Environmental Policy and Decision Making Exam Review - 2353 Verified Questions

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Environmental Policy and Decision Making Exam Review

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of the processes, frameworks, and actors involved in the creation and implementation of environmental policies at local, national, and global levels. Students will examine the scientific, economic, and ethical foundations that inform environmental decision making, as well as the roles of government agencies, NGOs, and the public. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course analyzes policy instruments, regulatory approaches, stakeholder engagement, and the challenges of balancing environmental sustainability with social and economic objectives. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking and problem-solving skills necessary for effective participation in the formulation and evaluation of environmental policy.

Recommended Textbook

Scientific American Environmental Science For A Changing World 3rd Edition by

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32 Chapters

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Susan Karr

Chapter 1: environmental Literacy and Sustainability

Lessons From a Vanished Society

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which situation BEST describes the tragedy of the commons?

A)A fisherman uses his net to catch a large quantity of fish.

B)Increasing amounts of pesticides need to be used over time to maintain the same effect on pests.

C)An oil pipeline leaks.

D)Sustainable forestry practices are applied to a plot of land in the rainforest.

E)Herders put too many sheep in a public field because they think,"If I don't use this available resource,someone else will."

Answer: E

Q2) In biomimicry,scientists use nature as a model,_____,and measure.

A)map

B)method

C)control

D)mentor

E)mean

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science

Fungal Attacker Threatens North American Bats

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Sample Questions

Q1) The disease caused by a novel fungus affecting some species of North American bats is called ____________.

A)white-nose syndrome

B)reduced torpor disease

C)chytridiomycosis

D)white-wing syndrome

E)bat hibernacula disease

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT falsifiable?

A)Car exhaust contributes to ozone depletion.

B)Iced wings of a plane contribute to some plane crashes.

C)Dogs become tired when they are hungry.

D)People should not litter because it is wrong to do so.

E)All of these are falsifiable statements.

Answer: D

Q3) Is the following a valid hypothesis? Natural disasters around the world are a result of a supernatural deity punishing humanity for our actions.

Answer: No.Predictions from the hypothesis are not testable,nor are they falsifiable.

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Chapter 3: Information Literacy and Toxicology Lead in the Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which LD50 score (dose in ppm)indicates the highest level of toxicity?

A)19

B)250

C)96

D)8

E)550

Answer: D

Q2) Carefully weighing the risks and benefits associated with any chemical is known as _______.

A)innocent until proven guilty

B)guilty until proven innocent

C)the precautionary principle

D)do no harm

E)risk assessment

Answer: E

Q3) What is a toxic substance?

Answer: A toxic substance is something that causes damage after exposure.For example,arsenic can leach into ground water and cause cancer and damage the nervous system.Asbestos,another good example,is found in old building materials and affects the lungs after long exposure.

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Chapter 4: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling Engineering

Earth

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bear eating a fish is an example of which of the following?

A)nutrient cycling

B)energy flow

C)solar radiation

D)both nutrient cycling and energy flow

E)both energy flow and solar radiation

Q2) Which is NOT an example of a terrestrial biome?

A)a temperate forest

B)an open ocean

C)a Mediterranean scrub

D)a savanna

E)a desert

Q3) Describe the two main goals of the Biosphere 2 experiment.Was the experiment a success or a failure?

Q4) In terms of the carbon cycle,how is combustion of fossil fuels different from burning biomass (wood)for fuel?

Q5) Certain plants called legumes can fix atmospheric nitrogen thanks to a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria associated with their root systems.How does this relationship benefit the plants? How can humans take advantage of this in agriculture?

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Chapter 5: Population Ecology Gray Wolves Return to Yellowstone

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Sample Questions

Q1) Population density is best defined as _____________.

A)the location and spacing of individuals with their range

B)the number of individuals per unit area

C)individuals found in groups or patches within a habitat

D)individuals spread out irregularly over an environment and with no discernable pattern

Q2) Which of the following is unlikely to be a factor in determining the minimum viable population for a specific population?

A)fire frequency

B)mating rituals

C)flocking

D)schooling behavior

E)foraging

Q3) A predator is an example of a(n)_____________.

A)density-dependent factor

B)density-independent factor

C)commensalism

D)mutualism

E)herbivore

Q4) Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?

