
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Environmental Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the interactions between humans and the natural world, focusing on understanding environmental processes, the impact of human activities on ecosystems, and the development of solutions to environmental challenges. This course examines topics such as ecosystem dynamics, biodiversity, pollution, resource management, and sustainability, emphasizing the scientific principles and methods used to assess environmental problems. Students will learn to critically evaluate environmental issues, analyze data, and propose sustainable practices to promote the health of both the planet and society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Environmental Geology 5th Edition by KELLER
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792 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is average residence time?
A)the average time required for the total stock of a material to be cycled through a system
B)the average time that a human population can stay in an area before environmental conditions force them to move
C)the average time required for an open system to convert to a closed system
D)the average time for a system to run out of energy
Answer: A
Q2) Because human population is becoming quite large, the doubling time for population has decreased.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A closed system is not amenable to scientific scrutiny.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The principle of ________ states that one action leads to subsequent actions in linked systems.
Answer: environmental unity

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Q1) S-waves accelerate as they enter the outer core.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The rocks of the core consist mostly of ________.
Answer: iron
Q3) Deep (>200 km) earthquakes can only be found at a convergent boundary.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) At convergent plate boundaries
A)the plate of higher density subducts into the mantle
B)the plate of lower density subducts into the mantle
C)new oceanic crust is created
D)magnetic stripes are generated in oceanic rocks
Answer: B
Q5) Convergence of plates can cause ________ forces that build mountain ranges. Answer: compressive
Q6) The ________ separates the mantle and the crust.
Answer: Moho
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Q1) Native elements minerals consist of a variety of common elements bonded together by metallic bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The law of ________ states that a sedimentary rocks accumulate in an untilted geometry.
Answer: original horizontality
Q3) Nonfoliated metamorphic rocks are less likely to cause a landslide than are foliated metamorphic rocks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Unconformities represent
A)a gap in the geologic record
B)a time when the rock sequence was below sea level
C)a period of igneous intrusion
D)an example of the principle of superposition
Answer: A
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Q1) ________ is the study of controls over the distribution and abundance of living things.
Q2) A volcano that erupts with frequent, moderate eruptions is more likely to increase biodiversity than is a volcano that erupts with major eruptions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Introduction of a(n) ________ plant species reduced biodiversity of small dunes at the University of California, Santa Barbara.
Q4) A(n) ________ species has an effect on its ecological community disproportionate to its abundance.
Q5) The dominant processes in an ecosystem are
A)life and death
B)damage and restoration
C)energy flows and chemical cycles
D)interactions of biota and geologic environment
Q6) Disturbance in an ecosystem can decrease biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Wolves and sea otters are examples of ________ species.
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Q1) The magnitude and frequency of a natural hazard are typically inversely related.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Volcanic eruptions are one of the few natural hazards that have no benefit to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Natural hazards are ________ events; therefore, an examination of their history provides important clues.
Q4) How are the magnitude and frequency of natural hazard events typically related?
A)inversely related
B)directly related
C)unrelated
D)correlated
Q5) Population increase is important because it buffers the impacts of hazardous event.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ of an event is the amount of energy released.
Q7) A(n) ________ is a disaster from which recovery is long and involved.
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Q1) A(n) ________ fault is a type of reverse fault with a gentle angle of dip.
Q2) Seismic risk maps are useful tools for short-term earthquake prediction. A)True B)False
Q3) Tectonic creep is the major cause of earthquakes in coastal California. A)True B)False
Q4) The ________ magnitude is determined from the amplitude of waves recorded on seismograms.
Q5) The New Madrid and Charleston earthquakes were ________ earthquakes.
Q6) The process of ________ releases elastic strain during and after an earthquake.
Q7) Emission of ________ gas is an occasional earthquake precursor.
Q8) ________ involves the study of past earthquake history from trenches along faults.
Q9) All earthquakes in the United States occur at plate boundaries. A)True B)False
Q10) A(n) ________ is an area along an active fault zone that is likely to produce large earthquakes, but has not done so recently.
Q11) A 2010 earthquake in ________ caused hundreds of thousands of deaths. Page 8
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Q1) The first step in producing a timely warning of a tsunami is
A)detection of a possible tsunami-producing earthquake
B)detection of a tsunami using a tsunameter
C)closely watching tidal gauges
D)calculation of ocean travel times
Q2) The 2004 tsunami was generated by a(n)
A)volcanic eruption
B)submarine landslide
C)earthquake
D)meteorite impact
Q3) The tsunami warning system in the region of the 2004 tsunami
A)failed
B)did not exist
C)saved many lives
D)gave inaccurate information
Q4) Given their great speed, it is impossible to warn of a tsunami before it strikes land.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The 1998 tsunami in Papua New Guinea was generated by a submarine ________.
