Environmental Microbiology
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the diverse roles of microorganisms within natural and engineered environments. The course covers fundamental microbial processes in soil, water, and air, examining microbial ecology, biogeochemical cycling, and the interactions between microorganisms and their environments. Students learn about microbial diversity, the detection and quantification of microorganisms, and how microbes contribute to pollution, bioremediation, wastewater treatment, and climate change. Emphasis is placed on both the beneficial and harmful impacts of microorganisms on environmental health and sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microbe is commonly defined as:
A) a virus that requires a microscope to be seen
B) a bacterium that requires a microscope to be seen
C) a single-cellular prokaryote that requires a microscope to be seen
D) a multicellular eukaryote that requires a microscope to be seen
E) a living organism that requires a microscope to be seen
Answer: E
Q2) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
Q3) The Asilomar Conference was held to regulate and restrict the field of:
A) recombinant DNA
B) comparative genomics
C) DNA sequencing
D) DNA amplification
E) forensic microbiology
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) A useful application of dark-field optics is the study of bacterial:
A) motility
B) surfaces
C) interiors
D) shape
E) structure
Answer: A
Q2) Describe three conditions that are necessary for electromagnetic radiation to resolve an object.
Answer: There must be contrast between the object and its surroundings. The wavelength of the radiation must be equal to or smaller than the size of the object. The detector must have sufficient resolution for the given wavelength.
Q3) Fluorescence microscopy using labeled antibodies is referred to as:
A) immunofluorescence
B) autofluorescence
C) confocal microscopy
D) phase-contrast microscopy
E) dark-field microscopy
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is described as an attachment organelle that is a membrane-bound extension of the cytoplasm?
A) pili
B) fimbriae
C) sex pili
D) stalks
E) flagella
Answer: D
Q2) When designing an antibiotic, one should target what aspect of a prokaryote? Give at least two specific examples of drugs and their target.
Answer: To be effective against a prokaryote and have no ill effects on humans, the antibiotic should be targeted to something unique and essential to bacteria. Penicillin, for example, targets peptidoglycan biosynthesis, ultimately resulting in cell lysis. Streptomycin interacts with the proteins of the prokaryotic ribosome, leading to disruption of translation.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
Q2) By themselves, heterotrophs would deplete the world of __________ sources and starve to death.
A) usable nitrogen
B) organic carbon
C) water
D) energy
E) oxygen
Q3) During biofilm formation, as more and more cells bind to the surface, they begin sending signals to each other in a process called:
A) quorum sensing
B) homoserine lactone sensing
C) siderophores iron acquisition
D) polysaccharides uptake
E) density sensing
Q4) Describe the differences between batch culture and growth in a chemostat. What are the advantages of a chemostat?
Q5) When using the LIVE/DEAD staining procedure, how can you distinguish live versus dead cells, and why do they appear in different colors?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which temperature is quickly lethal to any mesophile?
A) its optimum growth temperature
B) its minimum growth temperature
C) its maximum growth temperature
D) refrigeration temperature
E) autoclave temperature
Q2) How is the phenol coefficient calculated? Why is phenol the standard for testing other disinfectants?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true concerning irradiation of foods?
A) Food consumed by NASA astronauts is sterilized by irradiation.
B) Foods become radioactive when irradiated.
C) Viruses are resistant to doses approved for foods.
D) A higher dose of radiation is necessary to kill microbes in frozen foods.
E) It is effective in eliminating parasites and bacteria.
Q4) Organisms adapted to grow at overwhelmingly high pressures are called:
A) psychrophiles
B) thermophiles
C) barophiles
D) acidophiles
E) mesophiles
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Virus particles can be observed by standard transmission electron microscopy (TEM), but details of capsid structure require visualization by:
A) phase-contrast microscopy
B) scanning electron microscopy
C) cryo-electron microscopy
D) negative stain
E) bright field microscopy
Q2) Which one of the viral gene products is likely to be expressed early in bacteriophage T4 life cycle to facilitate the replication of viral genome?
