Environmental Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Environmental Science explores the complex relationships between humans and their environment, examining the physical, chemical, and biological processes that shape the natural world. The course covers topics such as ecosystem dynamics, resource management, pollution, climate change, biodiversity, and sustainability. By integrating concepts from biology, chemistry, geology, and social sciences, students develop a comprehensive understanding of environmental challenges and learn about strategies and policies for promoting environmental stewardship and sustainability. This course also emphasizes critical thinking, problem-solving, and the application of scientific principles to real-world environmental issues.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
Sustainability - on the Road to Collapse: What Lessons Can We Learn From a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) How does wealth inequality impede sustainable growth?
A) Poorer nations lack natural resources.
B) Underprivileged people sometimes exploit the environment in order to survive.
C) Wealthier nations are very affected by resource availability and must pay high costs to access them.
D) People with the most money and power are the first to succumb to environmental problems.
E) The world's natural resources are controlled by the vast majority of the population.
Answer: B
Q2) The _________ is the land needed to provide resources and assimilate the waste of a person or population.
A) carrying capacity
B) biomass
C) ecological fingerprint
D) ecological footprint
E) population demand
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) Why should we care about ozone?
A) It's a dangerous stratospheric pollutant.
B) It protects the Earth's surface from UV-B radiation.
C) It is used in the production of CFCs.
D) It's a major pollutant in our rainwater.
E) It protects the Earth from climate change.
Answer: B
Q2) Refer to the right-hand panel of Infographic 2.7. The Montréal Protocol and its amendments have phased out the use of CFCs worldwide. Still, the protective ozone layer over Antarctica continues to shrink. Please give several reasons why this occurs and why it will continue to occur for some time.
Answer: It takes time for ozone levels to return to normal despite the strides made in CFC reductions. Much of the CFCs released into the troposphere have not yet diffused up into the stratosphere. Also, in junkyards around the world CFCs are likely leaking from old refrigerators or auto air conditioners. There is some limited legal use of CFCs, as well.
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) What is a toxin?
Answer: A toxin is something that causes damage after exposure. For example, arsenic can leach into ground water and cause cancer and damage the nervous system. Asbestos, another good example, is found in old building materials and affects the lungs after long exposure.
Q2) Why is it difficult to know if the effects of BPA seen in mice correspond to the risks faced by humans?
Answer: Mice are similar in many ways to humans, but they are not the same, and thus the effects could differ. Also, unpredictable additive and synergistic effects are likely between BPA and the countless other chemicals we encounter in our environment.
Q3) Which of the following are components of a critical thinker's skill set?
A) be skeptical
B) evaluate the evidence
C) be open minded
D) watch out for biases
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) You have been assigned the task of helping a developing country transition from demographic stage 2 (industrializing) to demographic stage 3 (mature industrial). How would you accomplish this task?
Q2) In the United States, the replacement fertility rate is ______.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2.1
D) 3
E) 0
Q3) You have been assigned the task of determining if a population will be growing, slowing, or declining. What aspects of an age structure diagram will help you determine what will happen to the population in the future?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a good predictor of population growth in a country?
A) the land mass of a country
B) crude death rate
C) crude birth rate
D) population momentum
E) All of the above are good predictors.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Health- Eradicating a Parasitic
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) What do you think has had the greatest impact on eradicating Guinea worm disease?
Q2) Refer to Infographic 5.6. In order of highest impact to lowest impact, what causes deaths in high-income countries?
A) lung cancer > stroke > breast cancer > diabetes
B) diabetes > lung infections > COPD > heart attack
C) stroke > colon cancer > hypertension > breast cancer
D) heart attack > stroke > COPD > Alzheimer's disease
E) colon cancer > diabetes > hypertension > lung infections
Q3) Who must support the prevention of environmentally mediated health problems for the efforts to be successful?
A) the at-risk communities themselves
B) international communities
C) more developed countries
D) A, B, and C must all support the efforts.
E) The efforts need no support.