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Q1) Tens of thousands of people were killed in the 1991 Pinatubo eruption because of a lack of prediction of the eruption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ are dangerous, hot masses of ash and gas that travel down the flanks of a volcano.
Q3) The 1991 eruption of Mt. Pinatubo cooled the Earth's climate the following year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do composite volcanoes consist of alternating lava and pyroclastic layers?
A)Composite cones are created by lava composition alternating between basalt and rhyolite.
B)Composite cones typically are interlayered with lava flows from nearby shield volcanoes.
C)Composite cones are created by a mixture of explosive activity and lava flows.
D)The lavas in composite cones are typically rhyolitic in composition.
Q5) ________ activity beneath a volcano is an indication of moving magma.
Q6) ________ is the primary human adjustment to volcanic activity.
Q7) The eruption of Mt. ________ in 1991 killed several tens of people with pyroclastic flows.
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Q1) What is the best description of the "10-year flood"?
A)a flood that can occur only once every 10 years
B)a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year
C)a flood that occurred within the last 10 years
D)a flood that lasts for approximately 10 years
Q2) The ________ is the period of time in which a flood of given magnitude is expected.
Q3) A faster-moving stream has greater competence than a slow-moving stream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For the same amount of discharge, a narrow, shallow channel will have a higher water velocity than will a wide, deep channel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The principal objective of channelization is to control floods.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The region drained by a single river or river system is the ________.
Q7) ________ are shallow portions of a meandering stream, in which the water is typically fast-moving at low flows.
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Q1) Why is drainage control sometimes an effective method of landslide control?
A)it reduces the amount of water in the hillslope materials
B)it reduces the growth of vegetation
C)it reduces the thickness of the slide mass
D)it reduces the permeability of the rocks
Q2) Why does withdrawal of fluids sometimes lead to subsidence?
A)The smaller amount of water leads to greater chemical weathering.
B)The water holds subsurface caverns open.
C)The fluid pressure provides partial support for the overlying rock mass.
D)The water adds weight to the mass of Earth materials.
Q3) The safety factor for landslides is
A)the degree to which engineered structures have been installed to prevent landslides
B)the ratio of resisting to driving forces
C)the influence of changing climate on landslide hazards
D)the length of time that is likely to pass before a major landslide
Q4) The noncohesive downslope movement of saturated Earth materials is called a(n)
Q5) Snow avalanches tend to move down tracks called ________.
Q6) ________ are designed to provide mechanical support at the base of a slope.
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Q1) What aspect of tropical cyclones tends to cause the greatest death and destruction?
A)the intensely low atmospheric pressure in the storm's eye
B)the intense wind
C)flooding from rain, waves, and storm surge
D)lightning from thunderstorms spawned by the cyclone
Q2) Hurricane waves at sea are the greatest hazard presented by hurricanes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why does river damming sometimes contribute to coastal erosion?
A)The supply of sediment to beaches is shut off.
B)The supply of water to the longshore current is reduced.
C)The channel between jetties tends to become clogged with sand.
D)The reservoirs occasionally flood through a distributary channel, eroding the beach.
Q4) Refraction occurs because waves speed up as they reach the shallower water near the beach.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Wave normals ________ on a rocky headland.
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Q1) Why are ancient impact craters difficult to identify on Earth?
A)they typically have been eroded or infilled with younger sediments
B)impact craters on Earth are smaller than those on the Moon or Mars
C)they typically lack shock metamorphic minerals
D)there have been very few meteorite impacts on Earth
Q2) The meteorite that struck the Yucatan Peninsula was about ________ kilometers in diameter.
Q3) A meteorite is
A)a small comet
B)a large meteoroid
C)a meteoroid that has entered the Earth's atmosphere
D)a meteoroid, asteroid, or comet that strikes the Earth's surface
Q4) The elimination of a large proportion of species on Earth is called a(n) ________.
Q5) A meteoroid is
A)a small particle of an asteroid
B)a giant asteroid
C)a streak of light across the sky
D)a meteor that has struck the Earth's surface
Q6) A meteoroid that enters the Earth's atmosphere is called a(n) ________.
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Q1) ________ proposed a new philosophy of water management, based on the acknowledgement that groundwater and surface water are subject to natural variations.
Q2) Concerns over water resources focus on the lack of abundance of water on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Groundwater in karst systems is very well protected from pollution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ability of an Earth material to transmit water is called its ________.
Q5) The vadose zone differs from the groundwater zone in what way?
A)The Earth materials in the two zones are different.
B)The vadose zone is unsaturated, while the groundwater zone is saturated.
C)The vadose zone lies below the groundwater zone.
D)The vadose zone contains no water, while the groundwater zone does contain water.
Q6) Wetlands contribute to poor water quality and harm flood control.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ________ is related to the amount of water necessary to produce a product.
