Environmental Science Question
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Course Introduction
Environmental Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the complex interactions between the physical, chemical, and biological components of the environment. This course examines how natural systems function, the impact of human activities on these systems, and the strategies needed to address environmental challenges such as pollution, resource depletion, and climate change. By integrating concepts from biology, chemistry, geology, and social sciences, students will gain a holistic understanding of environmental issues and develop critical thinking skills to propose sustainable solutions for global and local environmental problems.
Recommended Textbook
Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Essentials of Geography
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Sample Questions
Q1) As we burn fossil fuels and release carbon dioxide, the temperature of our planet and the oceans will increase. When the oceans warm they will release more carbon dioxide, further warming the planet and oceans. If this occurs rapidly and causes a sudden rise in temperature, a(n) ________ has been crossed and that the planet has moved into a state of ________.
A) input level; equilibrium
B) input level; disequilibrium
C) threshold; equilibrium
D) threshold; disequilibrium
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true about Global Positioning System (GPS)?
A) GPS helped accurately determined the height of Mt. Everest.
B) GPS is the same as remote sensing.
C) GPS is used solely by the military, who share information with physical geographers.
D) GPS has no scientific uses, but are great for recreational purposes.
Answer: A
Q3) What are the four classes of map projections?
Answer: The four classes of map projections are called planar, cylindrical, conic, and oval.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Solar Energy to Earth and the Seasons
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Sample Questions
Q1) While standing at the Tropic of Cancer, Emma's shadow points north at noon (Sun time). Based on this, which of the following can be definitely concluded?
A) It must be the summer solstice.
B) It must be the winter solstice.
C) It must be one of the equinoxes.
D) It must not be the summer solstice.
E) It must not be the winter solstice.
Answer: D
Q2) Earth's rotation is described as
A) east to west.
B) north to south.
C) west to east.
D) clockwise when viewed from above the North Pole.
Answer: C
Q3) All points on Earth's surface experience the subsolar point at some moment during the year.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Earths Modern Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true?
A) Natural sources of air pollution are not a concern in terms of human health.
B) Natural sources of air pollution are a relatively new occurrence.
C) Though infrequent, natural events that produce air pollution may cover large areas.
D) There is no reason to be concerned about natural sources of air pollution.
Answer: C
Q2) Particulate matter has been associated with higher medical expenses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding lapse rates in the troposphere?
A) The term "normal (average) lapse rate" refers to the actual lapse rate in effect at any particular time.
B) The environmental lapse rate refers to the actual lapse rate at any particular time and may differ substantially from the normal lapse rate.
C) The normal lapse rate is always the same as the dry adiabatic rate (DAR).
D) Temperatures generally increase with altitude in the troposphere.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Atmosphere and Surface Energy Balances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differential transmissivity of shortwave insolation and longwave terrestrial radiation by various atmospheric gases is better known as the
A) global dimming.
B) greenhouse effect.
C) cloud-albedo forcing.
D) global warming.
Q2) On land, the highest annual values for latent heat of evaporation (LE) occur
A) near the poles.
B) over the subtropics.
C) in the tropics.
D) in the midlatitudes.
Q3) Which of the following would be true for the net radiation balance in a midlatitude location?
A) Net R is constant throughout the year.
B) There is a surplus of Net R during the summer and a deficit during the winter.
C) There is a deficit of Net R during the summer and a surplus during the winter.
D) The season at which surpluses and deficits occur varies from one year to the next.
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Chapter 5: Global Temperatures
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Q1) Why is the higher specific heat of water as compared to rock or soil an important factor in determining temperature characteristics and changes?
Q2) Within the troposphere, temperatures and density________ with increasing altitude above the Earth's surface.
A) both increase
B) decrease and increase, respectively
C) both decrease
D) increase and decrease, respectively
Q3) Hypothermia occurs when a person has overheated to the point where the body is unable to cool itself.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) San Francisco - marine
B) Trondheim - continentality
C) Verkhoyansk - continentality
D) Wichita - continentality
Q5) How does wind affect the wind-chill factor and the heat index?
Q6) Compare and contrast the wind-chill factor and the heat index.
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Chapter 6: Atmospheric and Oceanic Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is associated with these names deserts such as the Sahara or the Arabian Desert?
A) subpolar lows
B) world's equatorial rain forests
C) subtropical high pressure
D) major agricultural regions
Q2) Low pressure areas are associated with converging, ascending air.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the day along the coast, the wind tends to blow toward the ________ because ________.