A) a DNase that digests host genome
B) an RNase that digests viral genome
C) a protease that digests viral capsids
D) the capsids required to produce mature viral particles
E) the ribosomes required for translation of viral mRNA
Q3) Why are viruses not affected by antibiotics? Why are there so few antiviral drugs?
Q4) What are prions and how do they cause disease?
Q5) Mosaic genomes are genomes that are derived from different sources. How does this occur in viruses?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe two ways that the study of bacteria and their processes has led to the development of molecular biology and revolutionized genetics.
Q2) The sliding clamp is used to __________ and is loaded by ___________.
A) open the helix; clamp loader complex
B) open the helix; DNA polIII
C) tether the polymerase to the chromosome; clamp loader complex
D) tether the polymerase to the chromosome; DNA polI
E) tether the polymerase to the chromosome; DNA primase
Q3) __________ is an enzyme that may have evolved from ancient progenitor cells with an RNA genome. It functions as a __________.
A) Primase; helicase
B) Primase; reverse transcriptase
C) Telomerase; helicase
D) Telomerase; reverse transcriptase
E) Telomerase; methylator and acetylator
Q4) How are archaeal genomes similar to both bacterial and eukaryotic genomes?
Q5) What determines when DNA replication begins?
Q6) Explain how understanding topoisomerases has helped healthcare.
Q7) How can plasmids ensure that they are passed on from one generation to the next?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Since ribosomes do not translate to the end of the mRNA, what causes translation to end?
Q2) Describe the experiment utilizing an E. coli cell lysate that was used to figure out the genetic code.
Q3) A __________ RNA is a single RNA molecule that contains information from several contiguous genes.
A) cistronic
B) transfer
C) polycistronic
D) ribosomal
E) messenger
Q4) An enzyme complex called RNA polymerase is also known as DNA-dependent RNA polymerase because:
A) DNA codes for the subunits of this protein
B) DNA serves as a template for translation
C) hydrolysis of DNA provides the energy for RNA polymerase
D) DNA serves as a template for transcription
E) DNA is required as a primer for this polymerase
Q5) How does mRNA compare to the template and nontemplate DNA strand?
Q6) How are folded and unfolded proteins moved from the cytoplasm to the periplasm?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) When a nonpermissive strain of Salmonella was infected with a P22 phage carrying a tetracycline resistance gene, the Salmonella still became resistant at a high frequency. How did this happen and what suggested this was the case?
Q2) Describe two processes that may happen during the evolution towards pathogenicity.
Q3) Why did Ames modify the test to incorporate treatment of the potential mutagen with rat liver extract?
Q4) Which of the following requires no homology between donor and recipient DNA molecules?
A) phage integration
B) phase variation
C) site-specific recombination
D) transposition
E) general recombination
Q5) What are the differences between replicative and nonreplicative transposition?
Q6) What is transcription-coupled repair and why is it important for the cell?
Q7) Describe four of the error-proof DNA repair mechanisms.
Q8) How do bacterial cells protect themselves from invading foreign DNA? Why aren't the bacteria harmed by this process? Page 11
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Finding an inverted repeated sequence within 100-200 bases of a promoter suggests the presence of a __________ binding site.
A) DNA
B) transcriptional regulator
C) RNA
D) ribosome
E) corepressor
Q2) The stringent response down-regulates rRNA synthesis. Does it similarly down-regulate ribosomal protein synthesis?
Q3) Explain how small, untranslated RNAs (sRNAs) regulate iron uptake and iron storage.
Q4) In a two-component signal transduction system, a _________ is transferred from a sensor kinase to a _________ in response to an environmental signal.
A) phosphate; sensor domain
B) phosphate; sensor phosphatase
C) phosphate; response regulator
D) magnesium; sensor domain
E) magnesium; response regulator
Q5) Explain how a repressor protein works with respect to a biosynthetic operon.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the genome of the influenza virus?
A) negative-strand segmented RNA
B) positive-strand segmented RNA
C) negative-strand single-piece RNA
D) positive-strand single-piece RNA
E) double-stranded RNA
Q2) Describe the replication cycle of HIV.