A)True Page 7
Q4) Guinea worm disease is an example of a zoonotic disease.
Q5) Why do you think 75% of all emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?
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Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) Today, if we were to purchase a good or service at its true cost, how would the price compare to what we are accustomed to paying for the good or service?
A) The price would be lower.
B) The price would be higher.
C) The price would stay the same.
D) The price would decrease exponentially.
E) We cannot predict how the price would change.
Q2) Refer to Infographic 6.1. Approximately, what is the value of services that affect our food supply?
A) $79 billion
B) $1386 billion
C) $417 billion
D) $2100 billion
E) $2807 billion
Q3) What is a closed-loop system? How could an automatic car wash become more cyclical in a closed-loop system?
Q4) Compare and contrast technology as a variable that increases and decreases a population's overall impact.
Q5) What are assumptions of mainstream economics that fall short? Page 9
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Chapter 7: Managing Solid Waste- a Plastic Surf: Are the Oceans
Teeming With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) __________ is harmful to humans; it is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, and/or radioactive.
A) Biodegradable waste
B) Sanitary landfill waste
C) Municipal waste
D) Hazardous waste
E) Industrial waste
Q2) Consumers can decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste by ___________.
A) refusing to purchase products that contribute to solid waste generation
B) purchasing goods with minimal packaging
C) finding ways to reuse materials instead of purchasing new ones
D) actively recycling materials
E) All of the choices listed above will decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste.
Q3) It has been shown that a bottle deposit, a center for returning and recycling bottles and cans, significantly reduces the amount of plastic or glass bottles and aluminum cans that end up in a landfill. Not all states have a bottle deposit. What would be the benefits of having a bottle deposit in all states?
Q4) What is the difference between degradable and biodegradable waste?
Page 11
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Why do ecologists say that Earth is a closed system for matter?
A) They say this because there are no new inputs of matter.
B) They say this because there is no net loss of matter.
C) They say this because matter cycles in and out of organisms in ecosystems.
D) They say this because matter stays in the biosphere.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which of the following could be considered a limiting factor for a species?
A) pH of the soil
B) temperature
C) level of humidity
D) dissolved oxygen levels in water
E) All of the choices listed above could be a limiting factor for a species.
Q3) A coral reef community may include all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A) water
B) fish
C) aquatic plants
D) phytoplankton
E) All of the above could be part of a coral reef community
Q4) Refer to Infographic 8.4. From the infographic, which type of biome is mostly found 30° north or south of the equator? What conditions exist there? Page 12
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Several decades ago, around 24 rabbits were introduced into the wild of Australia, a country with no native rabbit population, mild winters, and large rabbit-friendly food supplies. Where do you think the rabbit population is today, and was it a big deal that only 24 rabbits were released?
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes the spacing density of humans in relation to the biosphere?
A) clumped distribution
B) random distribution
C) uniform distribution
D) r-adapted
E) none of the above
Q3) Population density is best defined as _____________.
A) the location and spacing of individuals with their range
B) the number of individuals per unit area
C) individuals found in groups or patches with a habitat
D) individuals spread out irregularly over an environment and with no discernable pattern
E) none of the above
Q4) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?
Page 14
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Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) Why is the lowered species diversity and availability of healthy habitat a problem for the continued survival of the Everglades ecosystem?
Q2) Which of the following groups feed on all of the other groups?
A) decomposers
B) producers
C) primary consumers
D) secondary consumers
E) tertiary consumers
Q3) Human activities in the Everglades has:
A) reduced species richness.
B) reduced species evenness.
C) fragmented habitats.
D) polluted natural water sources.
E) All of these options are correct.
Q4) Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems?
Q5) How does the introduction of an exotic predator species circumvent the natural predator-prey relationship?
Page 15
Q6) In terms of energy transfer, why can't trophic levels be in the shape of an inverted pyramid, that is, more quaternary consumers and less producers?
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Different versions of genes in a population are called ___________.
