Environmental Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles, diversity, and activities of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. The course examines microbial ecology, biogeochemical cycles, and the impact of microbes on soil, water, and air quality. Students learn about the detection and measurement of microbial populations, biodegradation of pollutants, and the application of microbes in environmental biotechnology. The course also addresses new tools in molecular microbiology, the significance of microbial interactions within ecosystems, and the implications for environmental health and sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called
A)bioremediation.
B)genetic engineering.
C)epidemiology.
D)immunology.
E)taxonomy.
Answer: A
Q2) A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of A)food microbiology.
B)epidemiology.
C)agricultural microbiology.
D)genetic engineering.
E)biotechnology.
Answer: B
Q3) The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which elements are found in all carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids?
Answer: nitrogen carbon hydrogen oxygen phosphorus sulfur
Q2) During cellular reactions, electrons may be removed from compounds such as glucose and picked up by a coenzyme known as NAD<sup>+</sup>.When NAD<sup>+</sup> gains these electrons, it is said to be A)oxidized.
B)reduced.
C)synthesized.
D)dehydrated.
Answer: B
Q3) Replication is the cellular process that copies the DNA prior to cell division.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A)illumination.
B)resolution.
C)magnification.
D)size of the field.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
A)It can be used to cultivate Neisseria.
B)It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.
C)It has chocolate extract in it.
D)It is an enriched medium.
E)It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.
Answer: C
Q3) The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and _____. Answer: liquid
Q4) The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. Answer: nose piece
Q5) _____ is the term for a starting a new culture from an existing one.
Answer: Subculture
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) What unit of measure is most appropriate for expressing the size of bacteria? A)micrometer
B)nanometer
C)milimeter
D)picometer
Q2) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.
Q3) The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)cell wall.
D)inclusions.
E)cell membrane.
Q4) Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A)lophotrichous.
B)peritrichous.
C)monotrichous.
D)amphitrichous.
E)spirilla.
Q5) Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) Compare and contrast the yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction.
Q2) Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called _______.
Q3) Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi.
D)bacteria.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Filamentous fungi are called A)pseudohyphae.
B)septa.
C)molds.
D)dimorphic.
E)mycelium.
Q5) Fungi are autotrophic.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) Compare and contrast the morphology of cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes.
Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
Q2) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A)lysogeny. B)budding.
C)plaques. D)pocks.
Q3) The descriptive groupings of virus into categories such as icosahedral and helical are based on
A)the type of nucleic acid.
B)the shape of the nucleocapsid.
C)the presence or absence of an envelope.
D)the mechanism of entry into host cells.
Q4) Discuss why it is difficult to trace the origins of viruses and why they are important.
Q5) Discuss the criteria used for classifying viruses into families and genera.
Q6) Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____, and the infectious RNA strands called _____.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Q1) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called A)facilitated diffusion.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)endocytosis.
Q3) When microbes share a habitat, with each providing a necessary nutrient for the other, the relationship is called A)syntrophy.
B)satellitism.
C)antibiosis.
D)antagonism.
E)autotrophy.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a fermentation experiment in lab, two different samples of grape juice have been inoculated with yeast.Air has been evacuated from sample I, but not from sample II.In which sample would you predict to the greater alcohol production?
A)sample I
B)sample II
C)Similar alcohol production is expected in both samples.
D)This cannot be predicted based on the information provided.
Q2) Which of the following would produce the most ATP?
A)E.coli growing in a sealed glucose broth for 48 hours
B)E.coli growing in a well-aerated glucose broth for 48 hours
C)Both cultures would produce the same amount of ATP.
D)This prediction cannot be made from the information provided.
Q3) Enzymes that catalyze removal of carbon dioxide from a substrate are called
A)phosphotransferases.
B)oxidoreductases.
C)decarboxylases.
D)aminotransferases. E)ligases.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The analysis of the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discovered virus showed 20% adenine, 40% guanine, 10% thymine, and 30% cytosine.The viral nucleic acid is most likely
A)double-stranded DNA.
B)double-stranded RNA.
C)single-stranded RNA.
D)single-stranded DNA.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
A)involves direct contact between cells
B)transfers genes for drug resistance
C)transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D)transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
E)The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes.
Q3) The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
A)ribosomal RNA.
B)messenger RNA.
C)transfer RNA.
D)primer RNA.
E)ribozymes.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Q1) The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is A)bioremediation.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q2) The two common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are _____ and _____.
Q3) To be of value, DNA sequences targeted for analysis for DNA profiling need to be located in coding regions of the genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of introducing a needed normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sequencing a gene automatically identifies which gene it is.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the first uses of DNA fingerprinting was in _________ medicine. Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Q1) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
Q2) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)sanitization.
D)degermation.
Q3) __________ or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects.
Q4) All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except
A)it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food.
B)it can kill insects on the food.
C)it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes.
D)it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.
E)it makes the food less nutritious.
Q5) When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral?
A)Block viral entry into a host cell
B)Block transcription and translation
C)Inhibit DNA synthesis
D)Block maturation
E)Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
Q2) An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
A)blocks penetration.
B)blocks DNA replication.
C)inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking.
D)blocks maturation.
E)bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.
Q3) Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains.
Q4) When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Q1) Reservoirs include
A)humans.
B)animals.
C)soil.
D)water.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B)World Health Organization.
C)National Institutes of Health.
D)United States Department of Agriculture.
E)Infection Control Committee.
Q3) Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology.
Q4) _____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls.
Q5) _____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A)basophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)neutrophils.
D)monocytes.
E)lymphocytes.
Q2) Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except A)the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
B)nasal hairs.
C)flushing action of tears and blinking.
D)flushing action of urine.
E)phagocytic white blood cells.
Q3) All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except A)T-cells.
B)B-cells.
