Environmental Policy and Management Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the development, implementation, and evaluation of environmental policies at local, national, and international levels. Through the examination of regulatory frameworks, policy instruments, and the roles of various stakeholders, students will gain insights into the complexities of managing natural resources and addressing contemporary environmental challenges such as climate change, pollution, and biodiversity loss. The course emphasizes practical approaches to policy analysis, the integration of scientific knowledge into decision-making, and strategies for promoting sustainable development. Case studies and real-world examples will be used to illustrate the effectiveness of different policy and management tools in achieving environmental goals.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Page 2
Chapter 1:
Literacy
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Q1) Modern fishing techniques use giant nets to harvest large numbers of fish in the short term. This may result in severely reduced populations of fish in the future. Which term best describes the above scenario?
A) time delay
B) tragedy of the commons
C) sliding reinforcer
D) extinction
E) These are all terms to describe what happens in the scenario.
Answer: A
Q2) What is carrying capacity?
A) the impact a population has on its environment
B) the resources needed to support a population in its environment
C) the population size that an area can support indefinitely
D) a constant, invariant value that represents the amount of life Earth can support
E) the amount of pollution a natural ecosystem can withstand before it begins to exhibit negative symptoms
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) Prior to Susan Solomon's experiments, the information available to NASA ozone-modeler Paul Newman led him to believe that the loss of ozone in the Antarctic spring was due to excess solar activity. What was the new information that Solomon discovered that led Newman to reject his hypothesis in favor of her polar cloud hypothesis? Is it possible that Solomon's hypothesis could be rejected in the future?
Answer: The level of ClO (chlorine monoxide) in the stratosphere measured by Solomon's team supported the hypothesis that UV-B breaks down CFCs, which in turn break down ozone molecules. All conclusions in science are tentative. The data supporting her hypothesis are strong, but new information could cause the hypothesis to be modified or even rejected.
Q2) The first step of the scientific process is a(n) __________.
A) prediction
B) hypothesis
C) experiment
D) peer review
E) observation
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
in Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) Which source is the most likely to perpetuate errors that have previously appeared?
A) primary source
B) secondary source
C) tertiary source
D) review source
E) report source
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the term for chemicals that work together in the body to produce toxic effects greater than the sum of their individual effects would predict?
A) additive
B) synergistic
C) antagonistic
D) disruptive
E) agonistic
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a reason why the global growth rate surged as a result of the Industrial Revolution in the 1700s?
A) greater use of vaccines
B) access to cleaner water
C) improved nutrition
D) improvements to the educational system
E) All of the above contributed to the surging growth rate.
Q2) The growth rate of a population is affected by which of the following?
A) crude birth rate
B) crude death rate
C) emigration
D) immigration
E) All of the above affect the growth rate.
Q3) You have been assigned the task of helping a developing country transition from demographic stage 2 (industrializing) to demographic stage 3 (mature industrial). How would you accomplish this task?
Q4) What is total fertility rate (TFR)? How do programs such as social security, pension plans, and Medicare affect TFR?
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Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 5.6. In order of highest impact to lowest impact, what causes deaths in high-income countries?
A) lung cancer > stroke > breast cancer > diabetes
B) diabetes > lung infections > COPD > heart attack
C) stroke > colon cancer > hypertension > breast cancer
D) heart attack > stroke > COPD > Alzheimer's disease
E) colon cancer > diabetes > hypertension > lung infections
Q2) Infectious diseases are a type of ______.
A) physical hazard
B) chemical hazard
C) biological hazard
D) human-caused hazard
E) Infectious diseases are not hazardous.
Q3) Which prevention method(s) would be most effective in the eradication of Guinea worm disease?
A) reducing air pollution
B) providing access to clean water
C) ceasing all war
D) using solar stoves for cooking
Page 7
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to Wall, Cradle to Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) A(n) ________ for a country is the amount of land needed to provide its resources and assimilate its waste.