A) land; land heats more rapidly than water
B) land; land heats more slowly than water
C) water; water heats more slowly than land
D) water; water heats more rapidly than land
Q4) Which of the following describes the pressure gradient force?
A) It drives air from areas of higher to lower barometric pressure.
B) It decreases with height above the surface.
C) It causes apparent deflection of winds from a straight path.
D) It is the only force acting on atmospheric flows in the upper troposphere.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Water and Atmospheric Moisture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The moist adiabatic rate (MAR) is less than the dry adiabatic rate (DAR) because of the release of the latent heat of condensation within the rising parcel of air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The portion of air pressure exerted by water vapor is the
A) vapor pressure.
B) absolute humidity.
C) psychrometer.
D) dew point.
Q3) The phase changes of water provide a significant amount of the energy that powers the general circulation of the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding cirrostratus clouds?
A) They are uniform, featureless, and grey like high fog.
B) The Sun's outline is just visible through these clouds.
C) They form a veil of ice crystals that creates a halo around the Moon or Sun.
D) They are sharply outlined, and billowy.
Q5) Describe water's phase changes and the latent energy associated with each.
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Chapter 8: Weather
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urban heat islands can contribute to convectional lifting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Convectional lifting results when air from different directions flows toward an area of low pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is predicted to occur in the 21st Century as a result of climate change?
A) An increase in global snowfall due to an increase in atmospheric moisture.
B) Increased frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones due to increased ocean temperatures.
C) Less lake-effect snowfall due to warming waters.
D) Decrease in extreme snowfall events (blizzards).
Q4) Between 1950 and 2010, approximately how many tornadoes were recorded in the United States?
A) 5,000
B) 15,000
C) 33.000
D) 54.000
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper limit of the zone of saturation is known as the water table.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The line of contact between the zone of aeration and the zone of saturation is known as the
A) water table.
B) saturation contact.
C) influent line.
D) aquiclude.
Q3) A drought defined based on decreases in streamflow, lowering of reservoir levels, and declines in snowpacks is a(n)
A) meteorological drought.
B) agricultural drought.
C) hydrological drought
D) socioeconomic drought.
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding groundwater?
A) It is unlimited when compared with the amount of surface water supplies.
B) When polluted, it is actually easier to clean up than is surface water.
C) The total amount of groundwater has been reduced by the mining of water.
D) In terms of total amount, it is second to streams in the United States.
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Chapter 10: Global Climate Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The seasonal pulse of the monsoons contribute to the drier weather conditions in the marine west coast climates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The low-latitude hot desert climates occur
A) in the tropics and subtropics.
B) only in midlatitude rainshadow positions.
C) in polar regions.
D) along the midlatitude, west coasts of continents.
Q3) Humid subtropical hot-summer climates
A) are moist all year.
B) have a pronounced dry period.
C) can either be moist all year or have a pronounced dry period, depending on geographic location.
Q4) The worlds climatic regions determine to a large extent the location of the world's biomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Construct a climograph for your city or town.
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Chapter 11: Climate Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The world's largest reserve of carbon-based fuel is likely
A) coal.
B) oil.
C) methane hydrates.
D) shale gas.
Q2) The rate of population growth decreased after 1950.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of tree rings to study past climates is known as dendroclimatology.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the functioning of a general circulation model. What are some of the predictions for the 21st Century based on GCMs?
Q5) Mineral deposits with caves and caverns are known as A) earlywood.
B) latewood.
C) varves.
D) speleothems.
Q6) What are some examples of positive and negative climate feedback loops?
Q7) What steps can you take to help reduce climate change?
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Chapter 12: The Dynamic Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roughly 95% of the Earth's crust is made up of silicates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The occurrence of contact metamorphism would be direct evidence for
A) cementation of sedimentary rock.
B) the local intrusion of magma.
C) regional plate collision.
D) lithification of clastics.
Q3) Which of the following is correct?
A) Continental crust is less dense than oceanic crust and composed primarily of basalt.
B) Continental crust is denser than oceanic crust and composed primarily of granite.
C) Oceanic crust is less dense than continental crust and is composed primarily of granite.
D) Oceanic crust is denser than continental crust and is composed primarily of basalt.
Q4) Present the main assumptions of uniformitarianism.
Q5) Describe the three basic rock types, how each are formed, and subcategories of each.
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14
Chapter 13: Tectonics, Earthquakes, and Volcanism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area at the surface directly above the subsurface location where seismic waves are initiated is termed the A) epicenter.
B) fault area.
C) Richter zone.
D) focus, or hypocenter.
