Environmental Microbiology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles, diversity, and activities of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. This course examines microbial life in soil, water, air, and extreme habitats, highlighting their contributions to nutrient cycling, biodegradation, and ecosystem functioning. Students will investigate interactions between microbes and other organisms, including humans, and analyze the effects of environmental factors on microbial communities. Topics also cover applications such as bioremediation, wastewater treatment, and the use of microbes in monitoring environmental health, integrating both molecular and classical approaches to studying microbial ecology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn
G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) The field of ___________ involves studying how a person defends herself against microbial infection.
A) molecular biology
B) virology
C) mycology
D) immunology
Answer: D
Q2) Louis Pasteur made several important contributions to microbiology. These included studying wine making,diseases in silkworms and which of the following:
A) associated diseases with multiple different organisms, such as the 3 different organisms which caused the same silkworm disease
B) developing the first rabies vaccine
C) used swan-necked flasks to prove that air contained the vital force that brought microbes
D) discovering a method to introduce unwanted organisms into food and wine
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two or more atoms combine to form
A) a cation.
B) a molecule.
C) a protein.
D) an ion.
Answer: B
Q2) What is true about oxidation?
A) the more oxidized a molecule the less energy it contains
B) is the removal of oxygen or the addition of hydrogen or electrons to a substance
C) gasoline represents the extreme of energy-rich oxidized compounds
D) oxidation reactions only occur in polar compounds
Answer: A
Q3) Water plays an important role in the chemical reactions in cells,including
A) denaturing proteins
B) stabilizing the primary structure of a protein
C) forming covalent bonds with proteins
D) breaking down large proteins into amino acids in hydrolysis reactions
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electron microscopes use ________ to focus the electron beam.
A) glass lenses
B) electromagnets
C) mechanical stages
D) laser beams
Answer: B
Q2) Ultraviolet light is a key component of
A) bright-field microscopy
B) dark-field microscopy
C) phase-contrast microscopy
D) fluorescence microscopy
Answer: D
Q3) During microscopic observation of a specimen,the amount of light that is allowed to pass through the specimen is controlled by the A) condenser
B) objective lens
C) iris diaphragm
D) ocular lens
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) An organic molecule which moves down its concentration gradient and across a pore in a cell membrane without energy being expended by the cell is experiencing A) simple diffusion
B) osmosis
C) active transport
D) facilitated diffusion
Q2) A typical bacterial cell has a salt concentration of about 1%. If the cell is placed in a solution containing 10% salt,the net flow of water will be A) out of the cell
B) into the cell
C) equally in and out of the cell
D) none of the above since water doesn't cross bacterial cell membranes
Q3) Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using A) conjugation pili
B) fimbriae
C) axial filaments
D) lophotrichous flagella
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) In glycolysis each molecule of glucose eventually produces ________ molecules of pyruvic acid.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q2) Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Is fermentation aerobic or anaerobic respiration? Can you think of any advantage afforded to those microorganisms that can carry out fermentation?
Q3) Each acetyl-CoA molecule will eventually produce ________ in the Krebs cycle.
A) four pairs of electrons
B) three molecules of NAD
C) one molecule of GTP
D) two molecules of pyruvic acid
Q4) The green sulfur and purple sulfur bacteria are capable of
A) carrying out photosynthesis
B) only obtaining energy from organic molecules
C) bypassing glycolysis for the Krebs cycle
D) metabolizing without enzymes
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Starch would be broken down to maltose by which of the following exoenzymes?
A) gelatinase
B) amylase
C) caseinase
D) lipase
Q2) In the stationary phase of bacterial growth
A) The number of newly generated cells is greater than the number of dying cells
B) The number of newly generated cells is less than the number of dying cells
C) The number of newly generated cells is the same as the number of dying cells
D) none of the above
Q3) Bacterial growth in colonies on agar plates
A) have all phases of growth occurring simultaneously somewhere in the colony
B) most growth occurs at the center of the colony
C) involves budding of small new colonies from the surface of an existing colony
D) have lag phase cells in the center of the colony, surrounded by a ring of cells in exponential phase
Q4) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria don't continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes with different information at the same locus are called
A) chromosomes
B) homologs
C) plasmids
D) alleles
Q2) A mRNA molecule can be broken down into three nucleotide units called
A) amino acids
B) bases
C) codons
D) anticodons
Q3) Which statement about mutations is false?
