Environmental Microbiology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology delves into the roles and activities of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. This course explores the diversity, physiology, and ecology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microbes as they interact with their surroundings from soil and water ecosystems to extreme habitats. Students examine microbial processes vital for nutrient cycling, bioremediation, water and wastewater treatment, and climate regulation. Through case studies and practical examples, the course illustrates how microorganisms impact environmental quality, human health, and ecosystem sustainability, emphasizing methods for detection, monitoring, and control of microbial activity in a variety of environmental contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms Global 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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32 Chapters
2625 Verified Questions
2625 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ was the first to describe microorganisms,while ________ was the first person to see bacteria.
A) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek / Robert Hook
B) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek / Robert Koch
C) Robert Hooke / Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
D) Robert Koch / Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: C
Q2) Differentiation occurs only in multicellular organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Archaea and Bacteria are unified as prokaryotes in lacking ________ which Eukarya contain,such as golgi.
A) membranes
B) nuclei
C) membrane-enclosed organelles
D) nuclei and membrane-enclosed organelles
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electron microscopes have less resolving power than light microscopes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Poly- -hydroxybutyric acid (PHB)is a carbon- and energy-storing polymer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Cellular inclusions in prokaryotic cells serve to
A) store energy rich compounds.
B) protect DNA.
C) position cells in the appropriate environment for survival.
D) store energy rich compounds and position cells in the appropriate environment for survival.
Answer: D
Q4) Smaller prokaryotic cells generally grow faster than larger ones due to a higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial isolate that grows better on a nutrient agar plate supplemented with amino acids but still grows in a nutrient agar plate lacking amino acids suggests amino acids are trace nutrients for the isolate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 4.
D) 8.
Answer: B
Q3) Aseptic technique refers to
A) the microbial inoculum placed into a test tube or onto a Petri plate.
B) a series of practices to avoid contamination.
C) the autoclave and other sterilizing procedures.
D) cleanliness in the laboratory.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA acts at both the genetic and the functional levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An operon is a useful genetic element,because it
A) encourages the binding of RNA polymerase.
B) allows coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes.
C) translates DNA sequence into amino acid sequence.
D) encourages the binding of ribosomes in the correct location.
Q3) In nature,the predominant form of DNA is supercoiled in a negative direction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the difference between an intrinsic terminator and a Rho-dependent termination site.
Q5) Explain the process of RNA transcription using the terms upstream,Pribnow box,and consensus sequence.
Q6) tRNA is released from the ribosome at the ________ site.
A) P
B) A
C) R
D) E
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Propose a growth setup that an industrial microbiologist would create to obtain large quantities of a bacteriocidal product of secondary metabolism.Be certain to explain how temperature and dissolved oxygen parameters would be selected as well as how stationary growth phase would be maintained.
Q2) Defend and explain how FtsZ-type proteins being found in mitochondria and chloroplasts strengthens or weakens the endosymbiosis theory.
Q3) A bacterium that lacks the mreB gene will have a ________ shape.
A) bacillus
B) coccoid
C) short bacillus
D) vibrio
Q4) Some microbes can grow in boiling water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a chemostat,growth rate and growth yield can be controlled independently.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain why a hyperthermophile is unlikely to be a human pathogen.
Q7) Would you expect a xerophilic organism to be halotolerant? Why or why not?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genomes of species in both Bacteria and Archaea show a strong correlation between genome size and A) noncoding RNA.
B) codon bias.
C) number of ORFs.
D) number of introns.
Q2) The entire complement of RNA produced under a given set of conditions is called a(n)
A) array.
B) genome.
C) proteome.
D) transcriptome.
Q3) Microarrays can be used to
A) analyze global gene expression.
B) detect pathogens.
C) detect unwanted food additives or substitutes.
D) detect pathogens, analyze global gene expression, and detect unwanted food additives or substitutes.
Q4) Explain how mass spectrometry (MS)has aided in the progression of the field of metabolomics.
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide evidence that supports the hypothesis that riboswitches are remnants of the RNA world when catalytic RNAs were the only self-replicating life forms.