A) alleles
B) memes
C) individuals
D) directors
E) assortments
Q2) Refer to Infographic 11.1. Prior to advances in health care, premature low birth weight babies were unlikely to survive. At the other end of the spectrum, very large babies were unable to be born, often killing the mother while in labor as well. As a result, birth weight for humans averages between 7 and 8 pounds. Use the infographic to identify and name which result of natural selection is at work in this example.
Q3) The most famous major extinction event that occurred on Earth was the _________, which resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.
A) Ordovician extinction
B) K-T boundary mass extinction
C) Devonian extinction
D) Permian extinction
E) Triassic extinction
Q4) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
Page 17
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Chapter 12: Biodiversity- Palm Planet: Production of a
Common Household Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) There are more categorized than uncategorized species on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
Q3) Take what you know about biodiversity and climate change. Which ecosystem do you think would be more resistant to the effects of climate change (to a point): one with a high level of biodiversity or one with a low level of biodiversity? Explain your answer.
Q4) What is biodiversity?
A) the measurement of individuals in a particular population
B) diversity that only refers to coloration of fur, feathers, and skin
C) the variety of all living and nonliving things on Earth
D) the variety of all living things on Earth
E) a field of study that focuses on humans and their interactions with the environment
Q5) The number of unique species _________ with isolation.
A) increases
B) decreases
Q6) The population of "fast food potatoes" would lack what kind of diversity: genetic, species, or ecological? Please explain your answer. Page 18
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a
Forest
Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) What is true in debt-for-nature swaps?
A) The wealthy nation's debt is forgiven by donating money to conservation efforts.
B) In exchange for land rights in protected areas, wealthy nations forgive part of a developing nation's debt.
C) Wealthy nations forgive a part of a developing nation's debt if that nation promises to pay a percentage of any ecotourism profit with the wealthy nations.
D) Part of a developing nation's debt is forgiven by wealthy nations if they promise to protect natural areas in their country.
E) Part of a developing nation's debt is forgiven by wealthy nations if they promise to give the wealthy nation exclusive rights to vacation in protected areas.
Q2) Which of the following is classified as a protected area?
A) wilderness area
B) national park
C) nature preserve
D) wildlife refuge
E) all of these answers
Q3) In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive?
Page 20
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Chapter 14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap:
a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) When treatment marshes are used by sewage treatment facilities to treat wastewater, the treatment marsh is acting as a form of ____________ treatment.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) potable
E) clarifier
Q2) Which of the following is the closest to the World Health Organization's estimates for those without access to clean water?
A) 10%
B) 18%
C) 33%
D) 53%
E) none of these answers
Q3) What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?
Q4) Refer to Infographic 14.2. Explain how salty ocean water can be recycled to become usable freshwater.
Q6) Refer to Table 14.1. Explain how using less energy saves water. Page 21
Q5) Why are two sets of marshes used in the Arcata wetland sewage treatment system?
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Chapter 15:
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) What do healthy riparian areas provide?
A) a quick path for water to enter the river or lake
B) filtration of runoff water before it enters the river or lake
C) excellent surfing conditions
D) optimal areas for industrial construction
E) increased hypoxic conditions
Q2) Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.
Q3) Which is an example of a point source pollution source?
A) farm water runoff
B) a ruptured sewer pipe
C) acid rain
D) sediment pollution
E) none of the above
Q4) Which characteristic is true of all water pollution?
A) chemical contaminants cause all water pollution.
B) there are no organic substances that cause water pollution.
C) all water pollution degrades the quality of water.
D) water pollution is always caused by humans.
E) water pollution is always caused by a local source.
Q5) Why should we care about water pollution?
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Chapter
Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) __________ is the driving force behind the Green Revolution 2.0, or gene revolution.
A) Cross pollination
B) Cross breeding
C) Genetic engineering
D) Organic farming
E) Sustainable farming
Q2) Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?
Q3) Given what you know about industrial agriculture and the Green Revolution, why is world hunger considered a "wicked problem"?