A) a mutation can alter the genotype of an organism without altering the phenotype
B) frameshift mutations are typically more serious than point mutations
C) spontaneous mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens
D) photoreactivation can take place in non-photosynthetic bacteria
Q4) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that translate genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) F' plasmids
A) are responsible for high frequency recombination
B) carry some chromosomal genes
C) are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome D) none of the above
Q2) In horizontal gene transfer
A) genes are passed between bacteria of different generations
B) genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells C) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation D) none of the above
Q3) Bacteriocins
A) are resistance molecules found on plasmids
B) are inhibited by UV exposure
C) are growth-inhibiting proteins that inhibit strains closely related to the producer D) only exist in eukaryotic organisms
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) In phage typing,bacteria that are lysed by the same type of bacteriophage are thought to be
A) more closely related to one another
B) less closely related to one another
C) more closely related to the bacteriophage
D) less closely related to the bacteriophage
Q2) Which of the following organisms shows the proper use of binomial nomenclature?
A) Escherichia Coli
B) Escherichia coli
C) escherichia coli
Q3) Before bacteria received a kingdom of their own they were generally classified along with
A) plants
B) animals
C) fungi
D) viruses
Q4) What is a species? How are species determined for bacteria and plants/animals?
Discuss whether you believe that the species concept is better than identifying microbes based on their ecological niche (habitat,functions,etc.)or based on phylogenetic/evolutionary relationships.
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Why is there concern about the recent outbreak of avian influenza in Netherlands? Because
A) avian influenza may infect humans.
B) human influenza may exchange genetic material with avian influenza and infect humans.
C) avian influenza may spread to other countries.
D) avian influenza may change to another virus that could infect humans.
Q2) Assembly of new viral components into a complete virion takes place during viral A) maturation
B) adsorption
C) penetration
D) synthesis
Q3) Some viruses have a lipid bilayer,also known as the viral envelope. The viral envelope most likely comes from the following source:
A) host cell plasma membrane
B) host membrane bound organelles
C) host nucleus
D) another virus
Q4) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Undercooked pork is most likely to pass along A) Schistosoma
B) Tania
C) Wuchereria
D) Trichinella
Q2) Parasites are dependent on their hosts for survival. Which organism do you think is better adapted to a parasitic lifestyle,one that is virulent and often kills its host,or one that only causes mild chronic illness in its host? For vector-transmitted parasites there are two hosts involved in the lifecycle,how does that complicate adaptation to the human host?
Q3) Instead of a cell wall,many protists have a flexible outer covering called a A) ciliate
B) pellicle
C) hyphae
D) redia
Q4) Protozoa which are motile by means of flagella are members of the A) mastigophorans
B) sarcodines
C) apicomplexans
D) ciliates
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do not affect viruses?
A) alkylating agents
B) detergents
C) alcohols
D) halogens
Q2) Which is a good method to sterilize food?
A) freezing
B) lyophilization
C) drying
D) two of the above
Q3) All of the following are examples of general types of radiation except
A) ultraviolet light
B) ionization
C) microwaves
D) ultrasonic waves
Q4) Filtering water through paper
A) reduces contamination
B) sterilizes the water
C) prevents the spoilage of foods
D) two of the above
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis
A) by disrupting cell membrane fraction
B) by binding to 80S ribosomal subunits
C) by interfering with the accurate reading of the mRNA message
D) by binding to a 60S ribosomal subunit
Q2) Cephalosporins are not
A) wide spectrum antibiotics
B) antibiotics with few side effects
C) disruptors of cell membrane function
D) used prophylactically in patients undergoing surgery
Q3) The sulfonamide antibiotics kill bacteria by
A) interfering with cell wall synthesis
B) disrupting folic acid metabolism
C) reacting with bacterial cell membranes
D) inhibiting bacterial motility
Q4) Rimantadine is an effective antimicrobial agent against:
A) viruses
B) protozoa
C) bacteria
D) fungi
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Transposal of virulence is all of the following except
A) a laboratory technique in which a pathogen is passed from its normal host to a new host
B) involves animal passaging experiments to adapt a pathogen to its normal host
C) was used by Pasteur to prepare rabies virus
D) increases the virulence for the new host but may reduce the virulence in the normal host
Q2) A healthcare worker fails to follow aseptic procedures while cleaning a wound,washes his hands properly afterwards and suffers no ill effects-this is an example of:
A) commensalism
B) infection
C) infestation
D) contamination
Q3) Which of the factors below is not considered to be an example of a virulence factor?