Q2) Studying the transcriptional activity of flagellar genes would not likely reveal differential changes when the cells are actively motile compared to nonmotile activity,because a two-component regulatory system is sufficient to control flagellar activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the basic two-component regulatory system,and compare the function of each component.
Q4) Transcriptomics is a common approach to infer which metabolic pathways are actively functioning,but which regulation process can MOST significantly complicate or even abolish conclusions from this approach?
A) activity of a catabolite repressor protein on multiple pathways
B) antisense RNA silencing
C) feedback inhibition with allosteric proteins
D) presence of corepressors and inducers which are molecules undetected by transcriptomics
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enveloped viral membranes are generally ________ with associated virus-specific
A) lipid bilayers / phospholipids
B) protein bilayers / lipids
C) lipid bilayers / glycoproteins
D) glycolipid bilayers / phospholipids
Q2) Based on your knowledge of cellular and viral processes,which of the following would be (an)appropriate target(s)for antiviral drugs?
A) integrases
B) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
C) ribosomes
D) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases and ribosomes
Q3) Compare and contrast a typical bacterial growth curve and a viral one-step growth curve.Explain why the growth curves are different based on bacterial and viral replication.
Q4) Compare and contrast the structure,life cycle,and host cell type of naked and enveloped viruses.
Q5) What are the potential advantages of lysogeny compared to lysis for a temperate virus?
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Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genomics analysis of recently isolated viruses indicate some viruses contain larger genomes than the some bacterial genomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identifying proteases being essential for replication of a virus would suggest the virus
A) lyses its host following genome replication.
B) contains at least one polyprotein.
C) has a single-stranded RNA genome.
D) uses at least one set of overlapping genes.
Q3) Blocking polyomavirus SV40's ability to integrate its genome into host cells would A) avoid cancer development from the virus.
B) increase the rate of transformation.
C) increase the latent period of SV40.
D) switch SV40 into a lytic lifecycle which would be especially harmful to the host cells.
Q4) Describe one use of bacteriophage Mu for a bacterial geneticist,and explain why it is useful.
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have performed the following mating experiment using Hfr and F strains of Escherichia coli: Hfr (thr leu gal str )× F (thr leu gal str ).Which of the following selective media would you use to score recombinant colonies?
A) minimal medium
B) minimal medium + streptomycin
C) minimal medium + threonine
D) minimal medium + streptomycin + threonine
Q2) The positions of genes on a genetic map are marked according to A) degrees.
B) nanometers.
C) radians.
D) minutes.
Q3) Microinsertions and microdeletions often result in ________ mutations.
A) auxotrophic
B) advantageous
C) silent
D) frameshift
Q4) All Hfr strains possess an F factor integrated into the host chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which objective would be best to use a Southern blot rather than a Northern blot?
A) Determine if a gene is present in a genome.
B) Discover gene function.
C) Identify regulatory gene-protein interactions.
D) Quantify expression profiles of a gene.
Q2) Engineering a metabolic pathway enables a researcher to use different genes from unrelated organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you wanted to discover a novel biosynthetic pathway for an antimicrobial compound and were given a handful of soil,describe the key experimental steps you would need to take to accomplish the task and explain why alternative procedures were not performed.
Q4) Describe the usefulness of blue-white screening,also called -complementation,in cloning vectors such as pUC19.Include in your answer the terms polylinker,DNA ligase,lacZ gene,insertional inactivation,Xgal,and -galactosidase.
Q5) Explain the process of site-directed mutagenesis,and discuss some applications of this technique.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Can gene frequencies change in the absence of selection? Why or why not?
Q2) How did cyanobacteria,oxygen,and ozone impact the evolution of eukaryotic cells?
Q3) The oxic atmosphere created conditions that led to the evolution of various new metabolic pathways,such as
A) sulfide oxidation.
B) nitrification.
C) iron oxidation.
D) sulfide oxidation, nitrification, and iron oxidation.
Q4) At present there are four phyla in the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is the biological species concept useful for Eukarya but not meaningful for Archaea and Bacteria? How are prokaryotic species defined?
Q6) Microbial ________ studies the diversity of microorganisms and links their phylogeny with ________.