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Chapter 6: Community Ecology the Florida Everglades: a Community in Cris

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Sample Questions

Q1) Humans drained the Everglades in the early 20th century because

A)they were seen as having no utility to humans

B)people wanted to develop cities and towns in the region

C)people thought it would prevent flooding

D)All of the answer choices are correct.

Q2) The deer mouse will eat a wide variety of plant and animal matter,including seeds,nuts,flowers,insects,and spiders.They would be considered

A)niche specialists

B)niche generalists

Q3) What was the purpose of the Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan?

A)introduce new species to the area for increased biodiversity

B)give scientists a place to test the impacts of disturbances in ecosystems

C)restore the flow of water back to the wetlands and raise water levels

D)silence environmentalists by vowing to no longer interfere with the Everglades

E)take over the U.S.sugar industry

Q4) What is a niche generalist,and what advantage do they have over a niche specialist?

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Q5) Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem?

Chapter 7: evolution and Extinction a Tropical Murder

Mystery

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Sample Questions

Q1) The bird would be considered an ____________.

A)invasive species

B)adaptation

C)endemic species

D)extinct species

Q2) The relationship between the bird and the butterflies would be described as ____________.

A)genetic drift

B)the bottleneck effect

C)stabilizing selection

D)coevolution

Q3) The most famous major extinction event that occurred on Earth was the _________ extinction,which resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.

A)Ordovician

B)K-T boundary mass

C)Devonian

D)Permian

E)Triassic

Q4) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?

Q5) Describe how a population evolves by natural selection.

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Chapter 8: Biodiversity Palm Oil Plantations Threaten

Tropical Forests

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do palm oil plantations,a lucrative business,still decrease ecosystem services of the local ecosystems?

Q2) Why might a species become endangered?

A)habitat loss

B)low genetic diversity

C)human involvement (for example,hunting,destruction of habitat)

D)habitat loss and human involvement

E)habitat loss,low genetic diversity,and human involvement

Q3) What is the MOST likely location of a biodiversity hotspot?

A)prairie

B)island

C)ocean

D)expansive forest

E)Sahara Desert

Q4) Which of the following is TRUE of isolation and extinction risk?

A)The number of unique species increases with isolation.

B)The larger the population size,the more likely a random event might exterminate the entire group.

C)Isolation increases the chance of recolonization to replace lost members.

D)Isolation increases the genetic diversity of a population.

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Chapter 9: Preserving Biodiversity a Forest Without Elephants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Conservation biology is a science whose aim is to preserve ___________. A)ecosystems

B)habitats

C)biodiversity

D)specific species

E)only endangered species

Q2) Consider the following scenario: A captive breeding program employed by several zoos has had tremendous success in increasing the number of Amazon River dolphins in captivity.The eventual goal of this effort is to release these animals back into their natural habitat,which is increasingly becoming more and more polluted.Do you think this conservation effort will save the Amazon River dolphin? Why or why not? If not,what would you do in conjunction with the breeding program?

Q3) Why would efforts to reduce armed conflict in many communities aid the preservation of endangered species?

Q4) Why are elephants killed by poachers?

A)for their tail,to make bracelets form the hair

B)for their eyes,which are thought to have medicinal powers

C)for their tusks,to make jewelry and carvings

D)All of these choices are reasons poachers kill elephants.

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Chapter 10: Human Populations the Kerala Model

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cultural and economic forces that encourage women to have more children are called __________.

A)pronatalist pressures

B)population momentum

C)total fertility rates

D)demographic transitions

Q2) The global replacement fertility rate is approximately 2.33 children per woman.Why is this value higher than the 2.1 replacement fertility rate in the United States? If the current global total fertility rate (TFR)of 2.5 were brought down to 2.33,would that be enough to allow for sustainable existence of humans on Earth? What others factors must we also consider?

Q3) What is total fertility rate (TFR)? How do programs such as Social Security,pension plans,and Medicare affect TFR?

Q4) The carrying capacity of an area depends on ___________.

A)resource availability and use

B)the growth rate of a population

C)the transition to renewable energy sources

D)the level of education of the people

E)economic level of the government

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Chapter 11: Urbanization and Sustainable Communities

Creating Green Cities

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Sample Questions

Q1) You want to find a city with an abundance of green spaces.Green spaces have benefits:

A)physically,as people can jog,bike,and play.

B)environmentally,as unpaved areas can reduce flooding and provide habitat for wildlife.

C)socially,through community pride and higher property values.

D)All of these are benefits of green spaces.

Q2) What is the key way to persuade people to support smart growth?