Q3) The cell membrane releases mature HSV-1 virions through:
A) endocytosis
B) exocytosis
C) lysis
D) budding
E) slow release
Q4) Which of the following statements does NOT describe the T4 infection?
A) Tail fibers of T4 contact the outer membrane.
B) The sheath contracts and the internal tube penetrates the outer membrane.
C) Only viral DNA is transferred into host cells.
D) T4 protein coats are absorbed into the host cells and degraded.
E) T4 utilizes host machineries for replication of viral genome and viral particles.
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a "buffer gate" in synthetic biology?
A) A single repressor molecule (R<sub>1</sub>) prevents the production of an output molecule (Pr<sub>1</sub>).
B) Alternate input molecules (I<sub>1</sub> or I<sub>2</sub>) drive the production of alternative proteins (Pr<sub>n</sub>).
C) A single input inducer molecule (I<sub>1</sub>) leads to the production of a single product (Pr<sub>1</sub>).
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) The replacement of the genome of Mycoplasma capricolum with the modified genome of M. mycoides is considered to be a significant accomplishment because:
A) it demonstrates that genetic manipulation of recalcitrant organisms is feasible
B) it opens the possibility to redesign prokaryotic genomic systems
C) it enables the engineering of new species
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Describe the difference between autoradiography and phosphoimaging.
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15
Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) In glycolysis, dihydroxyacetone phosphate is isomerized to __________, which reenters the pathway.
A) glucose 6-phosphate
B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
C) phosphoenolpyruvate
D) fructose 6-phosphate
E) pyruvate
Q2) How can a technique such as calorimetry be used to measure \(\Delta\)G?
Q3) Escherichia coli degrades human waste in the colon using mixed-acid fermentation. Why is this a factor of concern in some medical procedures, such as colonoscopy?
Q4) The multiple negative charges of ATP are stabilized when it forms a complex with:
A) Mn<sup>2+</sup>
B) Na<sup>+</sup>
C) Mg<sup>2+</sup>
D) K<sup>+</sup>
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
Q5) Describe the diagnostic use of sorbitol MacConkey agar to test for the presence of E. coli O157:H7.
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Is the synthesis of ATP by the F<sub>1</sub>F<sub>o</sub> ATPase reversible? If so, are there any examples?
Q2) Briefly discuss what factors may affect the relative contributions of the membrane potential (\(\Delta\)\(\varPsi\)) and the proton gradient (\(\Delta\)pH) to \(\Delta\)p.
Q3) In dehalorespiration of chlorinated pollutants, the chlorine is removed and replaced by:
A) hydrogen
B) oxygen
C) nitrogen
D) sulfur
E) ammonia
Q4) Alkaliphiles maintain an inverted pH gradient in which:
A) the pH in their immediate environment is lower than the cytoplasmic pH
B) their immediate environment has a pH several units above that of the cytoplasm
C) pH in the immediate environment is equal to that of the cytoplasm
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q5) What are methanotrophs? What is their role in the global carbon cycle?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the broad-spectrum antibiotic erythromycin?
A) It is a polyketide where all R = -CH<sub>3</sub>.
B) It was originally isolated from Streptomyces erythraeus.
C) It is a polyketide where R = -CH<sub>3</sub> or -CO-NH<sub>2</sub>.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Q3) Which of the following is the foundation of most biologically active tetrapyrrole derivatives?
A) chlorophyll
B) 5-aminolevulinic acid
C) uroporphyrinogen III
D) heme
E) cyanocobalamin
Q4) It is thought that the Calvin cycle appeared after the divergence of the three domains of life. What supports this hypothesis?
Q5) Describe how modular enzymes function in polyketide biosynthesis. Why might this be of use medically?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) __________ within the mound of cocoa beans generate(s) heat so that the mound temperature increases up to 50 C.
A) Indigenous fungi
B) Oxidative respiration thermophiles
C) Fermentation
D) Anaerobic respiration
E) Lactic acid bacteria
Q2) NO starter culture is available for which of the following processes?