A) taxonomy / genotype
B) phylogeny / phenotype
C) taxonomy / phenotype
D) systematics / taxonomy
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only organisms that perform photosynthesis are ones that produce some form of
A) chlorophyll or bacteriochlorophyll.
B) carotenoids.
C) phycoerythrin.
D) phycocyanin.
Q2) The light-harvesting pigments in Bacteria are classified as bacteriochlorophylls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RubisCO converts ribulose bisphosphate and CO into two molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anaerobic fermentation often provides CO ,which can be used by ________ as an electron acceptor for energy.
A) acetogens
B) methanotrophs
C) methanogens
D) acetogens and methanogens
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Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrogenase is a critical enzyme in the nitrogen cycle because it catalyzes the A) assimilation of ammonia.
B) dissimilative reduction of nitrate to nitrogen gas.
C) fixation of nitrogen gas into ammonia.
D) oxidation of nitrogen gas into nitrate.
Q2) Typical electron donors used by dissimilative sulfate-reducers are
A) hydrogen, water, and hyrdrogen sulfide.
B) hydrogen, lactate, and pyruvate.
C) carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and water.
D) sulfate, sulfur, and thiosulfate.
Q3) There are currently no known predatory bacteria that are adapted to invade or kill nearby cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the ecological importance of the enzyme nitrogenase,the diversity and physiology of the various groups of organisms that contain it,and the strategies these organisms use to optimize conditions for the enzyme.
Q5) Diazotrophs are found in all three domains of life.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlamydiae are MOST commonly transmitted throughout environments by insects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Deinococcus radiodurans is capable of withstanding especially high levels of radiation,and the carotenoids they produce enhance this resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cytophaga columnaris causes columnaris (or "cottonmouth")disease in fish such as salmon.Based on the taxonomic group this species is a part of,predict some of the activities this bacterium has during infection of fish.Also mention a related taxon that likely has some of the same functions and another taxon that does not.
Q4) Which of the following is LEAST commonly associated with endospore-forming bacteria?
A) coccus-shaped
B) defense
C) dormancy
D) saprophytic
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The taxonomy of the methanogens is based on A) phenotypic analysis.
B) phylogenetic (comparative nucleic acid sequencing) analysis.
C) phenotypic and phylogenetic analyses.
D) neither phenotypic nor phylogenetic analysis.
Q2) Describe two mechanisms that Archaea use to avoid their DNA melting at temperatures above 100°C.
Q3) What makes the lifestyle and genome of Nanoarchaeum equitans unique?
Q4) Ignicoccus has several unique structural features that have lead scientists to propose that it may be the modern descendent of the ancestral cell type that gave rise to the origin of eukaryotic cells.What are the unique features of Ignicoccus and why do they support this hypothesis?
Q5) Thermostable proteins tend to have additional features that improve thermostability.Which of the following is NOT one of these features?
A) increased ionic interactions on the protein surfaces
B) highly hydrophilic cores
C) decreased tendency of the protein to unfold
D) highly hydrophobic cores
Q6) Detail the mechanism by which halophilic Archaea obtain energy from light.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amoebozoa that are parasitic for humans are the
A) gymnamoebas.
B) radiolarians.
C) entamoebas.
D) oomycetes.
Q2) Describe the mutualistic relationship that arbuscular mycorrhizae form with plants.
Q3) The amoebozoa use what structures for movement and feeding?
A) threadlike pseudopodia
B) cilia
C) flagella
D) lobe-shaped pseudopodia
Q4) Yeasts are immature fungal spores.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diatoms are
A) an ancient group of algae.
B) more closely related to slime molds than to algae.
C) morphologically symmetric.
D) multicellular phototrophs.
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) For microbial biodiversity studies,it is common to identify the ________ rather than the ________ as a measure of biodiversity.
A) organisms themselves / genes
B) genes / organisms themselves
C) cell types / genes
D) cell types / organisms themselves
Q2) Which fluorescent molecule enables visualization of living microorganisms?
A) acridine orange
B) DAPI
C) GFP
D) SYBR Green
Q3) Why is it necessary to have a standard for the interpretation of stable isotope ratios?
A) A standard is necessary to calculate how much radioactivity was added to a sample.