A)show the government how much would be saved in health care costs

B)show the benefits of the triple bottom line

C)show the benefits to hiring a new green workforce

D)All of these answer choices are correct.

Q3) The City University of New York Institute for Research on the City Environment estimates if a city is designed and built sustainably,the impact of people living in that city will be about _____ of an average American.

A)1/3

B)1/4

C)1/2

D)3/4

E)the same

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Chapter 12: Environmental Health Eradicating a Parasitic Nightmare

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Sample Questions

Q1) Environmental health is a branch of public health that focuses on health hazards in

A)only natural environments

B)only human-built environments

C)both natural and human-built environments

D)contaminated water,air,and soil

E)drinking water

Q2) Why does urbanization sometimes lead to an increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?

Q3) Why is it important to get affected community buy-in when trying to reduce environmental health hazards (or any kind of hazard,for that matter)?

Q4) In the chapter,Nabil Aziz Mikhail says that war is the one human behavior that favors Guinea worm disease (GWD)more than bathing in infested water.Why do you think that is?

Q5) What might be some reasons diarrheal disease is not one of the top 10 causes of death in high-income countries?

Q6) Why is it difficult to map cause-and-effect relationships of human hazards and disease?

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Q7) Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD)possible?

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Chapter 13: ecological Economics and Consumption Wall

to Wall, Cradle to Cradle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which country shows the largest use of forest products?

A)Canada

B)Australia

C)Singapore

D)Trinidad and Tobago

E)United States

Q2) Today,if we were to purchase a good or service at its true cost,how would the price compare to what we are accustomed to paying for the good or service?

A)The price would be lower.

B)The price would be higher.

C)The price would stay the same.

D)The price would decrease exponentially.

E)We cannot predict how the price would change.

Q3) Which category would result in the greatest economic loss if those services were destroyed?

A)ecosystem regulation and support

B)human provisions

C)cultural benefits

Q4) What are the internal and external costs associated with producing paper?

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Chapter 14: environmental Policy the World Tackles Ozone

Depletion

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?

Q2) The environmental law that regulates the amount of hazardous pollutants in the air and that contains provisions for protecting the ozone layer is the ___________.

A)National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)

B)Clean Air Act (CAA)

C)Toxic Substances Act (TOSCA)

D)Comprehensive Environmental Response,Compensation,and Liability Act (CERCLA)

E)The EPA lacks the authority to regulate air pollutants.

Q3) Where is ozone (O<sub>3</sub>)naturally broken down and formed?

A)troposphere

B)stratosphere

C)mesosphere

D)thermosphere

Q4) Many coastal areas and low-lying island nations are currently at risk from rising sea levels attributed to global climate change.How does this illustrate the need for policy at the international level?

Q5) Why is the term "ozone hole" misleading?

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Chapter 15: managing Solid Waste a Plastic Surf

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amount of solid waste produced each year by urban dwellers is expected to _______ by 2025.

A)stay the same

B)decrease

C)double

D)triple

E)quadruple

Q2) Waste is _____________.

A)anything that humans do not deem valuable to survival

B)a human term used to describe things we throw away

C)any discarded item that can be naturally degraded in the environment

D)common in natural ecosystems

E)All of these answer choices are correct.

Q3) In the experiment exposing marine copepods to either their normal diet of algae or to a diet of algae with plastic microbeads added,which would be the control group?

A)group of marine copepods fed the diet of normal algae

B)group of marine copepods fed the diet of normal algae with plastic microbeads added

C)neither group of marine copepods; there was no control

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Chapter 16: Freshwater Resources Toilet to Tap

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Sample Questions

Q1) Currently,several states are using recycled water for nonpotable uses,including

A)irrigating landscapes

B)irrigating crops

C)filling fountains

D)flushing toilets

E)All of these answer choices are correct.

Q2) Of all the freshwater on the Earth,approximately ________________ is trapped as ice.

A)10%

B)80%

C)50%

D)8%

E)60%

Q3) What uses the greatest percentage of water in a U.S.household?

A)showering

B)washing clothes

C)flushing the toilet

D)leaks

Q4) What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?

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Chapter 17: Water Pollution Suffocating the Gulf

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most pollutants from nonpoint source pollution enter the water from _________.

A)the air

B)stormwater runoff

C)other streams

D)the ocean

E)broken or leaky pipes

Q2) Discuss some ways that human alteration of watersheds has affected the quality of surface water and the quantity of groundwater.