Q8) A(n) ________ stream gains water from an aquifer.
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Q1) Because they are of smaller scale, non-point source pollution sources are more easily regulated and controlled than are point sources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What happened to the Cuyahoga River in Cleveland in 1969?
A)massive amounts of pig farm waste was discharged
B)acid mine drainage raised the water pollution to toxic levels
C)it caught fire
D)it was declared to be in violation of the Clean Water Act
Q3) Biochemical oxygen demand reflects the amount of organic matter in water bodies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acid mine drainage is a problem because
A)it dissolves limestone
B)it represents a waste of ore that could be mined
C)it adds sulfur to coal, making it less desirable as a fuel source
D)the acid water may mobilize hazardous heavy metals
Q5) Wetlands are especially efficient at reducing ________ levels in wastewater.
Q6) Biomagnification is an especially important process in the concentration of ________ to toxic levels.
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Q1) One of the major environmental hazards of heap leach mining is the use of cyanide for gold extraction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because it is isolated from the land surface, groundwater is rarely contaminated by mining.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does the Fossil Trace Golf Course in Golden, Colorado, have to do with mineral resources?
A)Hazardous wastes from years of mining in the area were dumped there.
B)It was constructed in a reclaimed limestone-clay quarry.
C)The fossils there contain concentrations of precious metals.
D)Mineral deposits in the rocks beneath the golf course were found to contain recoverable concentrations of zinc and iron, leading to conflict between mining and recreation.
Q4) A(n) ________ is a resource that is currently available to be legally and economically mined.
Q5) Itai-Itai disease was prevalent in a river valley in the country of ________.
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Q6) ________ deposits form through the desiccation of marine basins or lakes.
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Q1) Why does acid rain result from fossil fuel consumption?
A)Fossil fuels heat the atmosphere, making rain more acidic.
B)Fossil fuel burning releases nitrogen and sulfur oxides.
C)Particulates emitted from fossil fuel burning settle in lakes and acidifies them.
D)Fossil fuel burning releases stored organic carbon.
Q2) Given current trends, oil supplies are likely to be largely consumed by the end of the 21st century.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pressurized water reactors will potentially make nuclear energy safer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nuclear ________ involves the joining of lighter elements to produce heavier ones.
Q5) The ultimate source of the energy in fossil fuels is
A)the sun
B)the Earth's internal heat
C)the energy of the plants and animals from which the fuel is formed
D)biomass
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Q1) A soil ________ is a series of soils arranged by age according to their relative profile development.
Q2) An argillic soil horizon is enriched in clay moved from the A horizon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ works with the natural topography to reduce soil erosion.
Q4) Off-road vehicles typically reduce soil erosion by compacting the soil.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is hydraulic conductivity?
A)the velocity at which water passes through soil
B)the proportion of sand and gravel in a soil
C)the number and sizes of pore spaces in a soil
D)the ability of a porous material to transmit water
Q6) The unified soil classification system, which is based on soil texture, is particularly useful for agricultural purposes.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Response to vibrations is one aspect of soil ________.
Q8) An argillic B horizon is enriched in ________ transported from the A horizon.
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Q1) The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement concerning
A)control of global sea level rise
B)reduction of CFC emissions
C)reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
D)control of pollution that causes acid rain
Q2) The ocean ________ is largely responsible for keeping northern Europe relatively warm.
Q3) Glaciers form through the compaction of leftover snow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ Warm Period coincided with a time of increased solar radiation.
Q5) Air bubbles in the Antarctic ice sheet show that
A)carbon dioxide is relatively high during cold periods
B)carbon dioxide is relatively low during cold periods
C)carbon dioxide and temperature show no relationship
D)the Industrial Revolution substantially increased air temperatures
Q6) Carbon dioxide is the dominant gas, by volume, in the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Anomalously rapid movement of glacial ice is termed ________.
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Q1) ________ in the practice of environmental law requires opposing parties to work together for mutually beneficial solutions.
Q2) Most of the carbon monoxide in the atmosphere comes from
A)automobiles
B)industrial installations
C)reaction of ozone with carbon dioxide
D)natural sources
Q3) ________ is the study of poisons and their effects on people and ecosystems.
Q4) Why has integrated waste management been criticized?
A)overemphasis on recycling
B)results of waste reduction averaging less than 10%
C)goals that are incompatible with environmental protection
D)overregulation of hazardous wastes
Q5) "Superfund" sites are those that
A)have clear ownership and responsibility for contamination
B)have been abandoned by previous owners
C)have been cleaned up efficiently
D)contain contamination with organic wastes
Q6) The Roman Empire suffered from contamination of the environment by ________.
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Q7) The most commonly used natural material in sanitary landfill design is ________.