A) sourdough bread making
B) yogurt making
C) chocolate production
D) cheese making
E) beer making
Q3) Leavening of commercial bread dough is brought about by:
A) CO<sub>2</sub> from injera fermentation
B) CO<sub>2</sub> from ethanolic fermentation of lactic acid bacteria
C) CO<sub>2</sub> from aerobic metabolism of yeasts
D) CO<sub>2</sub> from ethanolic fermentation by Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E) CO<sub>2</sub> from Candida
Q4) What makes a company dealing with industrial microbiology a success?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The sum of all of Earth's life is called:
A) lithosphere
B) mantle
C) core
D) atmosphere
E) biosphere
Q2) The temperature of water cannot drop below freezing and sustain life because:
A) macromolecules will break down
B) nutrients would be trapped in the environment
C) metabolic precursors will become crystalline
D) plasma membrane will freeze
E) metabolic reactions cannot be maintained
Q3) Human diseases caused by defective mitochondrial DNA include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) sickle cell anemia
B) forms of ataxia
C) motor neuron disease
D) Parkinson's disease
E) All of the above are caused by defective mitochondrial DNA.
Q4) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) A bacterial phylum is a group of organisms that share a common ancestor that diverged early from other bacteria, based on:
A) small-subunit (16S) rRNA sequences
B) the presence of certain plasmids
C) their genomic size
D) having 70S or 80S ribosomes
E) the presence or absence of a cell wall
Q2) Dehalobacter restrictus conducts anaerobic respiration by:
A) reducing aromatic rings of lignin-derived compounds
B) donating electrons to Fe<sup>3+</sup>, converting it to Fe<sup>2+ </sup>in mine ores
C) donating electrons to Cl atoms, effectively performing dechlorination
D) donating electrons to NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>, converting via denitrification to NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
E) donating electrons to SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>, converting it to HS<sup>-</sup>
Q3) Why is it that the deep-branching thermophiles may appear to have diverged from other bacteria earlier than they actually did?
Q4) How could nitrifiers be utilized in treatment of wastewater?
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is an extreme acidophile found anchored to deposits of pyrite within the Iron Mountain Mine?
A) Thermus aquaticus
B) Pyrococcus abyssi
C) Ferroplasma acidarmanus
D) Picrophilus torridus
E) Thermoplasma acidophilum
Q2) Describe some of the environments in which haloarchaea are found. What are the differences in these environments?
Q3) Why are hot springs and geysers important habitats for many crenarchaeotes?
Q4) Nanoarchaeum equitans is a hyperthermophilic symbiont of:
A) Ignicoccus
B) Sulfolobus
C) Halobacterium
D) Methanococcus
E) Thermoplasma
Q5) Describe the physiological adaptations found in haloarchaea that compensate for the high internal potassium chloride concentrations.
Q6) Why are extremophiles important to industry?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Alexandrium and Karenia are representative of flagellate, pigmented marine phototrophs responsible for the toxic red tide blooms. These organisms fit in the category of:
A) slime molds
B) yeast
C) diatoms
D) apicomplexan
E) dinoflagellates
Q2) Yarrowia lipolytica is a dimorphic yeast; this means that it can:
A) be single-cellular or form a mycelia
B) form linear or branching hyphae
C) undergo mitosis or meiosis
D) have one or two flagella
E) form aerial or surface mycelium
Q3) The fungus Neocallomastix sp. is found in animal rumens and directly helps with:
A) methanogenesis
B) digestion of tough plant material
C) nutrient absorption through the intestinal wall
D) fermentation processes
E) preventing ulcer formation
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) The __________ region of an oligotrophic lake extends to about 10 meters below the surface.
A) neutron
B) benthic
C) epilimnion
D) hypolimnion
E) none of the above
Q2) How would a high cereal or grain diet for cattle affect the growth of pathogens like E. coli?
Q3) What is a rarefaction curve?
A) the number of sequences generated from a metagenome
B) the number of SSU rRNA sequences in a metagenome
C) the number of SSU rRNA sequences identified as species in a metagenome
D) the number of OTUs from all combined genes in a metagenome
E) none of the above
Q4) What is one major way that wetlands such as the Everglades benefit human communities?