Q3) What was the difference in nitrate-nitrogen loss when comparing control and test plots?

A)Control plots lost 0.6 kg/ha more than test plots.

B)Control plots lost 0.6 kg/ha less than test plots.

C)Test plots lost 0.6 kg/ha more than control plots.

D)Test plots lost 1.8 kg/ha less than control plots.

Q4) If water flows more slowly through watershed areas,will this increase or decrease the number of pathogens found in the water that eventually flows into the ending river or lake?

Q5) If eutrophication leads to the abundance of nutrients plants need to grow and survive,why is it considered a bad thing?

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Chapter 18: marine Ecosystems Ocean Acidification: the

Other Co2 Problem

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Q1) What are the causes of algal blooms,and how do algal blooms affect coral reefs?

Q2) Which statement about coral reefs is FALSE?

A)Overfishing is a major cause of coral reef destruction.

B)Coral reefs serve as a source of current and potential medicines.

C)Coral reefs help protect shorelines from storms.

D)Coastal development does not affect coral reefs because they develop far away from the shore.

E)Most coral reefs are found between 30 degrees north latitude and 30 degrees south latitude.

Q3) The majority of coral reefs on Earth are found between ______ and _______ of the equator.

A)10 N; 10 S

B)30 N; 30 S

C)50 N; 50 S

D)10 W; 10 E

E)30 W; 30 S

Q4) You have been given the task of monitoring the health of a coral reef.Over the years,you have documented a decrease in the biodiversity of life in the reef.What could be some of the reasons why the reef is suffering?

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Chapter 19: Forests Returning Trees to Haiti

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of forest is determined by which main factor(s)?

A)temperature

B)precipitation

C)type of soil

D)temperature and precipitation

E)precipitation and type of soil

Q2) As a sustainable forest manager,you use the harvesting method with the least environmental impact where the best trees are left behind to reseed the plot.This is

A)clear-cutting

B)selective harvesting

C)shelterwood harvesting

D)strip harvesting

Q3) Which of the following are services provided by forests?

A)watershed purification

B)sink for carbon dioxide

C)recycling of nutrients

D)reduction of soil erosion

E)All of these answer choices are correct.

Q4) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?

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Chapter 20: soil Resources and Grasslands Restoring the Range

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of grasslands are also known as savannas?

A)rangeland

B)tropical

C)cold

D)temperate

E)none of these answers

Q2) How does undergrazing reduce the biodiversity of grasslands?

Q3) You have been employed by a seed company to genetically modify a high-yielding wheat variety so it is resistant to the most common types of wheat diseases.Why and how could grasslands be important in your research?

Q4) Prairies are found in which of the following biome classifications?

A)tropical

B)boreal

C)temperate

D)polar

E)None of these answers are correct.

Q5) What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?

Q6) How does overgrazing lead to soil erosion?

Q7) How do the grazing patterns of wild herbivores make the lands healthier than those Page 22

grazed by cattle?

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Chapter 21: Mineral Resources No Stone Unturned

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Q1) Describe the environmental disaster that occurred at Mountain Pass between 1984 and 1994.

Q2) A mining operation extracts copper ore from the ground.Without access to modern smelters,they dig pits and use them as open-air smelters.They harvest nearby trees for fuel in order to produce the high temperatures required for separating the copper metal from other components of the ore,such as sulfur.Describe some environmental consequences of such an operation.

Q3) Which of the following is viewed as a human-rights violation associated with mining?

A)displacement of farmers and entire communities

B)violence to discourage protest among local residents

C)child labor in mines

D)displacement of farmers and entire communities,violence to discourage protest among local residents,and child labor in mines

E)violence to discourage protest among local residents and child labor in mines

Q4) Name four mining techniques discussed in the module.Describe the nature of a mineral deposit appropriate for each technique.

Q5) Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits.

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Chapter 22: Feeding the World a Gene Revolution

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Q1) An advantage of industrial agriculture is _________.

A)mechanization,to reduce pressure on the number of family farms

B)monoculture use to improve yields and harvests

C)use of fossil fuels for machines instead of manual labor

D)fewer people working the fields

E)All of these answers are advantages.

Q2) Describe how traditional selective breeding,where farmers attempt to produce offspring with valuable traits by breeding parents with those traits,is different from creating organisms with valuable traits using genetic engineering.

Q3) Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in _________.