Q4) What are some of the major concerns associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
Q5) Refer to Infographic 16.4. Use the infographic to explain step by step how a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is inserted into a plant. In your own words, describe how this happens and how a bacterial gene can be beneficial to a plant.
Q6) Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in every human on Earth being fed a life-sustaining diet.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Soil salinization occurs when:
A) salt is added to the soil as a natural insecticide.
B) too much fertilizer is used in one area.
C) animals are introduced to the fields.
D) water brought to the fields through irrigation evaporates.
E) not enough variety of crops are planted in one area.
Q2) All of the following are considered sustainable farming techniques EXCEPT _______.
A) reduced tillage
B) crop rotation
C) strip cropping
D) heavy pesticide use
E) terrace farming
Q3) What are monocultures and concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs)?
Describe pros and cons of each in industrialized agriculture.
Q4) Refer to Infographic 17.3. Describe how application of chemical pesticides encourages the emergence of pesticide-resistant pest populations.
Q5) Refer to Infographic 17.6. Which methods increase soil fertility, and why?
Q6) What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control? Page 25
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Chapter 18: Coal- Bringing Down the Mountain: in the
Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) __________________ is removing dirt and rock that overlays a mineral deposit close to the surface in order to access that deposit.
A) Subsurface mining
B) Surface mining
C) Fracking
D) Deep mining
E) Hydraulic mining
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with surface mining?
A) safer
B) greater damage to ecosystem
C) more alteration to landscape
D) greater expense
E) easier and simpler
Q3) Coal mining production is up in the United States but coal mining jobs are on the decline. Why are there fewer coal mining jobs today than 50 years ago?
Q4) What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?
Q5) Even though coal is produced by natural processes of the Earth, why is it classified as a "nonrenewable resource'?
Q6) Discuss how mountaintop removal can affect stream quality.
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Chapter 19: Oil and Natural Gas- the Bakken Oil Boom: Is
Next Big Fuel Source Our Dirtiest- Air Pollution:
Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Why are environmentalists opposed to oil and natural gas mining in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?
Q2) What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?
Q3) Refer to Infographic 19.3. The United States reached its peak oil for domestic deposits in 1970. What have we done since then?
A) increased our dependence on other countries for oil
B) reduced our demand for oil
C) found other fuel sources to use instead of oil
D) continued to search for new sources of oil in the United States
E) used up our stores of domestic oil while reducing our dependence on foreign oil
Q4) Which products from Infographic 19.5 can be made with tar sand reserves?
A) petroleum gas
B) gasoline
C) diesel oil
D) waxes
E) materials for roads
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Q5) What effect will intensive extraction of oil sands and tar sands have on the surrounding area?
Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) In 1963, the United States passed the ______, which sets a maximum amount for emissions of pollutants or the presence of pollutants in ambient air.
A) Safe Air Act
B) Safe Air Law
C) Clean Air Act
D) Clear Air Law
E) Safe and Clean Air Act
Q2) The World Health Organization estimates that more than _______ people die prematurely each year as a result of exposure to air pollution.
A) 500,000
B) 1 million
C) 4 million
D) 8 million
E) 15 million
Q3) Go to the EPA's Air Quality Index (http://www.airnow.gov/) Look at the air quality for the area in which you live (both current and archived). Does any of this information surprise you? Now, research an area that you think would have a high level of air pollution and one that you think would have a low level. Do the results surprise you?
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Deliberately thinning out paper birches in an effort to cultivate more oaks and white pines in Minnesota in light of massive paper birch die-offs is an example of
A) resistance forestry
B) a poor forestry technique
C) facilitation
D) command and control forestry
E) none of these answers
Q2) Which of the following sources are NOT used to reconstruct past climate?
A) ice cores
B) sediment cores
C) tree rings
D) coral reef growth layers
E) All of these sources are used.
Q3) Based on computer modeling of climate change, the current increase in temperatures can be attributed to natural causes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In terms of temperature, what recent global trends have been observed?
Q5) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.
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Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Where are spent fuel rods currently stored?