Q5) Explain how endoliths derive energy inside bedrock, where there is no sunlight.
Q6) Explain at least three ways in which metagenomes may miss organisms in the environment.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Household septic systems include a tank that collects sludge and a porous leaching field that receives clarified effluent. How is this similar to or different from municipal wastewater treatment plants?
Q2) Which of the following is assimilated almost entirely in the oxidized state?
A) sulfur
B) nitrogen
C) phosphate
D) carbon
E) none of the above
Q3) Which contaminant in water is especially prevalent in agricultural regions of the United States?
A) carbon
B) sulfur
C) phosphate
D) nitrate
E) magnesium
Q4) What are two mechanisms used by marine organisms to adapt to the paucity of phosphorous supply?
Q5) Describe the difference between a source, sink, and reservoir of an element.
Page 25
Q6) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Neisseria species:
A) are found in the mouth within hours of birth
B) cause serious diarrhea
C) are used as probiotics
D) are obligate intracellular parasites
E) are Gram-positive cocci
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be considered an antigen in the human body?
A) a transplanted cell
B) the herpes virus
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) a lipopolysaccharide
E) a complement protein
Q3) What is the biology underlying the condition of lupus, and how could the symptoms of lupus be lessened on the cellular level?
Q4) Discuss how Propionibacterium acnes-an anaerobic Gram-positive normal flora of the skin-causes acne, especially in teenagers.
Q5) How can an anaerobic microbe grow on the skin or on body parts that are constantly exposed to air?
Q6) How does eating sugar cause dental caries and cavities?
Page 26
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) The small segment of antigen that is capable of eliciting an immune response is called a(n):
A) hapten
B) clonotope
C) aggretope
D) epitope
E) naïve antigen
Q2) List the steps for the classical complement cascade. Discuss two ways this cascade results in microbial destruction.
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest, antigen-specific immune response within a human?
A) an outer membrane protein from Plasmodium falciparium
B) an RNA genome from HIV
C) a DNA genome from herpes
D) a capsular polysaccharide coating from Streptococcus mutans
E) a plasma membrane from Escherichia coli
Q4) Describe the structure of a typical IgG antibody, including the F(ab')<sub>2</sub> and Fc portions.
Q5) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis, but NOT for atopic asthma?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) What do yellow fever and West Nile virus have in common?
A) both cause cancer
B) birds are the reservoir for both viruses
C) both are close relatives of herpes virus
D) both are diarrheagenic viruses
E) both are flaviviruses
Q2) Which of the following are also known as frank, or strict, pathogens?
A) parasites
B) endoparasites
C) ectoparasites
D) primary pathogens
E) opportunistic pathogens
Q3) Which of the following is a nonproteinaceous, yet toxic, compound found in all Gram-negative bacteria?
A) endotoxin
B) exotoxin
C) type I pili
D) type III pili
E) type IV pili
Q4) Define a fomite and give at least two specific examples.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) What disease is caused without an infection?
A) giardiasis
B) tetanus
C) staphylococcal food poisoning
D) candidiasis
E) psittacosis
Q2) Bacille Calmette-Guérin, or BCG, is a weakened strain used to vaccinate against:
A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) pneumonia
E) influenza
Q3) Which of the following is caused by a fungus?