Q2) A normal fault is associated with compressional stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Felsic magma produces more violent eruptions that mafic magma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Terranes refer to
A) the topography of a tract of land.
B) subducted oceanic crust that is melted and later reaches the surface in volcanic eruptions or cools in the subsurface as an intrusive body.
C) fragmented crustal material from one plate and accreted to another plate.
D) a large region where a craton is exposed at the surface.
Q5) Describe various volcanic landforms.
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Chapter 14: Weathering, Karst Landscapes, and Mass Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any large cave formed by chemical processes is a A) cavern.
B) doline.
C) karst valley.
D) collapse sinkhole.
Q2) Exfoliation and pressure-release jointing are examples of ________ weathering processes.
A) chemical
B) physical
C) biological
D) both biological and physical
Q3) A landslide requires a substantial amounts of water to saturate the mass of materials.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fence posts and utility poles leaning downslope is indicative of slump.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and describe anthropogenic mass movement. Page 16
Q5) Describe the factors influencing the weathering process.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: River Systems and Landforms
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Sample Questions
Q1) An oxbow lake is a former meander that has become isolated from the rest of the river.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main process contributing material in solution in sediment load is A) physical weathering.
B) chemical weathering.
C) biological weathering.
D) erosion.
Q3) The suspended load of a stream consists of particles that are
A) rolled and bounced along the stream bed.
B) held aloft in the stream flow.
C) dragged along the stream bed.
D) dissolved in solution.
Q4) Natural levees are created during A) floods.
B) normal flow conditions.
C) low flow conditions.
D) degradation.
Q5) Describe the various ways in which streams can transport material.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Oceans, Coastal Processes, and Wind Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dunes are the smallest features shaped by the movement of windblown sand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Approximately 40% of the world's population lives in or near an ocean coast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What accounts for the coastal straightening and the formation of a longshore current?
Q4) A ________ is deposited sediment that connects a shoreline with an offshore island.
A) barrier spit
B) lagoon
C) tombolo
D) baymouth bar
Q5) The coast extends inland
A) to the foreshore dune.
B) to the backshore dune.
C) to the trough between the primary and secondary dune.
D) to the highest water line that occurs during a storm.
E) from the high tide level to the first major landform change.
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Chapter 17: Glacial and Periglacial Processes and Landforms
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are sharp ridges that form when glaciers erode parallel valleys.
A) Arêtes
B) Eskers
C) Drumlins
D) Bergschrunds
Q2) The snowline is at a higher elevation on equatorial mountains than on midlatitude mountains.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Differentiate between alpine and continental glaciers, ice caps and ice fields.
Q4) Ice regelation incorporates rock debris into a glacier.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Combined, alpine glaciers and ice sheets cover about 10% of the Earth's land surface.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Many western states rely heavily on snowmelt for their municipal water supplies.
A)True
B)False Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 18: The Geography of Soils
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest natural lump or cluster of soil particles is known as a A) horizon.
B) ped.
C) profile.
D) separate.
Q2) In terms of pedogenic regimes, the process that concentrates salts in soils in climates with high evapotranspiration is
A) laterization.
B) salinization.
C) calcification.
D) podzolization.
E) gleization.
Q3) Which soil order is the most spatially widespread?
A) Vertisols
B) Alfisols
C) Entisols
D) Gelisols
Q4) The A horizon is also commonly called topsoil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Ecosystem Essentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) The notion that the traits that help a species survive and reproduce are passed along more frequently than those that do not (i.e. differential reproduction and adaptation) is known as
A) Lamarckianism.
B) punctuated equilibrium.
C) natural selection.
D) gradualism.
Q2) Using outside forces, describe the limiting factor of an organism and how it affects this organisms distribution.
Q3) The gaseous oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere was produced as a by-product of A) volcanic outgassing.
B) photochemical reactions breaking down ozone (O ) to form oxygen (O ).
C) photosynthesis.
D) decay of organic matter.
Q4) Approximately half of the cultivated acreage in the United States and Canada is planted for animal consumption.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Terrestrial Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distinct regions of broadly similar flora and fauna are called A) biozones.
B) ecospheres.
C) biomes.
D) biogeographic realms.
Q2) Deserts, by definition, contain very little vegetation and are represented instead by large areas of windswept sand (ergs).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alfred Russel Wallace's zoogeographic realms roughly correspond to continental plate boundaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to MacArthur and Wilson's theory of island biogeography, which of the following is correct?
A) The number of species decreases with island area.
B) The number of species increases with island area.
C) There is no relationship between species number and island area.
Q5) What is conservation biogeography? What are its primary focuses?
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