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Environmental Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the interactions between the natural environment and human societies. This course examines key concepts such as ecosystem dynamics, biodiversity, climate change, pollution, resource management, and sustainability. Students will investigate the scientific principles underlying environmental issues, analyze the impact of human activities on the Earth's systems, and evaluate strategies for mitigating environmental problems. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, fieldwork, and case studies, the course aims to develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills necessary for addressing current and future environmental challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Living in the Environment 3rd Canadian Edition by G. Miller
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Q1) The old drink bottles that were collected, washed, and refilled are an example of ____________________.
Answer: reuse
Q2) What is NOT important in determining the damage produced by a pollutant?
A)persistence
B)origin
C)concentration
D)chemical nature
Answer: B
Q3) ___________________________________ is the ability of the environment to function indefinitely.
Answer: Environmental sustainability
Q4) Which resource is a non-metallic mineral resource?
A)water
B)soil
C)oil
D)sand
Answer: D
Q5) How does Canada's ecological footprint compare to that of the Netherlands?
Answer: Canada's ecological footprint is over three times as high.
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Q1) What was NOT a characteristic of the agricultural revolution?
A)spread of disease
B)demand for minerals
C)pollution
D)respect for the environment
Answer: D
Q2) George W.Bush, elected president of the U.S., supported Kyoto and was committed to reducing automobile emissions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which statement about slash-and-burn cultivation is true?
A)it contours and terraces the land
B)ashes from burned vegetation are left in place, which add plant nutrients to the soil
C)crops are rotated yearly
D)it ultimately leads to desertification
Answer: B
Q4) Which step allows the area to renew to soil fertility?
Answer: Step 4
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Q1) What uses low-quality energy?
A)electric motors
B)furnaces for space heating
C)gas combustion engines
D)stoves for cooking
Answer: B
Q2) Which model is the mostuseful for perceiving and predicting events in the environmental arena?
A)a conceptual model
B)a mathematical model
C)a physical model
D)a mental model
Answer: B
Q3) Burning coal demonstrates the first law of thermodynamics.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ____________________ radiation is the energy travelling in the form of a wave from the sun to the Earth.
Answer: Electromagnetic

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Q1) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the layer that comprises all of the Earth's ecosystems?
Q2) In which of the following does the conversion of solar energy into chemical energy occur?
A)chemosynthesis
B)heterotrophic organisms
C)photosynthesis
D)higher levels of food chains
Q3) What is characteristic of the hydrologic cycle?
A)movement of water
B)movement of hydrocarbons
C)movement of hydrogen
D)movement of oxygen
Q4) Which letter in the above diagram is the level that primarily feeds on producers?
Q5) Which letter in the diagram indicates the process in which bacteria change nitrogen gas to ammonia which can be used by plants?
Q6) ____________________ are essential to the flow of energy because they consume waste and recycle nutrients.
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Q1) Biopharming is the use of genetically engineered animals to act as biofactories for producing drugs.
A)True B)False
Q2) Genetic engineering involves making a modified gene, making a transgenic cell, and then growing a genetically altered organism.
A)True B)False
Q3) Selective breeding is a method of artificial selection.
A)True B)False
Q4) A(n) ____________________ includes an organism's range of tolerance for physical and chemical conditions.
Q5) In speciation, two species interbreed to form one new species.
A)True B)False
Q6) ___________________________________ facilitates one species developing into two through mutation or natural selection.
Q7) The Arctic fox and the grey fox are an example of what type of isolation?
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Q1) Mountains help regulate the Earth's climate when their snow-and ice-covered tops reflect solar radiation back into space.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How do temperate deciduous forests compare to tropical rain forests?
A)they have more varieties of tree species than tropical rain forests
B)they have more varieties of animal species than tropical rain forests
C)they have less sunlight penetrating to lower levels than tropical rain forests
D)they have more plant life at ground level than tropical rain forests
Q3) If there was no natural greenhouse effect, what would the Earth be like?
Q4) A low-pressure air mass produces cloudy, and sometimes stormy, weather.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the most important factor in determining which biome is found in a particular area?
A)sunlight
B)climate
C)soil type
D)topography
Q6) What are four strategies that desert plants use to conserve water and lose heat?
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Q1) The bottom layer of a lake is called the ____________________ zone.
Q2) What is an advantage for populations of organisms living in water?
A)less fluctuations in temperatures
B)fewer predators
C)fluctuating population sizes
D)physical support from water buoyancy
Q3) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the zone containing wider, lower elevation streams?
Q4) In which aquatic zone are ecosystems with the world's highest net primary productivities per unit area found?