A) closed-loop system
B) external cost
C) ecological footprint
D) ecolabel
E) ecosystem service
Q2) Of the next billion people added to Earth, over 99% will be born in less developed, poorer parts of the world. Is it fair to say that the overall impact of humans on the environment is mostly the fault of developing countries? Explain.
Q3) One of the limitations of mainstream economics is that it does not take into account ___________ costs when a price is assigned to a product or service.
A) safety
B) internal
C) external
D) marginal
E) fringe
Q4) Discuss how the ecosystem service of pollination benefits humans.
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Chapter 7: Managing Solid Waste- a Plastic Surf: Are the Oceans Teeming
With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) In the United States, 54% of all garbage is categorized as ___________ waste.
A) recycled paper
B) mining
C) municipal paper
D) agricultural and industrial
E) municipal metal
Q2) A soup company wants to reduce the waste associated with its soup packaging. Which option among the ones listed below would help it to accomplish this goal?
A) Make the soup out of organically grown vegetables.
B) Encourage consumers to burn the soup cans as a source of heat.
C) Package the soup in reusable glass containers.
D) Encourage the location of landfills in communities near the factory so that the surplus soup ingredients and packaging materials can be landfilled locally.
E) Package the soup in smaller cans.
Q3) It has been shown that a bottle deposit, a center for returning and recycling bottles and cans, significantly reduces the amount of plastic or glass bottles and aluminum cans that end up in a landfill. Not all states have a bottle deposit. What would be the benefits of having a bottle deposit in all states?
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Describe the two main goals of the Biosphere 2 experiment. Was the experiment a success or a failure?
Q2) What is a biome? What are the major factors that distinguish one biome from another?
Q3) Why do ecologists say that Earth is a closed system for matter?
A) They say this because there are no new inputs of matter.
B) They say this because there is no net loss of matter.
C) They say this because matter cycles in and out of organisms in ecosystems.
D) They say this because matter stays in the biosphere.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Refer to Infographic 8.5. Describe ways that scientists attempted to design Biosphere 2 to minimize the effects of limiting factors and help keep organisms within their zone of optimum range.
Q5) The biome that contains the least amount of moisture is a __________.
A) savanna
B) temperate grassland
C) mountain
D) temperate forest
E) tropical scrub
Page 11
Q6) If no new matter enters the system, how can Earth continue to exist?
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) How might the fact that a threatened prairie plant you are in charge of managing is an r-selected species influence the way you manage the population?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of r-selected species?
A) long life
B) early maturity
C) rapid growth of an individual
D) many, small offspring
E) niche generalists
Q3) Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?
Q4) Several decades ago, around 24 rabbits were introduced into the wild of Australia, a country with no native rabbit population, mild winters, and large rabbit-friendly food supplies. Where do you think the rabbit population is today, and was it a big deal that only 24 rabbits were released?
Q5) Which species' offspring are more likely to survive?
A) r-selected species
B) K-selected species
C) Both are likely to survive.
D) Neither is likely to survive.
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Q6) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?
Everglades Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) The cowbird is a nest parasite that lays its eggs in the nests of other species in the trees along the boundaries of forests and meadows. Nest parasitism (the number of nests with cowbird eggs) declines dramatically as you move deeper into the forest. Cowbirds would be considered a ________________.
A) core species
B) keystone species
C) edge species
D) indicator species
E) ecological zone species
Q2) In a study comparing the trophic interactions in two streams, you discover that a Florida stream has 12 different fish species at the secondary consumer level, while an Ohio stream has only six. Compared to the Ohio stream, you hypothesize that the Florida stream shows________________.
A) greater resilience
B) greater ecological complexity
C) greater connectivity in the food web
D) a higher number of trophic levels
E) all of the above
Q3) Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems?
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) A species is considered _______ to an area if it is not found anywhere else on Earth.