A) prodrome
B) leukostatin
C) streptokinase
D) adhesions
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Guidelines published by the CDC in order to reduce risk of disease are called:
A) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report
B) Weekly Epidemiological Record
C) Notifiable Diseases List
D) Universal Precautions
Q2) Fomites are
A) involved in direct vertical contact transmission
B) a cloud of tiny water droplets suspended in air
C) nonliving objects
D) mainly transmit dried mucus
Q3) In herd immunity,typically 90% of the population is __________ while 10 % is __________ to an infectious disease.
A) susceptible, immune
B) immune, infected
C) infected, susceptible
D) immune, susceptible
Q4) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) The spleen
A) along with the thymus gland and the skin are all lymphoid organs
B) contains lymph nodes that filter microbes from the lymph
C) filters material but does not contain phagocytes
D) two of the above
Q2) What chemical substance diffuses into venules and capillaries causing their vasodilation during inflammation?
A) bradykinin
B) antibradykinin
C) histamine
D) antihistamine
Q3) What occurs in a lymph node?
A) lymph moves in two directions
B) lymph enters sinuses where there are aggregations of B cells
C) bacteria are removed by phagocytes and the adaptive immune response is initiated
D) only lymphocytes flow through the lymph nodes therefore they are not a site of infection
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Colostrum which contains large amounts of antibodies passed on to an infant from a mother during breast-feeding,is an example of what type of immunity?
A) acquired active artificial
B) acquired active natural
C) acquired passive natural
D) acquired passive artificial
Q2) The ability of the specific immune system to recognize self from non-self is mediated by
A) cross reaction
B) clonal selection
C) gamma globulin
D) species immunity
Q3) Injection of a patient with ready-made antibodies produced in a different host is an example of what type of immunity?
A) acquired active artificial
B) acquired active natural
C) acquired passive natural
D) acquired passive artificial
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) All of the following can occur after tissue transplantation except
A) tissue transplants may be rejected and destroyed by the host's immune system
B) the host immune system can become tolerant to the transplanted tissue
C) tissue transplants can launch a cell-mediated response against the recipient's tissue
D) all immune rejection occurs either at the time of the graft or within days after
Q2) Type II hypersensitivities appear to be responsible for the tissue damage in all of the following except
A) rheumatic fever following strep throat infections
B) transfusion reactions
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) lupus erythematosus
Q3) Antihistamines and/or desensitization may be effective in relieving the symptoms of
A) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B) Immune complex hypersensitivity
C) Immediate hypersensitivity
D) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Athlete's foot is a type of
A) ringworm
B) subcutaneous fungal infection
C) opportunistic fungal infection
D) a tiny worm-like parasite
Q2) Which correctly matches the disease caused by VZV virus?
A) shingles - virus is carried in blood to various tissues
B) chickenpox - confined to a single region supplied by a particular nerve
C) chickenpox - is due to latent virus that is reactivated
D) shingles - occurs when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
Q3) Which of the following is not considered resident microflora of the skin?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Corynebacterium
C) E.coli
D) Demodex
Q4) Human bites can cause an opportunistic infection with
A) Pasteurella multocida
B) Eikenella corrodens
C) Eubacterium yurii
D) Streptobacillus moniliformis
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Donovan bodies are diagnostic mononuclear cells from lesions associated with A) non-gonococcal urethritis
B) lymphogranuloma
C) granuloma inguinale
D) Chlamydia infections
Q2) Prostatitis is characterized by all of the following except
A) urgent & frequent urination
B) blood in urine
C) low fever
D) back pain
Q3) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A) Herpes Whitlow - fingers
B) HSV 2 - genital herpes
C) HSV 1 -- labial fever blisters
D) Herpes gladiatorium -- pneumonia
Q4) Diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginitis is made by the appearance of
A) anaerobes in a microscope slide
B) clue cells
C) epithelial cells
D) endotoxin
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about diptheria is incorrect?