A)the benthic zone
B)the bathyal zone
C)the abyssal zone
D)the coastal zone
Q5) Which term refers to lakes that have few minerals and low productivity?
A)eutrophic
B)mesotrophic
C)autotrophic
D)oligotrophic
Q6) ____________________________ have a low supply of nutrients.
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Q1) Which natural change would be considered gradual rather than catastrophic?
A)fire
B)drought
C)climate change
D)landslide
Q2) One result of a low throughput economy is the reduction of unnecessary consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which pair of human activities is likely to lead to the establishment of monocultures?
A)plantation forestry and ecosystem restoration
B)agriculture and plantation forestry
C)agriculture and ecosystem rehabilitation
D)agriculture and ecosystem restoration
Q4) Which aspect(s) of the economy does the flying fox contribute to?
A)the production of antivenom
B)the production of antivenom and ecotourism
C)the production of fruits
D)ecotourism
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Q1) What happens when a population exceeds its resource supplies?
Q2) When a population exceeds the environment's carrying capacity, species diversity becomes constant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which population pattern is likely for rabbits and coyotes living in an undisturbed habitat?
A)irruptive
B)cyclic
C)explosive
D)stable
Q4) The lynx and the hare exhibit a(n) ____________________ population cycle.
Q5) What is the survivorship curve for a typical fish?
A)late loss
B)constant loss
C)early loss
D)no loss
Q6) Which letter in the diagram represents limiting abiotic factors?
Q7) Most large mammals and birds of prey are ____________________ -selected species.
Q8) Which letter in the diagram represents a population's capacity for growth? Page 11
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Q1) What would NOT be characteristic of baby boomers?
A)placing strains on the health care system as they approach middle age
B)having an influence on politics
C)taking voluntary early retirement
D)having a strong influence on demands for goods and services
Q2) The _________________________ has declined because of food supply, better nutrition, advances in medicine, and improved sanitization.
Q3) By 2017, about half of the population of Vancouver, British Columbia will consist of visible minorities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to the diagram, which stage has a high birth rate and a high death rate?
Q5) Although there is disagreement over the role of population growth, which statement on the optimum population size for the world do a number of experts agree on?
A)Between 20 and 40 billion is the optimum population size.
B)Optimum population size is a meaningless concept.
C)There is no limit to how many people the planet can support.
D)There is an upper limit of about 100 billion.
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Q1) Legally declaring a track of land as a(n) ____________________ is one way to protect it from human exploitation.
Q2) An uncut forest or a regenerated forest that has not been significantly impacted by humans or natural disasters for centuries or longer, is known as a(n)
Q3) What percentage of the Earth's land base is wilderness?
A)about 33%
B)about 25%
C)about 20%
D)about 10%
Q4) Why are wilderness areas needed?
A)to preserve biological diversity
B)for the high number of recreational users
C)to improve sustainable timber production
D)to improve sustainable organic agriculture
Q5) Marine habitats are experiencing rapidly increasing rates of species extinction due to factors such as rapid human development and poor environmental management.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which characteristic is displayed by small populations of species?
A)They have a large and diverse gene pool.
B)They are not vulnerable to catastrophic events.
C)They may have an increased evolutionary potential for survival.
D)Their population density may be below critical levels.
Q2) Habitat destruction can be counteracted by reconciliation ecology.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following leads to a decrease in biodiversity?
A)ecological land-use planning
B)protection of ecosystems
C)pollution control
D)introduction of exotic species
Q4) Intrinsic value is the value of a non-relational characteristic of an object.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Biological diversity is an invaluable and irreplaceable resource.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What motivates people to smuggle and illegally hunt wild animals?
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Q1) Wetlands in Canada are diminishing due to the expansion of agriculture and subdivisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Proponents of whaling say that people in one country have no right to tell people in another country not to eat whales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) More than one-third of the world's virgin mangrove forest swamps have disappeared.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Canada's salmon populations fluctuate from year to year in response to a variety of influences, including changes in ocean ____________________.
Q5) What are some ways to rebuild salmon populations?
Q6) Currently, no nations hunt whales.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What ecological services do wetlands provide?
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Q1) Traditional agriculture is less productive than large-scale farming but it is practiced by almost half of the world's population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To increase crop yields, farmers use crossbreeding, genetic engineering, and polycultures of perennial crops.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What characterizes the vegetation found in a riparian zone?
A)It is a kind of algae in watering holes for cattle.
B)It is poisonous to cold-water fish.
C)It can destroy a grassland ecosystem.
D)It can be easily destroyed by trampling and overgrazing.
Q4) Which crops were specially bred for tropical and subtropical climates, and were the outcome of genetic research conducted during the green revolution?
