Environmental Microbiology Question
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Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the diversity and roles of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments, emphasizing their interactions with each other and with their surroundings. Topics include microbial ecology, biogeochemical cycles, environmental biotechnology, and the impact of microbes on pollution, water quality, and climate change. Students will gain insights into modern techniques for studying environmental microbes, such as genomics and metagenomics, and examine practical applications in areas like bioremediation, wastewater treatment, and sustainable agriculture. The course integrates case studies to highlight how microbes influence ecosystem health and human welfare.
Recommended Textbook
Living in a Microbial World 1st Edition by Bruce Hofkin
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16 Chapters
208 Verified Questions
208 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Living in a Microbial World
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are not composed of cells?
A) Bacteria and archaea
B) Fungi and protozoa
C) Viruses and prions
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements about a hypothesis is true?
A) A hypothesis is an explanation for a scientific phenomenon that has been repeatedly tested for many years and never disproved.
B) A hypothesis can never be disproved. It can only be proved.
C) A hypothesis is the initial observation of a natural phenomenon that leads to a question.
D) A hypothesis is the question that stems from the observation of a natural phenomenon.
E) A hypothesis is used to make a prediction about a future event that can later be observed or tested experimentally.
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an atom X has an atomic number of 18, then:
A) there are 18 protons.
B) there are 9 protons and 9 electrons.
C) there are 18 neutrons.
D) there are 9 protons and 9 neutrons.
E) it also has a mass number of 18.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A) electrons: negative charge
B) neutrons: no charge
C) protons: positive charge
D) atomic mass number: protons plus electrons
E) uncharged atom: the number of electrons = the number of protons
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the relationship between an atom's stability and its energy. How does this impact an atom's reactivity?
Answer: There is an inverse relationship between an atom's stability and its energy level. They are more likely to interact with other atoms (they are more reactive) when their energy is greater and their stability is lower.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cell: Where Life Begins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane phospholipids:
A) are highly hydrophobic.
B) are highly hydrophilic.
C) have hydrophobic phosphate heads and hydrophilic fatty acid tails.
D) have hydrophilic phosphate heads and hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
E) are found in prokaryotic, but not eukaryotic, cells.
Answer: D
Q2) ________ bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolorizer alcohol is added during the Gram stain procedure.
A) Gram-negative
B) Gram-positive
C) Acid-fast
D) Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive
Answer: A
Q3) What is taxis as it applies to bacteria? What structure does bacteria that are capable of taxis possess?
Answer: Taxis refers to the ability of many bacteria to move toward favorable conditions (positive taxis) or away from unfavorable conditions (negative taxis). Only motile bacteria are capable of taxis. In an almost all cases, motile bacteria rely on flagella.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: A Field Guide to the Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is different about the synthesis stage in a plus- and a minus-strand RNA virus?
Q2) The feeding and reproducing stage of many protozoa is known as a:
A) trophozoite.
B) cyst.
C) vector.
D) protista.
E) mastigophora.
Q3) Which of the following is true about viral penetration?
A) All non-enveloped and enveloped viruses enter host cells via endocytosis.
B) All non-enveloped and enveloped viruses enter host cells via fusion.
C) All non-enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis. All enveloped viruses enter cells by fusion.
D) All non-enveloped viruses enter cells by fusion. All enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis.
E) Non-enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis. Some enveloped viruses also enter by endocytosis, while others enter by fusion.
Q4) What are mycorrhizial relationships? Provide an example.
Q5) How are rRNA genes used to deduce evolutionary relationships?
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Chapter 5: The Microbiology of History and the History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was not cited as a possible partial explanation for the decline of the Roman Empire?
A) pressure from Germanic tribesman along the Empire's northern border
B) declining agricultural production near the capital at Rome
C) the difficulties involved in administrating such a large geographic area
D) epidemic malaria in and around Rome
E) incursions into the empire by Arabic tribesmen from North Africa
Q2) Which of the following statements about the Weil-Felix test for typhus is false?
A) It relies on the fact that antibodies generated against Rickettsia do not react with Proteus OX19.
B) It relies on cross-reactivity between the pathogen and the soil bacterium.
C) When blood serum is drawn from a person to be tested, the serum is mixed with a solution containing Proteus OX19.
D) Humans are not normally infected with Proteus OX19.
E) If the individual being tested is positive, clumping will be seen on the test slide.
Q3) What is the danger associated with agricultural monocultures?
Q4) Why is a large population of hosts more important for the maintenance of a "crowd disease" than it is for other types of diseases?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and describe three distinct ways in which genetic recombination occurs in bacteria.