A) extinct
B) extirpated
C) exiled
D) endemic
E) elected
Q2) When populations diverge, like that of the Arctic fox and the red fox,
______________.
A) speciation may occur
B) individuals will mate with members of another species
C) genetic drift must occur
D) the change must have been caused by human activities
E) species diversity decreases
Q3) You have noticed in your greenhouse that your plants are covered by a pest, so you decide to apply a chemical pesticide. The first time you spray the pesticide, 90% of the pests are eliminated, but you have noticed that subsequent spraying of the pesticide has resulted in a smaller reduction of the pest population. What is happening in the pest population?
Q4) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
Page 15
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Chapter 12: Biodiversity- Palm Planet:
Production of a
Household Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) Which population would be the most likely to survive a disturbance in their ecosystem?
A) one with high genetic diversity
B) one with low genetic diversity
C) one with no genetic diversity
Q2) Which groupings of organisms are ordered most diverse to least diverse?
A) plants > fungi > bacteria > insects > vertebrates
B) insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates > bacteria
C) fungi > insects > bacteria > vertebrates > plants
D) insects > vertebrates > plants > fungi > bacteria
E) bacteria > insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates
Q3) Biodiversity has many benefits, which includes:
A) the regulation of ecosystems.
B) the selection of particular species to survive.
C) the ability to predict which species will go extinct in an ecosystem.
D) the propagation of disease-carrying organisms.
E) none of the above.
Page 16
Q4) If an extirpated species is only extinct in one particular location, is this important or does the fact that it still exists in other places make the extinction not a big deal?
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) Which ecosystem would yield the greatest benefit from ecosystem conservation efforts?
A) an ecosystem with high biodiversity
B) an ecosystem with low biodiversity
C) Ecosystem conservation efforts would benefit both ecosystems equally.
Q2) The overall goal of conservation efforts is to:
A) increase and maintain Earth's biodiversity.
B) protect species on the Red List.
C) increase the ecotourism industry.
D) make developing countries more financially stable.
E) only protect land ecosystems and not ocean ecosystems.
Q3) What information can be obtained through DNA fingerprinting, and why is it important that DNA fingerprinting be done using microsatellite DNA regions? What is special about these regions?
Q4) Refer to Table 13.2. Which conservation method do you think would benefit an endangered species whose habitat is being destroyed?
Page 17
Q5) Why do you think single-species conservation efforts have focused on cute and cuddly endangered species? What are the pros and cons to such an approach?
Q6) In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive?
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Chapter 14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap: a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method to -
Supply Drinking Water
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Q1) What is the most likely reason that more communities do not use the potable water stored in confined aquifers?
A) It is usually contaminated with salt water.
B) It is impossible to access.
C) Bacteria are not filtered out of this water.
D) It is too expensive to reach and pump out.
E) Most aquifers are unconfined.
Q2) What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?
Q3) What is one important quality of an aquifer?
A) Bacteria and other contaminants are filtered out of the water by rocks and soil.
B) The water supply is replenished through infiltration of rain and snowmelt.
C) It is a source of potable water.
D) Individual homes can access the water supply by digging wells into the aquifer.
E) All of these answers are important qualities of aquifers.
Q4) One of the ways wastewater in Orange County is treated is by using reverse osmosis, UV light, and hydrogen peroxide. What does each process do in the treatment of wastewater?
Q5) Why is deforestation a problem in regards to the Earth's freshwater supply?
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) How can you explain to your neighbor that her perfectly manicured, monocultural, heavily fertilized lawn may be contributing to the destruction of ecosystems in the Gulf of Mexico?
Q2) Which crop releases the most nitrogen into the soil?
A) oats
B) corn
C) alfalfa
D) rye
E) Plants do not release nitrogen into the soil.
Q3) The difference between point source and nonpoint source pollution is that:
A) point source pollution sources can be identified while nonpoint source pollution sources are more obscure.
B) point source pollution sources can always be remedied.
C) nonpoint source pollution is due to improper chemical storage.
D) nonpoint source pollution is located next to the body of contaminated water.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q4) Choose three strategies from the Gulf of Mexico Regional Ecosystem Restoration plan in Infographic 15.7. Explain what the goals of those strategies are and, if implemented, how the strategies will help reach those goals.
Page 20
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Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) What is the process of microfertilization?