A)dwarf varieties of corn and potatoes
B)dwarf varieties of sugarcane and pineapples
C)dwarf varieties of rice and wheat
D)dwarf varieties of bananas and coconuts
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Q1) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the system that is the most efficient way to deliver small amounts of water to crops by using a network of tubing installed at or below the ground level?
Q2) ____________________, which involves replacing grasses with native plants, sharply reduces water use on a site.
Q3) Shifting displaced fishermen to logging would improve the Aral Sea's ecological/economic situation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ______________________________provides massive amounts of water to urban and rural developments in dry climates.
Q5) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to an area that replenishes an aquifer by precipitation?
Q6) Which human activity decreases the likelihood that flooding will occur?
A)channelization
B)draining wetlands
C)building on floodplains
D)removing water-absorbing vegetation
Q7) What water problem is particular to Canada?
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Q1) Smelting is used to separate the metal from the other elements in the ore mineral.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of rock is most likely formed from compacted shells and skeletons?
A)marble
B)salt
C)coal
D)limestone
Q3) Which of the following is a type of subsurface mining?
A)strip mining
B)room-and-pillar mining
C)contour mining
D)mountaintop removal
Q4) Which type of rock is most likely formed from compacted plant remains?
A)limestone
B)salt
C)marble
D)coal
Q5) The ____________________ surrounds the core.
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Q1) What is the most desirable type of coal, due to its high heat content and low sulphur content?
A)peat
B)lignite
C)bituminous
D)anthracite
Q2) How many large CANDU reactors are currently operating in Canada?
A)0
B)11
C)22
D)55
Q3) The problem with _________________________ is that it contains hundreds of different types of hydrocarbons that must be separated in order to be used.
Q4) Which country put the world's first full-sized commercial breeder reactor into operation in 1986?
A)Germany
B)the United States
C)Canada
D)France
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Q1) Burning hydrogen in a fuel cell by combining it with ____________________ produces water vapour and no carbon dioxide.
Q2) Which statement best describes a solar power plant?
A)It pollutes air and water.
B)It produces electricity at twice the price of a nuclear plant.
C)It can be built as large or as small as needed.
D)It takes three to five years to construct.
Q3) An advantage of a micropower system is that it can be used anywhere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some of the advantages of micropower?
Q5) Which statement best describes a pumped-storage hydropower system?
A)It may vary in output during different seasons.
B)It is used to produce power during peak periods.
C)It involves the use of large dams.
D)It depends on stream flow to control power generation.
Q6) What would happen if the Canadian government required that all vehicles must be able to travel 17 kilometres per litre of fuel?
Q7) What are some sources of biomass fuels?
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Q1) Evaluating the relative health risks for an individual involves looking at the environmental conditions, food resources, and the military security of that individual's population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Graphic warnings on cigarette packages and the banning of smoking in public places have failed to reduce the incidence of cigarette smoking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the greatest contributor to reducing a person's life span?
A)smoking
B)high cholesterol
C)poverty
D)cancer
Q4) What is metastasis?
A)the process of dying from cancer
B)the result of coming into contact with a carcinogen
C)the surgical removal of a tumour
D)when malignant cells break off from tumours to other parts of the body
Q5) At which age are females more likely to die from AIDS than males?
22
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Q1) What are lichens particularly useful for?
A)for indicating toxic waste sites
B)for indicating water pollution
C)for indicating pesticides
D)for indicating air pollution
Q2) The effectiveness of the pollution prevention approach is best illustrated by the sharp drop in atmospheric lead.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Secondary pollutants can be classified by the source of pollution, such as the stationary source or the mobile source.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What percentage of U.S.commercial buildings are considered to be "sick" due to indoor air pollutants, according to the EPA?
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
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Q1) The United States, China, and Russia-three of the world's major greenhouse gas emitters-agreed in 2001 to participate in a cap-and-trade program to slow global warming.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which chemical is NOT capable of destroying ozone?
A)halons in fire extinguishers and crop fumigants
B)formaldehyde used as a preservative
C)chlorofluorocarbons
D)carbon tetrachloride used as a solvent
Q3) What might occur if climate belts move faster than trees migrate?
A)tropical forests in New England
B)a large increase of forest area
C)mass extinctions of species that could not migrate
D)an increase in forest diversity
Q4) The term to describe the reflectivity of the different parts of the Earth's surface is
Q5) ________________________________________ is a broad term that refers to changes in any aspect of the Earth's climate, including temperature, precipitation, and storm intensity.
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Q1) Which letter in the diagram corresponds to the zone in which the bacteria have not started the decay of degradable, oxygen-demanding wastes?