B) A standard is necessary to determine the stable isotope ratio in the absence of biological activity.
C) A standard is necessary to determine the weight of each isotopes.
D) A standard is necessary to determine the age of the sample.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyclic di-guanosine monophosphate is upregulated as Pseudomonas aeruginosa cells are declining.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A notorious biofilm former implicated in cystic fibrosis is
A) Bacillus subtilis.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Lactobacillus acidophilus.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) Chemoheterotrophic bacteria are primary producers. A)True
B)False
Q4) Unlike other cyanobacteria,Prochlorococcus lacks phycobilins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the oceans,prokaryotes are outnumbered ten to one by A) zooplankton.
B) diatoms.
C) viruses.
D) phytoplankton.
21
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary energy source for termites comes from
A) acetogenic Archaea.
B) acetogenic Bacteria.
C) methanogenic Archaea.
D) methanogenic Bacteria.
Q2) The mercury in fish is normally in the form of elemental mercury (Hg ).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mercury has both organic and inorganic forms that are neurotoxic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lignin is a complex polymer of methoxylated ________ compounds and is present in ________.
A) silica / aquatic environments
B) mineral / rocks
C) oil / fossil fuels
D) aromatic / vascular plant material
Q5) How would Si depletion in the photic zone of the open ocean affect the biological pump and the C cycle?
Page 22
Q6) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbes are sometimes used in secondary treatment of wastewater to A) convert heavy metals into carbon dioxide.
B) remove organic matter.
C) remove large particles.
D) convert heavy metals into carbon dioxide, remove organic matter, and remove large particles.
Q2) Pyrite (FeS )is common in bituminous coal and metal ores and is a critical component of the microbial leaching of ores and acid mine drainage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Secondary treatment may be aerobic or anoxic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although the sulfate-reducing bacteria are thought to be critical in the corrosion of metal structures,the mechanism of metal corrosion is not well understood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe floc formation in the activated sludge process.
Q6) What is souring of crude oil and how does the petroleum industry control it?
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Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular evidence suggests that leeches contain two distinct bacterial communities in their bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both pathogenic bacteria and primary symbionts have a tendency to lose genes for catabolic pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bacteroids are rarely found within plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most heavily colonized human organ by bacteria is the ________,containing 10¹¹-10¹² bacterial cells per g.
A) mouth
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) skin
Q5) Explain how leeches are used today in medical replants and transplants.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Q1) Why is fever the universal result of endotoxin exposure?
Q2) An opportunistic pathogen causes disease ONLY in the presence of normal host resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endotoxins are released in large amounts only when cells lyse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how diet plays a role in host susceptibility to infection.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a subunit of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?
A) O-specific polysaccharide
B) lipid A
C) core polysaccharide
D) M protein
Q6) ________ are toxic proteins released from the pathogen as it grows.
A) Endotoxins
B) Exotoxins
C) Macrotoxins
D) Microtoxins
Q7) What are the different categories of exotoxins,and how do they function?
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) The essential protective role for T cell immunity is protection from A) viruses.
B) extracellular pathogens.
C) bacteria.
D) intracellular pathogens.
Q2) Symptoms of delayed-type hypersensitivity may appear several hours to days after secondary exposure to the eliciting antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Individuals with severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)have a genetic defect that prevents proper formation and expression of immunoglobins and T cells and therefore do not have adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens because they have evolved specialized molecules called pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)that interact directly with PAMPs.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The increased rate of O uptake by activated phagocytes is called the A) hypoxemia.
B) pyogenesis.
C) respiratory burst.
D) peroxidase.
Q2) T cell receptors on a particular T cell can recognize more than two antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly describe the effect of deposition of antibody or complement on the surface of a pathogen or antigen in relation to opsonization.
Q4) When dendritic cells ingest antigen,they migrate to the ________,where they present the antigen to T lymphocytes.
A) kidneys
B) lymph nodes
C) thymus
D) spleen
Q5) Why must the adaptive immune system develop a capacity to discriminate between foreign antigens and host antigens?
Q6) Briefly describe classical complement activation and cell damage.
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication between cells of the immune system is accomplished in many cases through
A) allelic exclusion.
