1b.
Q3) The process of copying a plate to identify a specific colony is called __________.
Q4) In PCR,which of the following temperature ranges is used in the priming process?
A)90-95 °C
B)50-70 °C
C)60-80 °C
D)35-65 °C
Q5) Which of the following scientists was instrumental in the discovery of plasmids?
A)Robert Koch
B)Louis Pasteur
C)Stanley Cohen
D)Willard Johannsen
Q6) Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are __________.
Page 29
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