C)monocytes.
D)lymphocytes.
E)basophils.
Q4) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _____.
Q2) The major histocompatability complex is
A)a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.
B)a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
C)also known as the complement system.
D)located in the thymus gland.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
A)are the result of genetic expression.
B)function in recognition of self molecules.
C)participate in communication with other cells of the system.
D)aid in cellular development.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response
18
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant?
A)host rejection of graft
B)graft versus host disease
C)formation of autoantibodies
D)hypogammaglobulinemia
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)ingestant - nuts
B)inhalant - bee sting
C)injectant - vaccine
D)contactant - rubber
E)ingestant - food additive
Q3) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A)autoantibodies.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)failure of B cell development and maturity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells.
Q4) The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.
Q5) Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
Q2) In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the
A)electron microscope.
B)naked eye.
C)light microscope.
D)API 20E miniature identification system.
E)PCR reaction.
Q3) Some diseases are diagnosed without the need to identify microbes from a patient specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In _________ tests, antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and form visible clumps in the test chamber.
Q5) The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the ______ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the _______ is its titer.
A)lower; lower
B)higher; lower
C)lower; higher
D)higher; higher
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Q1) An individual with asymptomatic N.gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except
A)a purulent exudate over the tonsils.
B)can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain.
C)can lead to serious sequelae.
D)is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.
E)causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.
Q3) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.
Q4) All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except A)it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
B)it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
C)oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
D)bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation.
E)signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.
Q5) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as _____ cocci.
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Q6) The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are _____ and _____.
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except
A)it causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat.
B)it causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, and infants.
C)intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death.
D)adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention.
E)enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.
Q2) The _____ test injects 0.1 mL of Purified Protein Derviative intradermally into the forearm.
Q3) Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by A)debridement.
B)wound cleansing.
C)vancomycin for several weeks.
D)withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Using specific examples, discuss how gram-positive bacilli are divided into major genera.At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results.
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Q5) _____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except
A)Enterobacter.
B)Citrobacter.
C)Shigella.
D)Klebsiella.
E)Serratia.
Q2) Fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and neurological impairment are symptoms associated with _____.
Q3) Salmonella are A)coliforms.
B)motile.
C)gram-positive rods.
D)lactose fermenters.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Legionellosis is a zoonosis.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
Q5) Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis.
Q6) Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) The secondary stage of syphilis
A)is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.
B)occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
C)is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
D)has no symptoms.
E)is when gummas develop in tissues.
Q2) The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its A)capsule.
B)neurotoxin.
C)invasive enzymes.
D)enterotoxin.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A)feces.
B)blood.
C)urine.
D)respiratory secretions.
E)saliva.
Q4) Syphilitic tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis.
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) _____ are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft.
Q2) Patient's with madura foot develop swollen, ulcerative, tumor-like skin lesions called mycetomas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amphotericin B is an over-the-counter drug to treat athlete's foot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast Histoplasmosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Blastomycosis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) reservoir, c) transmission, and d) disease, including complications.
Q6) Dermatophytes digest the protein _____, found in the skin, hair, and nails.
Q7) Fungi that exhibit thermal dimorphism grow as _____ at 30°C and as _____ at 37°C.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes A)balantidiasis.
B)amebiasis and trichomoniasis.
C)amebic meningoencephalitis.
D)trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis.
E)cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.
Q2) Elephantiasis includes all the following, except
A)it is caused by filarial nematodes.
B)the parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors.
C)larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels.
D)severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum.
E)microfilariae are in the blood.
Q3) Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.
Q5) Chagas'disease is treated with chloroquine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
A)genital lesions.
B)intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
C)symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
D)infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Fifth'disease
A)is caused by Parvovirus B19.
B)is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks.
C)involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta.
D)in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Smallpox is a disease in which
A)fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.
B)virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons.
C)recurrent episodes are called shingles.
D)transmission occurs only by direct skin contact with skin crusts.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Describe viral latency and oncogenicity, and discuss two examples of latent DNA viruses and two examples of oncogenic DNA viruses.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Coronaviruses cause
A)fever, rash, and nasal discharge.
B)meningitis.
C)measles.
D)croup.
E)common cold and SARS.
Q2) Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except
A)glycoprotein spikes.
B)DNA genome.
C)envelope.
D)reverse transcriptase.
E)viral genes that integrate into the host genome.
Q3) Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?
A)yellow fever
B)Western equine encephalitis
C)Eastern equine encephalitis
D)Colorado tick fever
E)St.Louis encephalitis
Q4) The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.
Q5) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The thin envelope of life that surrounds the Earth's surface is called the A)atmosphere.
B)biosphere.
C)lithosphere.
D)hydrosphere.
E)ecosystem.
Q2) Differentiate between the following terms and provide an example for each: mutualism, communalism, synergism, parasitism.
Q3) Which of the following is not correct about nitrogen fixation?
A)Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live free.
B)Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in a symbiotic relationship with plants.
C)Nitrogen fixation is an aerobic process.
D)The primary product of nitrogen fixation is ammonium ion, NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>.
E)Legumes are plants that are able to fix nitrogen.
Q4) A ___________ is a form of consumer that actively seeks out and ingests live prey.
Q5) Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called ___________.
Q6) Draw an energy pyramid and provide specific examples of each level.
Q7) An _____ is the term for a deep groundwater source.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) What is made by adding Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus to milk?
A)butter
B)cheese
C)sour cream
D)tofu
E)yogurt
Q2) The pathology associated with food infections does not involve toxin-induced damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What process does wine go through in order to prevent it from turning to vinegar?
A)irradiation
B)pasteurization
C)autoclaving
D)filtration
E)distillation
Q4) ____________ proteins can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products to be used as a food.
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