A) at long-term storage sites
B) in steel-lined pools
C) in Yucca Mountain, Nevada
D) underground in emptied magma chambers
E) in developing countries
Q2) High cancer rates are observed in workers who mine U-235 because U-235 naturally decays into ________________.
A) radon
B) mercury
C) lead
D) carbon dioxide
E) carbon monoxide
Q3) The time it takes for half of the radioactive isotopes in a sample to decay to a new form is known as its ___________________.
A) isotope
B) radioactivity
C) radioactive half-life
D) nuclear energy
E) none of these answers
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-
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Q1) Why does a run-of-the-river hydroelectric system have less impact on aquatic systems than a giant dam?
Q2) Iceland uses geothermal energy to produce electricity and heat. Why didn't the people of Samsø choose this energy source?
A) It is very expensive to use.
B) It isn't a very efficient energy source.
C) It only works in areas close to hot zones or fault lines like Iceland is.
D) It can't be used to produce electricity.
E) It is too cold in Samsø to use geothermal energy.
Q3) Switching from incandescent bulbs to compact fluorescents (CFL) provides a twofold benefit during the summer. Why?
A) CFL bulbs use less energy.
B) Incandescent bulbs produce excess heat.
C) CFL bulbs produce excess heat.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
Q4) Why is the unit "barrels of oil equivalents" (BOE) used in examining energy patterns?
Q5) What areas are best suited for geothermal energy production, and why?
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Chapter
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Q1) What is a disadvantage of the current political lobbying system?
A) Well-financed professional lobbyists may disproportionally interfere with policy makers' judgments.
B) An individual citizen can share their opinions with policy makers.
C) It is part of a democratic government.
D) A, B, and C are all disadvantages.
E) None of these answers are disadvantages.
Q2) Explain why the United States felt the Kyoto Protocol of 1997 was unfair and therefore did not ratify it.
Q3) In a famous essay, Garrett Hardin described "the tragedy of the common," where individual self-interests lead to depletion of shared, limited resources. For example, in a public pasture, where no rules are in place to restrict the number of grazing animals, individuals will maximize their usage of the resource and the end result may be loss or destruction of the resource. What examples on Earth would qualify as "common" areas that no one person, state, or government owns or controls? How could these areas be managed to avoid environmental degradation?
Q4) Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Q5) Describe how the emissions trading policy, known as cap-and-trade, is designed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about the world's population?
A) Population growth has reached peak levels.
B) People are moving out of the cities and into rural areas.
C) People are moving out of rural areas and into the cities.
D) Equal amounts of people live in rural areas and cities.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q2) The Cross Bronx Expressway was built to accommodate urban flight, but it also brought a lot of issues. Which of the following is NOT one of those issues?
A) displacement of thousands of residents
B) unemployment due to factories
C) redlining
D) worsened commuting
E) asthma
Q3) Refer to Infographic 25.2. Discuss at least two of the benefits of urbanization to the environment.
Q4) What is a sustainable city? Explain how strategies such as infill development, urban growth boundaries, and mixed land use enable a city to become sustainable.
Q5) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
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Chapter 26: Counterfeit Cooling: in
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Q1) Use Infographic 26.2 to describe how minerals are created.
Q2) Describe the environmental disaster that occurred at Mountain Pass between 1984 and 1994.
Q3) A(n) __________ is a pure chemical substance made up of one type of atom.
A) deposit
B) compound
C) element
D) ore
E) rock
Q4) Which mining technique is best used when the top of a fairly deep ore deposit is found close to the surface?
A) placer mining
B) subsurface mining
C) strip mining
D) open-pit mining
E) mountaintop removal
Q5) In addition to the waste produced by each of the steps outlined in Infographic 26.5 for mining rare earth minerals, what other environmental problems are often caused by large industrial mines?
Q6) Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits. Page 36
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) You have been employed by a seed company to genetically modify a high-yielding wheat variety so it is resistant to the most common types of wheat diseases. Why and how could grasslands be important in your research?