A)enough food to feed every human on Earth

B)every human on Earth being fed a life-sustaining diet

C)less food produced than usual

D)the end of food insecurity

E)the end of malnutrition

Q4) What are some of the major concerns associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

Q5) Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?

Q6) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?

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Chapter 23: sustainable Agriculture: Raising Crops Farming

Like an Ecosystem

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Q1) Discuss several trade-offs associated with organic farming for the consumer,the farmer,and the environment.

Q2) In sustainable agriculture,_________ is to soil erosion as ____________ is to soil fertility.

A)strip cropping; contour farming

B)terrace farming; crop rotation

C)cover cropping; reduced tillage

D)contour farming; terrace farming

E)crop rotation; windbreaks

Q3) Which strategy would Greg and Raquel Massa NOT apply in managing their farm,given their conversion to sustainable agriculture?

A)planting native oak trees along field borders as a windbreak

B)using transgenic golden rice seeds that are nutritionally enhanced to produce vitamin A

C)introducing ducklings into rice paddies as a natural weed control

D)building nest boxes for wood ducks,barn owls,and bats so that these wild animals will keep pests in check

E)installing a recirculation system to reclaim and reuse irrigation water

Q4) What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control?

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Chapter 24: Agriculture: Raising Livestock Can Meat Be Part of a Healthy, Environmentally Conscious Diet

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to most health experts,meat and dairy products are valuable sources of

A)carbohydrates

B)nucleic acids

C)triglycerides

D)proteins

E)starches

Q2) Which of the following actions increases the carbon footprint?

A)eutrophication of waterways due to nitrogen and phosphorus from manure spills

B)removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops

C)methane gas emitted by livestock

D)eutrophication of waterways due to nitrogen and phosphorus from manure spills,removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops,and methane gas emitted by livestock

E)both removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops and methane gas emitted by livestock

Q3) List several reasons beef-industry representatives would argue for industrial-scale production of beef in concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs),and then list several objections raised by critics of this industrial model.

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Chapter 25: Fisheries and Aquaculture Fish in a Warehouse

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Q1) Factors that contribute to the collapse of global fisheries include ________.

A)increased human demand for fish

B)powerful ships with extended ranges

C)flash freezing techniques

D)fishing practices like bottom-trawling

E)All of these answers contribute to the global collapse of fisheries.

Q2) One of the major problems of managing marine fisheries is the amount of illegal,unreported,and unregulated fishing.It is estimated that the revenue from these practices is _______ annually.

A)$1 to $5 million

B)$50 to $100 million

C)$1 to $5 billion

D)$4 to $9 billion

E)$20 to $30 billion

Q3) What is the tragedy of the commons? How do fishing technology and the tragedy of the commons intersect to jeopardize global fisheries?

Q4) Compare and contrast fishing and open-water aquaculture.Discuss the benefits and challenges of both approaches in obtaining fish protein for our diets.

Q5) Explain the difference between a marine-protected area and a marine reserve.

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Chapter 26: coal Bringing Down the Mountain

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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Hydroelectric power accounts for the largest generation of electricity.

B)The largest EROEI comes from nonrenewable energy sources.

C)Nonrenewable sources account for the largest amount of energy generation.

D)Natural gas has the largest EROEI for nonrenewable energy.

Q2) Fly ash can be taken to a landfill that is expensive and not environmentally friendly,or it can be used to make _____________,which benefits both the power plant and the environment.

A)tar paper

B)shingles

C)sandpaper

D)concrete

E)glass

Q3) The Hobet 21 mine is best known as ___________.

A)the mine with the least environmental impact

B)the mine that the Environmental Protection Agency recently rejected the permit for

C)the largest mining operation in the Appalachian region

D)a surface mine in Wyoming

Q4) How is acid mine drainage formed,and what are its effects on the environment?

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Chapter 27: Oil and Natural Gas the Bakken Oil Boom

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71 Verified Questions

71 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73824

Sample Questions

Q1) Which production phase injects steam,natural gas,or CO<sub>2</sub> into the well to extract more oil?

A)primary

B)secondary

C)tertiary

D)pumpjack

E)fracking

Q2) The Middle East holds approximately _______ of the world's oil reserves.

A)1/4

B)1/3

C)1/2

D)2/3

E)3/4

Q3) What is a hazard of burning fossil fuels?