B) clonal deletion.
C) cytokines.
D) allelic exclusion, clonal deletion, and cytokines.
Q2) Amino acid variability is especially apparent in several ________ in the V domains of different immunoglobulins.
A) heavy chains
B) complementarity-determining regions (CDR)
C) peptide motifs
D) epitopes
Q3) Interaction of a PAMP with a TLR triggers transmembrane signal transduction and subsequent
A) clonal expansion.
B) antibody production.
C) complement protein activation.
D) phagocytosis and inflammation.
Q4) Describe the signal transduction pathway that is activated when LPS binds to TLR-4.
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect EIA is used to detect
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) viruses.
D) serum.
Q2) MacConkey agar and eosin-methylene blue (EMB)agar are ________ media.
A) selective but not differential
B) differential but not selective
C) both selective and differential
D) neither selective nor differential
Q3) Compared with other precipitation tests,agglutination tests are
A) more sensitive.
B) less sensitive.
C) about equally sensitive.
D) highly variable in sensitivity, and thus the sensitivities cannot be compared.
Q4) To detect antibodies in human serum,the direct EIA is most commonly employed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Q1) A nonliving source of an infectious agent that infects a large number of people is called a
A) fomite.
B) reservoir.
C) vector.
D) vehicle.
Q2) A disease transferred by indirect contact with a high basic reproduction number and mortality would be an effective biological weapon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pasteurization of milk is an example of a disease control measure aimed at A) preventing host-to-host transmission.
B) controlling the disease vector.
C) preventing common source diseases.
D) eliminating the disease reservoir.
Q4) The MOST common vectorborne disease in the United States is A) influenza A.
B) Lyme disease.
C) malaria.
D) pneumonia.
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Rheumatic fever is
A) an autoimmune disease.
B) a poststaphylococcal disease.
C) triggered by cell-surface antigens on Staphylococcus aureus cells that are similar to heart valve and joint antigens.
D) caused by human papillomavirus.
Q2) The diphtheria component of the DTaP vaccine is a(n) A) toxin.
B) toxoid.
C) antitoxin.
D) antitoxoid.
Q3) The CD4 molecule is
A) an HIV surface glycoprotein.
B) a cell-surface protein receptor for HIV.
C) found only on T-helper cells.
D) an HIV surface glycoprotein that is found only on T-helper cells.
Q4) MOST of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of highly absorbent tampons.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The causative agent of dengue fever is
A) Rickettsia prowazekii.
B) a flavivirus.
C) Borrelia burgdorferi.
D) Clostridium perfringens.
Q2) Which of the following flaviviruses can be prevented by vaccination?
A) yellow fever
B) dengue fever
C) hantavirus
D) Ebola
Q3) Anthrax is an emerging disease for which there is no treatment or vaccine available.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both yellow and dengue fever can be prevented by vaccines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Epizootic diseases often occur in wild animals on a periodic or cyclic basis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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81 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organisms are NOT involved in food fermentations?
A) lactic acid bacteria
B) sulfuric acid bacteria
C) acetic acid bacteria
D) propionic acid bacteria
Q2) Treatment of ALL pathogenic E.coli infections involves supportive therapy and,in some cases,may also include antimicrobial drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With Clostridium perfringens,the enterotoxin is present in the endospores that germinate under anoxic conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To prevent the spread of pathogens that cause listeriosis,raw food and food-handling equipment can be decontaminated with A) antibiotic spray.
B) radiation.
C) cold storage.
D) antibiotic spray, radiation, and cold storage.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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51 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment regimen for people with normal immunity recovering from cryptosporidiosis includes
A) multiple antibiotics.
B) antihelmenthic chemotherapy.
C) multiple antibiotics and careful monitoring of fluid levels.
D) oral rehydration only.
Q2) Systemic fungal infections are difficult to treat because active antifungal drugs cause significant host toxicity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The MOST effective malarial control measure is to interrupt the life cycle of the parasite by eliminating the obligate host,the Anopheles mosquito.
A)True
B)False
Q4) MOST fungi are harmless to humans,although certain superficial infections are quite common.
A)True
B)False
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