Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of human anatomy and physiology, focusing on the structure and function of the major body systems. This course explores the relationships between different organ systems, the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis, and the physiological processes that underlie health and disease. Through lectures, interactive activities, and laboratory experiences, students gain a foundational understanding necessary for advanced study in health-related fields and develop the scientific literacy required to make informed decisions about personal and public health.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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27 Chapters
1314 Verified Questions
1314 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kneecap is located distal to the
A) leg.
B) thigh.
C) foot.
D) toes.
Answer: B
Q2) The leg is ___________ to the thigh.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) superior
D) deep
Answer: A
Q3) Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body?
A) gluteal
B) patellar
C) umbilical
D) sternal
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore A) is acidic.
B) is 3-4 times more viscid (thicker)than water.
C) has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents.
D) is alkaline.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is an anion?
A) sodium ion
B) potassium ion
C) chloride ion
D) calcium ion
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is incorrect?
A) mixtures:suspension,colloidal suspension,solution
B) ions:Na ,Cl ,Ca<sup>2+</sup>,K
C) electrolytes:NaCl,KCl,CaCl<sub>2</sub>,HCO-<sub>3</sub>
D) cations:Na ,Ca2+,K ,H
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?
A) mitochondrion
B) nucleus
C) lysosome
D) centriole
Answer: B
Q2) Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) endocytosis
C) filtration
D) exocytosis
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) ribosomes
B) cilia
C) lysosomes
D) DNA
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gluconeogenesis
A) increases blood cholesterol.
B) increases urea synthesis.
C) increases blood glucose.
D) causes hypoglycemia.
Q2) Adenine,uracil,cytosine,and guanine are
A) sugars used to synthesize nucleotides.
B) bases of RNA.
C) nonessential amino acids.
D) ketone bodies.
Q3) Starch is classified as a(n)
A) lipid.
B) fatty acid.
C) amino acid.
D) polysaccharide.
Q4) Adenine,thymine,cytosine,and guanine are
A) bases of DNA.
B) sugars used to synthesize nucleotides.
C) intermediates of the Krebs cycle.
D) amino acids.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria
A) include cocci,bacilli,and curved rods.
B) are not part of the normal flora of the intestines.
C) cause mycotic infections.
D) include mold and yeast.
Q2) The "acid-fast bacillus" is
A) most often spread through droplet infection.
B) eradicated by a single dose of penicillin.
C) pathogenic only in humans.
D) most often diagnosed by a urine culture.
Q3) Cocci,bacilli,and curved rods are classified as A) viruses.
B) pathogens.
C) bacteria.
D) parasites.
Q4) Which of the following is called the "acid-fast" bacillus?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Clostridium tetani
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ligament is best described as
A) malignant.
B) glandular epithelium.
C) tough band of connective tissue.
D) squamous epithelium.
Q2) Osseous tissue is
A) also called bone tissue.
B) formed from chondrocytes.
C) classified as squamous,cuboidal,and columnar.
D) classified as skeletal,smooth,and cardiac.
Q3) Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?
A) shivering
B) vasoconstriction
C) cyanosis
D) vasodilation
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the stratum germinativum?
A) dead
B) mitotically active
C) dermal
D) subcutaneous
Q3) The sebaceous,apocrine,and eccrine glands are
A) sweat glands.
B) endocrine glands.
C) sebum-secreting glands.
D) exocrine glands.
Q4) If the blood vessels of the skin dilate,the person appears
A) jaundiced.
B) flushed.
C) cyanotic.
D) pale and washed out.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?
A) hip
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist
Q2) Which bones form the palm of the hand?
A) tarsals
B) phalanges
C) metacarpals
D) metatarsals
Q3) At which joint do the scapula and upper arm bone meet?
A) humeroulnar
B) radiocarpal
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular
Q4) At which joint do the humerus and ulna meet?
A) hip
B) elbow
C) knee
D) wrist
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rectus femoris,vastus lateralis,vastus medialis,and vastus intermedius
A) insert on the calcaneus.
B) flex the leg at the knee.
C) are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris.
D) are the muscles of the quadriceps femoris.
Q2) On which large muscle do you sit?
A) latissimus dorsi
B) gastrocnemius
C) gluteus maximus
D) rectus femoris
Q3) Which muscle covers the shoulder like a shoulder pad?
A) deltoid
B) trapezius
C) biceps brachii
D) sternocleidomastoid
Q4) The gastrocnemius and the soleus are commonly called the A) swimmer's muscles.
B) toe dancer's muscles.
C) muscles of mastication.
D) trumpeter's muscles.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frontal eye fields
A) perform a motor role regarding the eyes.
B) receive sensory information from the optic nerve.
C) allow the person to interpret visual information.
D) determine the color of the eyes.