A) folliculitis
B) trichomoniasis
C) blastomycosis
D) listeriosis
E) Lyme disease
Q4) What evidence suggests that Columbus did NOT bring syphilis back from the New World, but instead brought it from Europe to the New World?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Platensimycin is a novel antibiotic that was recently discovered. It has all of the following attributes EXCEPT:
A) it is bacteriostatic
B) it binds FabF protein found in fatty acid biosynthesis
C) it has a broad spectrum of activity
D) it works on both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria
E) it targets the bacterial translation of proteins
Q2) A bacterium may be penicillin resistant due to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Gram-negative cell wall
B) beta-lactase production
C) Gram-positive cell wall
D) modified transpeptidases
E) modified transglycosylases
Q3) A drug designed to poke holes into the plasma membrane of a Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria would best be considered:
A) bactericidal
B) microbe-sensitive
C) semiselective
D) bacteriostatic
E) bacteriocompetent
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Collection of a sample from a patient suspected to have malaria would be performed by:
A) blood draw
B) sputum expectorate
C) tissue needle aspirate
D) lumbar puncture
E) clean-catch sampling
Q2) Collaborations necessary to solve and control a human epidemic include:
A) epidemiologists
B) ecologists
C) veterinarians
D) scientists
E) all of the above
Q3) In real-time quantitative PCR, light emission will result or will become visible in a person who has a hepatitis C infection when:
A) primers bind to viral hepatitis RNA
B) probe oligonucleotide is degraded during PCR
C) cDNA copies are formed
D) fragments are run on a gel and radiolabeled
E) Taq polymerase bind to the cDNA
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) The final step in the marketing process is
A) creating customer value.
B) reviewing customer segments.
C) delivering customer value.
D) managing customer value.
E) understanding customer needs.
Q2) Marketing is not influential in corporate decisions when cost reduction and labour productivity are top-management priorities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The marketing mix includes product, price, advertising, and media placement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The alignment of all of an organization's functions to focus on the customer is called
A) the marketing plan.
B) customer focus.
C) customer satisfaction measurement.
D) a channel strategy.
E) a product strategy.
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) Surveys are not used to generate ideas but to
A) test new product concepts.
B) test key marketing messages.
C) validate ideas.
D) understand the buying process.
E) explore the dimensions of a problem.
Q2) Secondary research cannot identify what gaps exist in knowledge or what traps to avoid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All questionnaires include this class of questions.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) product concept
D) demographic variables
E) participant observation
Q4) A focus group is a guided discussion with a group of respondents such as customers.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) Without market segmentation, salespeople
A) do not know what to offer customers.
B) increase prices.
C) charge for the value they create.
D) withhold too much from the customer.
E) determine the marketing communications strategy.
Q2) A business that first segments its customers by geography, then by size of firm, and finally by customer needs data is
A) targeting too many customers with one offering.
B) over-segmenting.
C) not investing in emerging markets.
D) using the same segmentation as competitors.
E) relying on the easiest segmentation approach.
Q3) Customer segments differ not only in needs, but also in their willingness to pay for your goods and services..
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the ideal method for segmenting customers on the internet?
Q5) If not all customers are created equal, then explain how they differ.
Q6) What is the Values and Lifestyles (VALS) program?
Page 34
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) If Disney wants to develop a new market for participatory vacations, it will need to develop _____________ as specific guidelines.
A) a list of strengths
B) a list of weaknesses
C) a list of opportunities
D) a list of threats
E) a set of objectives
Q2) If Section 6 of the marketing plan is weak, then
A) tactics are not clearly outlined.
B) responsibilities are not fully assigned.
C) it will not follow the timeline.
D) the marketing plan is also weak.
E) it will be over budget.
Q3) The section of the marketing plan that contains all the backup material is the A) market analysis.
B) customer analysis.
C) appendix.
D) marketing plan budget.
E) marketing plan control.
Q4) What are the characteristics of a good executive summary?
Page 35
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) Procter & Gamble made its portfolio much tighter by adding new categories such as pet nutrition and care.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Brand equity is measured on
A) brand awareness, brand associations, and brand loyalty.
B) elements of the marketing mix.
C) the brand's emotional connection with customers.
D) the functional and augmented product.
E) the functional and potential product.
Q3) Brand equity is measured on two dimensions: brand awareness and brand associations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The two types of brand associations that we need to measure are
A) awareness and image.
B) positioning and repositioning.
C) functional and augmented.
D) functional and potential.
E) objective and subjective.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Organizations that use an internally focused approach to pricing start with the A) customer.
B) offer.
C) product.
D) value.
E) channel.
Q2) From 2003 to 2005, global private label brand market share grew by A) 4%.
B) 9%.