Q2) Production of plastic bottles for bottled water contributes to environmental problems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organism is NOT likely to be affected by ocean debris?
A)zooplankton
B)whales
C)sea turtles
D)seals
Q4) If the ____________________ is not monitored for contaminants or cleaned up when it is contaminated, people will be drinking water that is not good for them.
Q5) A(n) ____________________ is a flat tract of land bordering a river, mainly in the lower reaches, and is formed by the water's flow downstream.
Q6) ____________________ keep the price of water so low that users do not worry about wasting water.
Q7) How much pollution can the oceans tolerate?
25
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Q1) What is more likely to become biologically magnified in a food chain?
A)DDT
B)parathion
C)malathion
D)carbaryl
Q2) What characterizes second-generation pesticides?
A)They are selective in their target species.
B)They do not include DDT.
C)They do not persist long in the environment.
D)They are derived from chemicals and natural plants.
Q3) What is one characteristic of chlorinated hydrocarbons?
A)They degrade faster than other organic pesticides.
B)They are likely to be target specific.
C)They are biologically magnified.
D)They are more toxic than other organic pesticides.
Q4) Which statement best describes the ideal pesticide?
A)It would kill only the target pest.
B)It would be persistent.
C)It would allow the development of genetic resistance.
D)It would be of equal value to the damage the pest would have caused.
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Q1) Countries in which governments offer subsidies and tax breaks for extracting, reusing, and recycling materials are more environmentally sustainable than countries that do not offer them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is required to break down partially biodegradable plastics?
A)oxygen and moisture
B)light
C)cool conditions
D)anaerobic conditions
Q3) Canada's label for meeting specified environmental standards is called the EcoLogo. A)True
B)False
Q4) What percentage of all plastic is recycled in North America?
A)about 50%
B)about 40%
C)about 20%
D)about 10%
Q5) Why is recycling an output approach for environmental concerns?
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Q1) ________________________________________ is the development of urban growth to minimize environmental impact.
Q2) What percentage of travel in the world occurs by foot, bicycle, motor scooter, and bus?
A)10%
B)30%
C)60%
D)90%
Q3) What can impede ecologically sound development?
A)establishing land trusts
B)taxing land on the basis of the economically highest potential use
C)requiring environmental impact analyses for private projects
D)implementing conservation easements
Q4) Which strategy has been implemented to reduce Mexico City's air pollution?
A)planting 25 million trees
B)requiring the removal of catalytic converters from cars
C)requiring all cars to use biofuels
D)tax incentives to improve energy efficiency
Q5) What is an ecocity?
Q6) Urban areas grow in two ways: by natural increase, and by
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Q1) Why do economists plot a curve of pollution cleanup costs against a curve of estimated social costs of pollution?
A)to find the internal costs of pollution
B)to find the minimum level of pollution
C)to find the optimal level of pollution
D)to find the maximum level of pollution
Q2) Which of the following is an external cost of an automobile?
A)maintenance and repair
B)gasoline
C)pollution and health
D)raw materials and labour
Q3) What does the GDP represent?
A)social welfare
B)the quality of the environment
C)the quality of life
D)economic output
Q4) ____________________ is the study of how individuals and societies choose to use limited or scarce resources to satisfy their unlimited wants.
Q5) What is meant by the optimum level of resource use?
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Q1) Which effort to be more "green" has been undertaken by a number of college students?
A)They established agricultural research stations.
B)They established a Green Cup competition among dorms to see who eats the most vegetables.
C)They promoted the use of locally grown beef only.
D)They worked with faculty and administration to make environmental improvements on campus.
Q2) Which of the following is a demonstration of effective environmental leadership?
A)setting a positive example
B)challenging the system
C)communicating with elected officials
D)working within the system
Q3) ___________________________________ prove that individuals matter and can facilitate change when they join together in any group.
Q4) The organization that enforces the new GATT rules of world trade is the
Q5) Individuals can ____________________ a corporation or business to protest or show disfavour of certain practices.
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Q1) How can philosophy help with environmental problems?
Q2) A(n) ____________________ worldview states that resources will likely not run out but they should not be wasted.
Q3) A ____________________ revolution is dedicated to meeting the basic needs of all people on the planet while affluent societies learn to live more sustainably by living with less.
Q4) Biosphere 2 was a huge success in terms of self-sustainability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What underpins the concept of usefulness?
A)dollar value
B)instrumental value
C)net worth
D)aesthetic value
Q6) ____________________ is the philosophy that people can develop principles of right and wrong by using logic to analyze ideas and arguments.
Q7) ____________________ values refers to forms of life that have value because of their usefulness to humans or to the biosphere.
Q8) What is the environmental wisdom worldview? Page 31
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