Q2) The frontal,temporal,occipital,and parietal lobes form the A) brain stem.
B) cerebrum.
C) cerebellum.
D) reticular formation.
Q3) Injury to the occipital lobe is most likely to cause A) hearing loss.
B) paralysis.
C) loss of vision.
D) disturbances in gait.
Q4) These branching structures carry information toward the cell body of a neuron. A) synapses
B) axons
C) dendrites
D) nodes of Ranvier
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oculomotor,trochlear,and abducens are cranial nerves that
A) innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball).
B) innervate the levator palpebrae superioris (lift the eyelid).
C) interpret sensory information from the optic nerve.
D) innervate the muscles of mastication.
Q2) In order to evaluate this cranial nerve,the person is asked to stick out the tongue,and the nurse notes any deviation in the position of the protruded tongue.
A) trigeminal
B) hypoglossal
C) facial
D) olfactory
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) cranial nerves:olfactory,optic,oculomotor
B) spinal nerves:phrenic,axillary,sciatic,vagus
C) plexuses:cervical,brachial,lumbosacral
D) states of paralysis:paraplegia,quadriplegia,hemiplegia
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
A) are somatic motor neurons.
B) supply voluntary skeletal muscles.
C) include the phrenic,sciatic,and brachial nerves.
D) innervate the viscera.
Q2) Alpha and beta receptors are
A) associated with the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) associated with craniosacral outflow.
C) located on the paravertebral ganglia.
D) activated by norepinephrine.
Q3) Atropine is classified as a muscarinic antagonist or blocker and therefore is A) parasympathomimetic.
B) sympatholytic.
C) vagolytic.
D) sympathomimetic.
Q4) The effects of adrenal medullary secretion most resemble A) craniosacral outflow.
B) firing of the somatic motor neurons.
C) sympathetic nerve discharge.
D) vagal discharge.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear.
A) tympanic membrane
B) pinna
C) round window
D) oval window
Q2) What is the name of the venous sinuses that drains the aqueous humor?
A) lateral canthus
B) macula lutea
C) canal of Schlemm
D) pupil
Q3) Bone conduction occurs here.
A) outer ear
B) middle ear
C) inner ear
D) semicircular canals
Q4) Lysozyme,an enzyme with antimicrobial activity,is found in
A) tears.
B) vitreous humor.
C) aqueous humor.
D) endolymph.
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) T<sub>3</sub>,T<sub>4</sub>,and calcitonin are
A) secreted by the thyroid gland.
B) secreted by the parathyroid glands.
C) secreted in response to declining plasma levels of calcium.
D) steroids.
Q2) Hypocalcemic tetany
A) causes a flaccid paralysis.
B) resembles neuromuscular blockade by curare.
C) may be caused by a deficiency of PTH.
D) is due to a deficiency of insulin.
Q3) Testosterone is best described as
A) virilizing.
B) lactogenic.
C) adenohypophyseal.
D) pancreatic.
Q4) Which of the following is most descriptive of cAMP?
A) second chemical messenger
B) catecholamine that contributes to the "fight-or-flight" response
C) steroid
D) releasing hormone
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of blood?
A) The average adult male has 4 to 6 L of blood.
B) The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.
C) Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxygenated blood.
D) Water is 3 to 5 times more viscous than blood.
Q2) Which of the following is called extrinsic factor?
A) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
B) iron
C) heme
D) prothrombin
Q3) Hemolysis causes
A) leukocytosis.
B) acidosis.
C) hyperbilirubinemia.
D) a prolonged prothrombin time and bleeding.
Q4) Thrombocytopenia
A) refers to a deficiency of platelets.
B) is caused by myelosuppression.
C) may be accompanied by aplastic anemia and granulocytopenia.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves:pulmonic,aortic
B) structures that carry oxygenated blood:pulmonary veins,left ventricle,aorta
C) layers of the heart:epicardium,myocardium,endocardium
D) abnormal heart rates:tachycardia,bradycardia,normal sinus rhythm
Q2) What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts?
A) mitral valve
B) pulmonic valve
C) semilunar valve
D) tricuspid valve
Q3) The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
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18
Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is sympathomimetic?
A) beta1 adrenergic blocker
B) muscarinic agonist
C) vagolytic
D) beta1 adrenergic agonist
Q2) Which of the following contains 70 ml?
A) the cardiac output
B) the volume of a ventricle
C) an average stroke volume
D) the amount of blood that flows through the pulmonary capillaries in one minute
Q3) Activation of the muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine
A) increases myocardial contractile force
B) causes a (+)chronotropic effect
C) increases cardiac output
D) slows heart rate
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart?
A) veins
B) arteries
C) capillaries
D) venules
Q2) Which of the following should be colored blue?
A) umbilical vein
B) jugulars
C) celiac axis
D) pulmonary veins
Q3) Blood pressure is lowest in the
A) inferior vena cava.