A) the specific fertilization of microbes that provide nutrients to growing plants
B) the application of a small amount of fertilizer to the area directly around the seed
C) the use of only natural, non-synthetic fertilizers
D) the intentional overuse of fertilizer to prepare the soil for next year's planting
E) the use of GM organic matter that enhances plant growth
Q2) What caused the lack of food and resulting riots in 2008?
A) extreme weather events
B) the rising cost of oil
C) the growing demand for meat
D) increased production of biofuels
E) all of these answers likely contributed, with other factors as well
Q3) Low-tech farming methods are used on African farms because GMOs and other industrial agriculture techniques would not work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is the decreased biodiversity of high-yield varieties of crops a concern?
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Characteristic features of concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) include which of the following?
A) Such operations only raise beef cattle.
B) They use a lot of land relative to the number of animals raised.
C) The manure is difficult to collect as there are so many animals in a small space.
D) Animals are generally not permitted to roam free.
E) They have no net negative environmental impact.
Q2) ________ is a term that describes misleading claims about the healthiness of organic foods.
A) Greenwashing
B) Organic washing
C) Organic inaccuracy
D) Transgenic
E) Greencarding
Q3) As a consumer, you need to be wary of purported health claims made on organically grown foods. How could such claims be validated?
Q4) Refer to Infographic 17.2. How do industrial agricultural methods lead to eutrophication and "dead zones"?
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Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) The negatives involved in removing contaminants from coal before using it are
A) the hazardous waste created and the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel
B) the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel and the energy needed to complete the process lowers the EROEI
C) the hazardous waste created and the energy needed to complete the process lowers the EROEI
D) the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel and the inefficiency of the process
E) the amount of water needed and the energy needed to complete the process lower the EROEI
Q2) Which of the following choices has the highest energy return on energy investment ratio?
A) coal
B) oil
C) nuclear energy
D) natural gas
E) wind
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23
Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a reason why our energy supplies may become unreliable or unaffordable?
A) dwindling supplies
B) competition from other countries
C) dependence on energy exports
D) increasing demand
E) a cartel or monopoly that increases prices
Q2) Which of the following statements about tar sands is NOT true?
A) They trap heavy, black oil called bitumen.
B) Tar sands mining is more efficient than harvesting conventional sources of oil.
C) Tar sands can be mined and processed to produce a substitute for petroleum.
D) Canada has the world's largest bitumen reservoir, but much of it is trapped in tar sands.
E) All of these answers are not true.
Q3) What are the key environmental problems associated with the fracking methods for natural gas recovery?
Q4) What is the "Marcellus Shale"?
Page 24
Q5) What would be the consequence of using up all available oil for gasoline and transport uses?
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) Sources of sulfur dioxide (SO ) air pollution include __________.
A) point sources
B) nonpoint sources
C) volcanoes
D) coal-burning power plants
E) all of these answers
Q2) Acid deposition results from burning fossil fuels that release ___________ that react in the atmosphere to form acids that fall back to Earth as acid rain, snow, and fog.
A) sulfur and nitrogen oxides
B) lead and mercury
C) carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides
D) VOC and sulfur oxides
E) lead and VOC
Q3) Which statement about VOCs is FALSE?
A) VOC stands for volatile organic compound.
B) VOCs readily evaporate and dissolve in water.
C) VOCs are released by bogs.
D) The main outdoor source of VOCs is fossil fuel combustion.
E) All of these answers are false.
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) The cause of the vast majority of climate change can be attributed to:
A) volcanoes.
B) the burning of fossil fuels.
C) cattle farming.
D) crop production.
E) forest fires.
Q2) Efforts intended to minimize the extent or impact of climate change are referred to as ___________.
A) adaptation
B) facilitation
C) mitigation
D) stabilization
E) none of these answers
Q3) Which of the following sources are NOT used to reconstruct past climate?
A) ice cores
B) sediment cores
C) tree rings
D) coral reef growth layers
E) All of these sources are used.