Q2) ________ use(s) codons to specify which amino acid should be added to the growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) rRNA
E) operons
Q3) In the lac-operon, under which of the following conditions will the repressor protein be bound to its binding site?
A) when the environment contains abundant lactose
B) when the environment is very low in lactose
C) when the inducer is bound to the repressor
D) when RNA polymerase is most able to bind to the promoter
E) when the structural genes of the operon are being transcribed at a maximum rate
Q4) Explain how RNA differs in structure from DNA.
Q5) How does "proofreading" by DNA polymerase occur during DNA replication?
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Chapter 7: Metabolism and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A photoautotroph is a microorganism that uses ________ as its carbon source and ________ as its energy source.
A) organic molecules; organic molecules
B) inorganic molecules; organic molecules
C) CO<sub>2 </sub>; inorganic molecules
D) CO<sub>2</sub>; sunlight
Q2) If the final electron acceptor is not present, which of the following still occurs?
A) the pumping of protons across a membrane
B) the production of ATP by the ATP synthase complex
C) the final oxidation of biological molecules in the Krebs cycle
D) the release of electrons to components of the electron transport chain by NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>
E) fermentation
Q3) When cells catabolize biological molecules for the purposes of ATP production, energy in the biological molecule is released in a large number of small steps, rather than in a single large step. Why is this necessary?
Q4) Describe how ATP is produced in electron transport.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Evolution: the Origin and Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is believed that mitochondria were acquired by primitive eukaryotic cells before chloroplasts were. What is the evidence for this?
Q2) Molecules composed of RNA that have enzymatic activity are known as: A) ribosomes.
B) RNases.
C) catalases.
D) ribozymes.
E) nucleases.
Q3) An experiment by Stanley Miller in the 1950s demonstrated that abiotic synthesis of organic molecules could occur:
A) in a reducing environment.
B) in an oxidizing environment.
C) on the ocean floor.
D) at extremely high temperatures.
E) at extremely low temperatures.
Q4) Explain the rationale for the "RNA world" hypothesis.
Q5) Why is it that natural selection can never result in organisms that are perfectly adapted to their environment?
10
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Chapter 9: An Ecologists Guide to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements comparing freshwater and marine environments is true?
A) The marine environment is generally far more stable than the freshwater environment.
B) A seasonal thermocline may develop in a marine environment, but not a freshwater environment.
C) Benthic zones occur in marine environments, but not in freshwater environments.
D) In a marine environment, the pelagic zone usually has the highest species diversity, while in freshwater environments, diversity in the pelagic zone is usually low.
E) In marine environments, phosphorus is usually the principal factor limiting microbial growth. In freshwater environments, iron is usually the most principal limiting factor.
Q2) Most of the bacteria that live in lakes can be classified as:
A) oligotrophs.
B) eutrophs.
C) Gram-positive.
D) Gram-negative.
E) thermophiles.
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Chapter 10: The Nature of Disease: a Pathogens Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are symptoms in a host, such as diarrhea in the case of intestinal disease, or sneezing and coughing in the case of respiratory disease, beneficial from the perspective of some pathogens that cause these diseases?
Q2) How does our normal flora protect us from some infections by pathogens?
Q3) Eradication of any pathogen is very unlikely unless that pathogen uses:
A) human reservoirs only.
B) animal reservoirs only.
C) environmental reservoirs only.
D) human or animal reservoirs.
E) animal or environmental reservoirs.
Q4) In a latent viral infection:
A) there is rapid viral replication in an infected cell.
B) there is slow viral replication in an infected cell.
C) there is no viral replication in an infected cell.
D) numerous inclusion bodies are visible in the cytoplasm of an infected cell.
E) we expect oncogenes to be activated, leading to tumor formation.
Q5) What is the difference between biological vector transmission and mechanical vector transmission?
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Chapter 11: Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how cells of the innate immune system activate the adaptive immune system under certain circumstances.
Q2) In what way can the fever response be used to illustrate the point that response to pathogens can both be protective and harmful?
Q3) Which of the following vaccine types best mimics a genuine infection?
A) a vaccine made with an attenuated pathogen
B) a vaccine made with an inactivated pathogen
C) a subunit vaccine
D) Both "a" and "c" closely mimic a genuine infection.
E) Both "b" and "c" closely mimic a genuine infection.
Q4) Which of the following immune system structures and their associated function is not correct?
A) thymus: maturation of T-cells
B) lymph node: generation of adaptive immune responses in tissues
C) spleen: generation of adaptive immune responses in the blood
D) liver: maturation of B-cells
E) skin: a barrier to entry
Q5) How does HIV reduce immune function?