B) aorta.
C) pulmonary capillaries.
D) femoral artery.
Q4) In which fetal blood vessel is oxygen concentration greatest?
A) aorta
B) umbilical vein
C) umbilical arteries
D) left ventricle
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) If plasma osmolarity increases,as in dehydration or the infusion of mannitol (a sugar solution),
A) filtration rate increases.
B) fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitium.
C) fluid is "pulled" into the capillary from the interstitium.
D) plasma proteins diffuse out of the capillary into the interstitium.
Q2) Blood pressure is lowest in the
A) inferior vena cava.
B) aorta.
C) circle of Willis.
D) femoral artery.
Q3) What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading?
A) pulse deficit
B) cardiac output
C) stroke volume
D) pulse pressure
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens if the lymphatic vessels and nodes are removed from the right axillary region?
A) All lymph will drain directly into the superior vena cava.
B) The right arm will become gangrenous from lack of oxygen.
C) The right arm will become edematous.
D) The patient will experience anginal pain.
Q2) The inguinal lymph nodes
A) line the entrance of the spleen.
B) are the Kupffer cells within the liver.
C) are located in the groin.
D) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q3) Which of the following is due to a viral infection involving the lymph nodes and is called the "kissing disease"?
A) Hodgkin's disease
B) elephantiasis
C) infectious mononucleosis
D) anaphylaxis
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) mechanical barriers:skin,mucous membrane
B) protective proteins:interferons,complement proteins
C) nonspecific immunity:inflammation,NK cells,fever,T cells
D) signs of inflammation:redness,heat,swelling,pain
Q2) What is the term that refers to the use of dead or attenuated pathogens to stimulate antibody production?
A) immunotolerance
B) autoimmunity
C) immunization
D) inflammation
Q3) Which of the following cells engulfs the pathogen to achieve "antigen presentation"?
A) a red blood cell
B) a macrophage
C) antibodies
D) vaccines
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This nerve innervates the diaphragm.
A) intercostal nerve
B) sciatic
C) phrenic
D) cranial nerve XI
Q2) Which of the following is most related to the transport of the respiratory gases by the blood?
A) inhalation,exhalation
B) oxyhemoglobin,carbaminohemoglobin
C) inspiration,expiration
D) breathing in,breathing out
Q3) The diaphragm
A) is smooth muscle that forms the bronchioles.
B) is skeletal muscle.
C) contracts in response to the firing of the vagus nerve.
D) forms the outer lining of the lungs.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stomach mixes and mashes a bolus of food that is called A) feces.
B) flatus.
C) chyle.
D) chyme.
Q2) Obstruction of the common bile duct causes
A) pain in the RLQ.
B) GERD.
C) jaundice.
D) lactose intolerance.
Q3) Deglutition refers to A) chewing.
B) peristalsis.
C) swallowing.
D) burping.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the chewing of food?
A) emulsification
B) mechanical digestion
C) peristalsis
D) absorption
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the urine-making structure of the kidney?
A) trigone
B) renal pyramid
C) renal capsule
D) nephron unit
Q2) Which condition is associated with proteinuria?
A) a bladder infection
B) urethritis
C) glomerular disease
D) deficiency of ADH
Q3) The renal capsule
A) lines the tubules.
B) lines the urinary bladder.
C) surrounds the kidneys.
D) outlines the trigone.
Q4) The calyces receive urine from the
A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) collecting ducts.
C) glomeruli.
D) peritubular capillaries.
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Chapter 25: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake?
A) diuresis
B) polyuria
C) hematuria
D) dehydration
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) ions:sodium,potassium,calcium,bicarbonate,chloride
B) lines of defense against acid-base imbalance:buffers,lungs,kidneys
C) extracellular fluid:intravascular,interstitial,transcellular
D) substances that are normally found in a sample of urine:urea,creatinine,glucose
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake?
A) dehydration
B) edema
C) hypovolemia
D) polyuria
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) This hormone is also called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.
A) FSH
B) estrogen
C) luteinizing hormone
D) chorionic gonadotropin
Q2) The scrotum
A) makes sperm.
B) is a sac located between the thighs and holds the testicles.
C) secretes androgens.
D) contains the prostate gland and urethra.
Q3) Estrogen and progesterone are
A) gonadotropins.
B) secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall.
C) secreted by the ovaries.
D) hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH.
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) This outer extraembryonic membrane forms finger-like projections called villi and helps form the placenta.
A) amnion
B) chorion
C) umbilicus
D) trophoblast
Q2) Which of the following is divided into trimesters?
A) conception
B) fertilization
C) pregnancy
D) ovulation
Q3) Which of the following is most related to human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A) milk production
B) breasts
C) corpus luteum
D) anterior pituitary gland
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