Q2) Refer to Infographic 27.4. Which soil layer contains the most decaying material and living organisms?
A) B horizon
B) A horizon
C) R horizon
D) C horizon
E) D horizon
Q3) Designing a process, such as grazing, so that it occurs in a way that is similar to how it happens in nature is known as ______________.
A) conservation
B) biomimicry
C) environmentalism
D) ecology
E) none of these answers
Q4) Why is "planned grazing" considered an approach based on biomimicry?
Q5) What are some of the natural and human threats that grasslands currently face?
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) If a particular species of vine required sunlight and a moderate level of temperature and humidity to survive, which forest layer would it most likely be found in?
A) emergent layer
B) canopy
C) understory
D) forest floor
E) all of these answers
Q2) What is the difference between the mandate of maximum sustainable yield (MSY) and the Forest Service's new approach, Forest Ecosystem Management (FEM)?
Q3) Total global deforestation is approximately ____________ hectares per year.
A) 2.3 million
B) 5.2 million
C) 10.2 million
D) 20.8 million
E) 50.1 million
Q4) You have been given the task of convincing a country to maintain its forests instead of converting them into large farms. What information would you present in your argument for keeping the forests?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) A small change of 0.1 in pH for an ocean ecosystem will not have a large effect on the level of biodiversity found in that ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Infographic 29.6. What does the white area on this coral indicate? Discuss the possible causes and the ecological impact of this phenomenon.
Q3) What are invasive species? Discuss the possible causes and the ecological impact of this threat to ocean ecosystems using the lionfish as an example.
Q4) Which factor in the ocean is key in determining environmental conditions?
A) space
B) depth
C) predators
D) pressure
E) biota
Q5) Refer to Infographic 29.1. Carbon dioxide emissions have reduced the ocean's pH by about 0.1. Why is this acidification of the ocean a problem?
Q6) What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?
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Chapter 30: Rare Earth Elements: a Bevy of Unfamiliar
Minerals Are Crucial for Our Everyday
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Q1) Your friend refers to herself as a "meat and potatoes" kind of girl. That was the way she was raised. How could you describe to her the benefits to both the environment and to her personal health of a more plant-based diet with reduced meat consumption?
Q2) In terms of energy inputs required for raising beef, compare the industrial model, where cattle are fed grains, with a "grass-fed" model, where animals graze on pastureland. When considering agricultural policy, which method is more sustainable?
Q3) According to Infographic 30.2, in 2005 China's annual per capita meat consumption was:
A) 5000 kilograms/year.
B) 125 kilograms/year.
C) 60 kilograms/year.
D) 20 kilograms/year.
E) The information cannot be determined from this infographic.
Q4) List several reasons beef-industry representatives would argue for industrial-scale production of beef in Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations (CAFOs), and then list several objections raised by critics of this industrial model.
Q5) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.
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Chapter
and Grassland Resources
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Q1) The Marine Stewardship Council defines a sustainable fishery as one that ensures that __________________.
A) fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels
B) the ecosystem is fully functional
C) fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity
D) A, B, and C
E) only A and C
Q2) Overfishing decimated the cod fisheries in North America. How can this information be used to educate other North American fisheries to prevent the same thing from happening?
Q3) Fisheries have historically harvested apex predators and fish from high trophic levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the major problems with the aquaculture of fish is convincing the public that farm-raised fish taste as good as wild caught.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to
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Q1) _____________ is a term used to explain a biofuel disadvantage that reduces the contributions made from forests and grasslands to ecosystem services.
A) Overhauling
B) Overharvesting
C) Hyper-producing
D) Overgrowing
E) None of these answers
Q2) What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?
Q3) Which form(s) of biomass is(are) burned directly for energy?
A) dried manure
B) restaurant fry grease
C) firewood
D) A and C
E) B and C
Q4) Which of the following is a way to improve energy efficiency of vehicles?
A) construction with lighter materials
B) more aerodynamic shapes
C) incorporation of hybrid technologies
D) more energy-efficient engines
E) all of these answers
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