C) 13%.
D) 20%.
E) 28%.
Q3) There is a strong possibility that your brand image could be hurt if you drop your price.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Price skimming and price penetration tactics are essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the success of Cirque du Soleil's pricing strategy.
Page 37
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) One of the benefits of Dell's direct channel model is that it allows
A) Dell to receive payment after the product is shipped.
B) for just-in-time inventory management.
C) for face-to-face selling.
D) for a positive cash conversion cycle.
E) Dell to stockpile parts for its computers.
Q2) The most important thing channels move is information. Using the popular fashion retailer Zara as an example, explain this statement.
Q3) Channel strategies impact every aspect of a business.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mismatching a customer's channel preferences with the company's channel strategy has little or no impact on market share.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The direct channel model allows Dell to practice just-in-time (JIT) inventory management, thus keeping its inventory costs at a minimum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) Communicating to customers in a discontinuous fashion is the best and most cost-effective approach.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How has the new paradigm changed customer needs and their responses to marketing communications messages?
Q3) Arbitron's Project Apollo research study aims to link exposure to advertising to
A) geographic location.
B) target demographics.
C) target psychographics.
D) competitors' marketing activities.
E) product purchases.
Q4) The message should be simple, to the point, and differentiated because the target A) may question and doubt the message.
B) may ignore the message.
C) will accept the message as given.
D) is distracted by competing messages.
E) is distracted by the channel.
Q5) Describe three of the guiding principles of integrated marketing communications.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) While having different thought worlds is not necessarily a bad thing, it can have negative consequences if the power of marketing planning is not harnessed with the impact of sales action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One reason the misalignment between marketing and sales exists is because
A) marketing and sales roles are clearly defined.
B) both functions share equal ownership of the customer.
C) they have different views on an organization's strategy.
D) a process has been put in place to link them.
E) they share resources.
Q3) When lacking clear direction from the marketing function, the sales function may take matters into its own hands, resulting in
A) declining sales.
B) a grassroots marketing approach.
C) lower pocket prices.
D) inconsistent advertising.
E) changes to the marketing plan.
Q4) How is the sales function responsible for creating value for the customer?
Q5) What is examined in a sales review?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) The opposite of customer centric is
A) product centric.
B) technology centric.
C) marketing centric.
D) sales centric.
E) research centric.
Q2) Without a total, organization-wide focus on the customer, the best marketing strategies will fail.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When different parts of the company do not focus on the customer, they do not have the same goals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Customer-oriented values and beliefs are uniquely the responsibility of A) senior management.
B) marketing.
C) product sales teams.
D) product managers.
E) product profit centres.
Page 41
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) In the final step of sustaining improvement, Air Products and Chemicals Inc.
A) listens to customers.
B) drives more customer-segment-based information and actions.
C) classifies customers on a loyalty index.
D) focuses on opportunities.
E) communicates customer classifications to employees.
Q2) Loyal customers are the least likely to forgive a business for a negative experience because, once lost, brand loyalty is gone forever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Customers can instantly communicate with the world about problems with a brand using
A) word of mouth.
B) letters to the editor.
C) customer feedback forms.
D) social media.
E) Better Business Bureau forums.
Q4) What positive impacts does a high level of customer satisfaction have on a firm?
Q6) Describe three different types of usage occasions on the web. Page 42
Q5) Provide an example of a company that uses social media to its advantage.
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) When we plot the cost to serve versus net price paid by the customer for an industrial packaging materials supplier, this percentage of customers can be classified as "aggressive."
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 31%
D) 40%
E) 46%
Q2) At the early stages of the purchasing funnel, metrics such as win rate are important. A)True
B)False
Q3) "Some customers are needy, but greedy. I fire them and hope they go to my competitors." Discuss this statement.
Q4) Explain the relationship between marketing metrics and the framework of a purchasing funnel.
Q5) Which factors force reductions in marketing spending and accelerate the transfer of funds and responsibilities to the field sales organization?
Page 44
Q6) Discuss how Bata has placed an emphasis on corporate sustainability.
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