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Chapter 12: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations might a broad spectrum drug be preferable to a narrow spectrum drug?
A) when the patient is infected with an unknown pathogen
B) when the patient is immunocompromised
C) when Gram-negative bacteria have infected an ordinarily sterile region of the body
D) in a well-oxygenated region of the body
E) when the patient is in danger of going into shock from endotoxin poisoning
Q2) Sulfa drugs:
A) act by interfering with cell wall synthesis.
B) bind to and interfere with bacterial ribosomes.
C) interfere with bacterial DNA replicaton.
D) interfere with the activity of a bacterial enzyme.
E) disrupt the production of mycolic acids by acid-fast bacteria.
Q3) In what situations would UV radiation be an appropriate method for microbial control?
Q4) How does stopping an antibiotic prescription prematurely contribute to the development of drug resistance?
Q5) What are some of the problems associated with the development of antiviral drugs?
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Chapter 13: Epidemiology: Who, What, When, Where, and Why
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is antigenic drift? Why are RNA viruses more prone to this phenomenon than DNA viruses are?
Q2) Describe the design of a case-control study and how it is used to identify the cause of an epidemic.
Q3) Which of the following pathogens would most likely be used as a bioterrorism agent?
A) Pathogen A: an obligate anaerobe
B) Pathogen B: an obligate aerobe
C) Pathogen C: a Gram-positive bacterial species
D) Pathogen D: a RNA virus
E) Pathogen E: a spore-former
Q4) The likelihood of a host-to-host epidemic is highest when:
A) the proportion of immune individuals in a population is below the epidemic threshold.
B) the proportion of immune individuals in a population is above the epidemic threshold.
C) the proportion of immune individuals in a population is at the epidemic threshold.
D) anytime the proportion of immune individuals in a population rises above 50%.
E) the second time a pathogen is introduced into a particular population.
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Chapter 14: The Future Is Here: Microorganisms and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Southern blotting can be used to:
A) insert donor DNA into recipient DNA.
B) determine if a specific gene is present in a DNA molecule.
C) separate DNA fragments based on size.
D) make many copies of a particular gene.
E) determine the exact nucleotide sequence in a DNA molecule.
Q2) The sequencing of the human genome has shown us that:
A) the number of genes in the human genome is much smaller than previously thought. B) the number of genes in the human genome is much larger than previously thought.
C) the number of genes in the human genome is about the same number as previously thought.
D) the DNA of humans is much different from that of even our closest nonhuman ancestors.
Q3) What is the polymerase chain reaction? Briefly state how it works.
Q4) One of the concerns about genetically modified plants is how they might affect wild plants. In what way? Why is this worrisome?
Q5) What exactly is a DNA library? What is a genomic library?
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Chapter 15: Guess Whos Coming to Dinner: Microorganisms and
Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way are microorganisms used in the production of coffee?
A) Extracts of coffee beans are fermented by bacteria.
B) Extracts of coffee beans are fermented by yeast.
C) Extracts of coffee beans are first fermented by yeast. Fermentation waste products released by the yeast are then converted in different products by aerobic bacteria.
D) Microorganisms that grow naturally on coffee beans provide the coffee with desirable flavors.
E) Bacteria are used to remove the coating of coffee beans prior to roasting.
Q2) In which of the following products does fermentation of the must occur?
A) cheese
B) bread
C) beer
D) wine
E) sauerkraut
Q3) The fermentation of most bread and alcoholic beverages relies on:
A) fermentation by Gram-positive bacteria.
B) fermentation by Gram-negative bacteria.
C) fermentation by single-celled fungi.
D) fermentation by filamentous fungi.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Better Living With Microorganisms: Industrial and Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolites are:
A) the substrate that is converted into a useful product by microorganisms.
B) an intermediate compound in a biochemical pathway, the final product of which is a useful product.
C) the final product in a biochemical pathway.
D) either "a" or "c" above
E) either "b" or "c" above
Q2) What exactly is the biopesticide Bt? Why is this product, which kills garden pests, not a danger to humans, pets, or other animals?
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an extremozyme?
A) a microorganism that is isolated from a very hot, thermal pool of water
B) the Taq polymerase, isolated from Thermus aquaticus, which is used in PCR
C) a cellulase enzyme, which can digest cellulose, used in a stain remover
D) a biopesticide used to control insect pests in the garden
E) a microorganism used in nanotechnology
Q4) In what way does metabolite production by a microorganism often depend on other microorganisms that may be found in the same environment?
Q5) Why does compost tend to heat up over time? Why is it beneficial to periodically turn the compost?
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