A)the release of a variety of air pollutants

B)emission of a major anthropogenic contributor to climate change

C)higher rates of cancer and heart disease in workers in the petroleum industry

D)dangers related to shipping and other transport

E)These are all hazards to burning fossil fuels.

Q4) What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?

30

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Chapter 28: Air Pollution the Youngest Scientists

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72 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73825

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about VOCs is FALSE?

A)"VOC" stands for volatile organic compound.

B)VOCs readily evaporate and dissolve in water.

C)VOCs are released by bogs.

D)The main outdoor source of VOCs is fossil fuel combustion.

Q2) Particulate pollution includes all of the following EXCEPT _______.

A)dust

B)soot

C)carbon dioxide

D)small,suspended droplets (aerosols)

E)pollen

Q3) What is it about the nature of the human lung that makes it so vulnerable to air pollution? Further,how does damage to respiratory tissue serve as a gateway to other kinds of human health problems?

Q4) Air pollution can cause which of the following conditions?

A)ground-level ozone

B)water pollution

C)asthma

D)tissue damage in plants

E)All of these answers are correct.

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Chapter 29: global Climate Change Climate Refugees

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73826

Sample Questions

Q1) Which isotope can we analyze from ice cores to give us data about the past climate?

A)<sup>16</sup>O

B)<sup>14</sup>N

C)<sup>18</sup>O

D)CO<sub>2</sub>

E)<sup>14</sup>C

Q2) Describe how the recent changes in global climate are expected to impact biodiversity.

Q3) The actual temperature on any given day is the _________,while the range of expected values,based on location and time of year,is the __________.

A)climate; weather

B)albedo; radiative forcer

C)weather; climate

D)prediction; weather

E)forecast; reality

Q4) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.

Q5) List several techniques used by climate scientists to gather indirect data on climate (temperature,carbon dioxide levels,and so on)from the distant past.

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Power the Future of Fukushima

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which state produces the greatest percent of energy from fossil fuels and the least from nuclear energy?

A)Texas

B)South Carolina

C)Alabama

D)Washington

E)Nebraska

Q2) What best describes alpha particles?

A)They have the greatest potential to cause serious health problems.

B)It takes thick concrete to stop them.

C)They can penetrate upper layers of skin.

D)They can be stopped by a sheet of paper.

E)They can be stopped by heavy clothing.

Q3) Discuss the safety of living near a nuclear power plant relative to living near a coal-fired power plant.

Q4) What are the similarities and differences between uranium-238 and uranium-235?

Q5) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope,and how long is it?

Q6) Explain why nuclear power plants require a vast amount of water.

Q7) How can nuclear waste best be disposed of?

Q8) What is the process of nuclear fission?

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Chapter 31: Sun, Wind, Water, and Earth Energy Fueled by the Sun

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which energy sources will see the biggest increases as costs decline for the technologies?

A)wind and hydropower

B)wind and solar

C)solar and geothermal

D)solar and hydropower

E)hydropower and geothermal

Q2) The people of Samsø discovered the best way to achieve energy independence is to____??________.

A)use solar energy

B)use wind energy

C)conserve energy

D)use geothermal energy

E)buy electric cars

Q3) What is the "take-home message" Samsø is sending to other communities?

Q4) Currently,fossil fuels meet most of the energy needs of the United States.Why do experts say that in the future,no one renewable source will dominate as fossil fuels do today?

Page 34

Q5) What areas are BEST suited for geothermal energy production,and why?

Q6) How is electricity produced in a dry steam geothermal power plant?

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Chapter 32: Biofuels Gas From Grass

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?

Q2) Which of the following is CORRECT regarding indirect biomass energy?

A)It is converted from biomass and then burned.

B)This energy-rich fuel is less bulky than the original biomass.

C)These fuels burn more cleanly than the original biomass.

D)These fuels can power engines that currently run on gasoline or diesel fuel.

E)All of these answers are correct regarding indirect biomass energy.

Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of using biofuel?

A)All types have a higher energy content than fossil fuels,so less needs to be burned to produce the same amount of energy.

B)Burning biomass directly produces minimal particulate matter pollution.

C)If grown with minimal or no fossil fuel inputs,it is carbon neutral or negative.

D)The most commonly grown biofuel crops consume far less water per kilowatt-hour than what is used for traditional fossil fuels.

Q4) What are biofuels,and what are potential biofuel sources?

Q5) Explain why there is a critical need for the development of biofuels.

Q6) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of biofuels in terms of air pollution,relative to fossil fuels.

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