A) A prophage carries the exotoxin producing gene.
B) An epidemic of diphtheria killed numerous people in the former Soviet Union.
C) The bacteria are Gram-negative rods.
D) The bacteria are in a palisade arrangement and have metachromatic granules.
Q2) The following statements about tuberculosis are all true except
A) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare causes TB in AIDS patients
B) the pathogens have long generation time (12-18 hours)
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most common causative agent
D) the pathogens are very sensitive to drying and die quickly in the environment
Q3) Influenza exhibits antigenic drift which involves
A) mutations in genes for hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
B) gene reassortment due to multiple viral infections
C) mutations in envelope phospholipids
D) mutations in capsid proteins
Q4) The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by
A) mild, dry, persistent cough
B) a migraine headache
C) violent coughing
D) pseudomembrane forming in throat
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following protozoal infections is self-limiting in healthy individuals and has no effective treatment?
A) Balantidiasis
B) Cyclosporoiasis
C) Cryptosporidiosis
D) Amoebic dysentery
Q2) Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
Q3) Which of the following correctly matches the oral cavity disease with the organism responsible?
A) gingivitis -- Porphyromonas
B) periodontal disease -- Helicobacter pylori
C) orchitis - paramyxovirus
D) dental caries - Streptococcus mutans
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Bartonellosis is seen mainly in
A) the western slopes of the Andes
B) Amazon jungle areas
C) sub-Saharan Africa
D) Central America
Q2) Aplastic crisis caused by an Erythrovirus is characterized by
A) destruction of platelets
B) destruction of RBCs
C) destruction of plasma
D) destruction of WBCs
Q3) Normal microflora of the cardiovascular system include
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) parvovirus
C) Escherichia coli
D) none of the above
Q4) Which infection refers to inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart?
A) septicemia
B) rheumatic fever
C) bacterial endocardiatis
D) puerperal fever
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Herpes meningoencephalitis usually follows
A) a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract
B) a generalized herpes infection
C) a fever blister outbreak
D) an outbreak of genital herpes
Q2) The most common domestic rabid animals in the United States are
A) dogs
B) ferrets
C) cats
D) bats
Q3) A foodborne pathogen that can cause meningitis is
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria meningitidis
Q4) Mycobacterium leprae is difficult to cultivate but it can be grown
A) on blood agar
B) in armadillos
C) in tissue culture
D) in embryonated eggs
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following statements about soil is false?
A) anywhere in the soil you can find snottites
B) viruses can be used for biocontrol of insect pests in soil
C) humus is the nonliving organic matter in soil
D) carbon in the soil is continuously recycled
Q2) The primary producers in the ocean are
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) phytoplankton
D) two of the above
Q3) The trickling filter system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with A) Sphaerotilus
B) Pseudomonas
C) Beggiatoa
D) two of the above
Q4) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true?
A) not all living microbes require carbon
B) nitrogen fixing bacteria must be in association with legumes
C) Thiobacillus oxidizes hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid
D) Cyanobacteria are the primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) To be suitable for industrial use,a microorganism should
A) grow rapidly and produce product in a relatively short period of time.
B) be capable of growth and product formation in large scale culture.
C) be genetically stable.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Floppy baby syndrome is caused by
A) Bacillus species in milk
B) Clostridium botulinum in milk
C) Clostridium botulinum in honey
D) Bacillus in honey
Q3) Why is salmonella so often responsible for foodborne illnesses? Through what routes can it enter eggs? What are the safeguards one can take to protect against Salmonella-contaminated poultry,eggs and meats?
Q4) Antibiotics are not added to foods and milk in the United States because A) resistant strains of pathogens might arise from the process
B) humans might become allergic to antibiotics
C) antibiotics might interfere with the activities of microbes essential for fermenting milk and making cheese
D) all of the above
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