Q4) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops. Page 27
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Chapter 22: Nuclear Power - the Future of Fukushima: Can
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Radioactive tailings are created in which step of the nuclear fuel production?
A) mining the ore
B) milling
C) enrichment
D) fuel production
E) decommissioning of the nuclear plant
Q2) What are the similarities and differences between uranium-238 and uranium-235?
Q3) Refer to Infographic 22.6. Three types of radiation are given off by radioactive isotopes. Name each one, describe their penetration ability, and explain if and how they are hazardous to humans.
Q4) Refer to Infographic 22.4. Use the infographic to explain how a nuclear reaction happens.
Q5) The heat released in a nuclear chain reaction is ___________________ times more than what is released by burning coal or oil and is used to turn turbines that generate electricity.
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) 10 million
D) 100 million
E) 1 billion
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-
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Q1) Why is the unit "barrels of oil equivalents" (BOE) used in examining energy patterns?
Q2) What is "Energy Star?"
A) an energy-efficiency rating system for automobiles
B) an energy-efficiency rating system for appliances
C) an energy-efficiency rating system for light bulbs
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q3) In 2013, how much energy used by the human population came from renewable resources?
A) 3%
B) 9%
C) 16%
D) 25%
E) 40%
Q4) What is needed in order for a community like Samsø to switch to a greener lifestyle?
Q5) How does insulating pipes, using an on-demand water heater, and taking shorter showers save energy?
Q6) What areas are best suited for geothermal energy production, and why? Page 30
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Chapter
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Q1) In the United States, government officials selected to regulate an industry are often chosen from a pool of industry executives because they possess detailed knowledge of that industry that other candidates lack and therefore can best regulate it. What unintended consequences might this arrangement result in?
Q2) Which of the following influences U.S. environmental policy decision making?
A) industry lobbyists
B) science
C) congressional committees
D) A, B, and C
E) only B and C
Q3) What is a disadvantage of the current political lobbying system?
A) Well-financed professional lobbyists may disproportionally interfere with policy makers' judgments.
B) An individual citizen can share their opinions with policy makers.
C) It is part of a democratic government.
D) A, B, and C are all disadvantages.
E) None of these answers are disadvantages.
Q4) Describe several characteristics of an effective policy at the international level.
Page 32
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 25.2. Discuss at least two of the benefits of urbanization to the environment.
Q2) Densely populated regions that include cities and the suburbs that surround them are known as _________________.
A) urban areas
B) sprawl zones
C) core areas
D) exurbs
E) none of these answers
Q3) Homes that are built father away from the urban centers of cities are normally _______________ and _____________ energy efficient than those found in urban centers.
A) smaller; less
B) smaller; more
C) larger, less
D) larger; more
E) They're about the same as homes built in cities.
Q4) What is suburban sprawl, and what environmental problems does it generate?
Describe three potential problems, and briefly discuss the implications of these problems for human society.
Page 33
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Q1) What are some problems with the current system in place for recycling e-waste? How could the system be improved?
Q2) Replacement of copper wiring with fiber-optic cables is an example of: A) redesign.
B) recycling.
C) reusing.
D) refusing.
E) reducing.
Q3) List the main steps generally involved in the extraction of rare earth minerals from ore.
Q4) Which of the following correctly lists the layers of Earth, starting with the core?
A) lithosphere - mantle - asthenosphere
B) asthenosphere - mantle - lithosphere
C) mantle - lithosphere - asthenosphere
D) mantle - asthenosphere - lithosphere
E) lithosphere - asthenosphere - mantle
Q5) What characterizes a metal? List some examples of everyday products that contain metals.
Q6) Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) Which of the following is a consequence of overgrazing in grasslands?
A) compaction of soil
B) reduction in water penetration
C) reduction in seed germination
D) reduced seedling growth
E) all of these answers
Q2) Which of the following statements are correct?
A) Grasslands are not found in Antarctica.
B) Grasslands are found in every continent.
C) Grasslands vary based on climate.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
Q3) The animal farming technique known as __________________ allows animals to graze on one small section of a pasture for a few days before being moved to another section for grazing.
A) rotational grazing
B) terracing
C) planned grazing
D) numerical limits grazing
E) none of these answers
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) Many species of trees found in the canopy and emergent layer of forests have seeds and saplings that are "shade adapted." Why do you think this is?
A) The seeds need a low temperature to germinate and grow.
B) The seeds and saplings will be in the shade for much of their early life because the parent trees in the upper layers of the forest will block a portion of sunlight.
C) There is a higher level of humidity in the shade, which the saplings need to survive.
D) In order for animals to find and eat the seeds, a necessary step in the trees' germination cycle, they must be on the forest floor.
E) Canopy and emergent-layer trees do not produce shade-adapted saplings.
Q2) The dependence on charcoal as an energy source in Haiti is referred to as a "vicious cycle" with regard to environmental degradation. Why?
Q3) What is the difference between the mandate of maximum sustainable yield (MSY) and the Forest Service's new approach, Forest Ecosystem Management (FEM)?
Q4) Refer to Infographic 28.2. What microclimate exists in the emergent tree layer, and how would this affect the species dwelling there?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) If amounts of sunlight and depth are equal, an ocean ecosystem that is further from the mainland will have a higher level of biodiversity than an ecosystem closer to the mainland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Coral bleaching is:
A) when the sun bleaches the pigment of the coral and turns it white.
B) when a chemical spill causes the coral to die and the skeleton, which is white, to show through.
C) when coral expel the zooxanthellae from their cells in response to stress.
D) when coral turns white due to lowering water temperatures.
E) when another organism colonizes the coral and turns it white.
Q3) What are the causes of algal blooms, and how do algal blooms affect coral reefs?
Q4) When lionfish invade a coral reef, the survival rate of native fish can decline by as much as ______.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) 80%
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Chapter
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Q1) List several reasons beef-industry representatives would argue for industrial-scale production of beef in Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations (CAFOs), and then list several objections raised by critics of this industrial model.
Q2) Which of the following is a benefit of intense mechanized feedlot farming relative to traditional open-pasture farms?
A) Animals receive a highly diverse food supply.
B) Manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer.
C) The amount of land required is minimized.
D) A, B, and C are correct.
E) Only choices B and C are correct.
Q3) The USDA only acknowledges free-range:
A) beef
B) pork.
C) poultry.
D) salmon.
E) None of these answers are acknowledged as free-range by the USDA.
Q4) Do sustainable animal rearing methods address the disadvantages of CAFOs?
Q5) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.
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Chapter
and Grassland Resources
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Q1) Recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) are best suited in __________.
A) urban centers of wealthy countries, as locations close to larger markets could help make RAS operations more likely to be economically viable
B) water-poor regions, as RAS operations have a small water footprint since they use only a limited amount of freshwater
C) tropical regions, as the breeding cycle of fish is best suited to the seasons in these regions
D) poor countries, as the start-up costs for RAS are low, and because they create a lot of jobs
E) rural areas with access to a lot of open space, as RAS operations have a large land footprint that is not compatible with built-up urban areas
Q2) Major issues associated with the fishing technique of bottom trawling include
A) bycatch
B) damaged seabed
C) sediment plume
D) ecosystem damage
E) all of these answers
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to Recovering the
May Be a Surprising One
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of switching from corn ethanol to cellulosic ethanol?
A) the potential to circumvent the food controversy by not occupying land that could support food crops
B) the resistance to many pests and plant diseases
C) the requirement of less fertilizer
D) the consumption of less energy for production
E) the ease of scaling up production
Q2) Which of the following is(are) predicted to generate the most oil per acre in biodiesel production?
A) algae
B) switchgrass
C) soybeans
D) rapeseed
E) oil palms
Q3) Most biofuels today are made from crops grown specifically for energy use. What are the main crops used to produce ethanol and biodiesel? What are the environmental downsides to using these crops in biofuel production?
Q4) List and describe at least three advantages and three disadvantages of biofuels.
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