

Environmental Microbiology
Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and interactions of microorganisms within natural and engineered environments. The course covers microbial diversity, physiology, and ecology, focusing on how bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microbes influence soil, water, air, and extreme habitats. Students will examine the impact of microorganisms on biogeochemical cycles, environmental pollution, biotechnology applications, and public health. Through case studies and laboratory approaches, the course also introduces methods for detecting and monitoring microbial activity in various environments.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last Universal Common Ancestor would show Archaea
A)branching off the Domain Bacteria.
B)branching off the Domain Eukarya.
C)as the original cells from which the others derived.
Answer: B
Q3) Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A)microbes are found on dust particles.
B)a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
C)microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
D)a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
E)life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7
A)is more basic.
B)has more H<sup>+</sup> ions.
C)has a higher pH.
D)has no OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
Answer: B
Q2) Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 is
A)20 times more basic.
B)2 times more acidic.
C)100 times more acidic.
D)100 times more basic.
E)20 times more acidic.
Answer: C
Q3) The electrons of an atom are
A)used to determine the atomic weight.
B)always equal to the number of protons.
C)carrying a positive charge.
D)always in full orbitals.
E)used to determine the atomic number.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is essential for the development of discrete, isolated colonies?
A)Solid medium
B)Differential medium
C)Broth medium
D)Assay medium
E)Selective medium
Answer: A
Q3) The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs ______.
A)resolution
B)contrast
C)illumination
D)size of the field
E)magnification
Answer: A

Page 5
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell envelope of gram-positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of ______.
A)acid-fast bacteria
B)gram-positive bacteria
C)gram-negative bacteria
D)mycoplasmas
E)protoplasts
Q3) Some bacteria have a cytoskeleton of sterols to help maintain their shape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The reference for bacterial descriptions and classifications is _____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.
A)Leeuwenhoek's
B)Lister's
C)Koch's
D)Bergey's
E)Pasteur's

Page 6
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal asexual spores
A)produce offspring with different combinations of genes from the parent.
B)cannot be seen using a light microscope.
C)are produced when nutrients are limiting.
D)are the products of meiotic division by a single parent cell.
E)are used to identify fungi.
Q2) Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through
A)contaminated blood products.
B)insect bites.
C)puncture wounds.
D)the fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water.
E)direct transmission from one host to another.
Q3) The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired cilia by endosymbiosis with a(n) _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a(n) _____ ancestor.
A)archaeal, cyanobacterial
B)protozoan, algal
C)spiral, cyanobacterial
D)helminth, algal
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Page 7

Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
A)penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, and release.
B)uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, and release.
C)adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, and release.
D)assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, and adsorption.
E)adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, and penetration.
Q2) Viral classification has changed over the years and while they are given genus names, the use of species names has not been widely accepted.This is because
A)viruses are not organisms.
B)viruses change over time making species characteristics difficult to stabilize.
C)viruses that could be classified into a single species may have many, but not all, properties in common.
D)All of the above are arguments against using species designations for viruses.
Q3) Lysogeny refers to
A)altering the host range of a virus.
B)the latent state of herpes infections.
C)virions exiting host cell.
D)the viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called ______.
A)lithoautotrophs
B)parasites
C)autotrophs
D)saprobes
E)phototrophs
Q2) Facilitated diffusion is limited by
A)osmotic pressure.
B)the size of the pores in the membrane.
C)the size of the cell.
D)the substrate concentration.
E)carrier proteins in the membrane.
Q3) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ______.
A)symbiosis
B)synergism
C)antibiosis
D)mutualism

Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterium that you isolated from pond water appears to use light for energy.Based upon this information, you inoculate the organism into fresh media, infused with lots of carbon dioxide.Even after incubation at the correct temperature (of pond water), the organism is not growing.Your best explanation of what might have happened is A)there was no sulfur compound added to the medium, that could be used as an electron donor.
B)no oxygen was added to the medium so the organism died.
C)there is some inhibitory chemical that is preventing the growth of the bacterium. D)you were using the wrong type of sunlight as the energy source for the bacterium.
Q2) An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they are missing or lack expression of ______.
A)cytochrome C oxidase
B)NAD
C)mitochondria
D)ATP synthase
E)coenzyme Q
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation.
A)point
B)silent
C)back
D)missense
E)nonsense
Q2) The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.
A)conjugation
B)transposons
C)transformation
D)transduction
E)transmission
Q3) The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them is _______.
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA gyrase
E)primase
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.
A)Pseudomonas syringae
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Pseudomonas fluorescens
D)Escherichia coli
E)Thermus aquaticus
Q2) The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather.This product contains a strain of ______.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Thermus aquaticus
D)Pseudomonas fluorescens
E)Pseudomonas syringae
Q3) When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Iodophor - iodine
B)Sodium hypochlorite - chlorine
C)Merthiolate - silver
D)Benzalkonium chloride - quaternary ammonium compound
E)Formalin - formaldehyde
Q2) Which of the following is not true of chloramines?
A)They contain chlorine.
B)They are used to treat wounds and skin surfaces.
C)They are safer than free chlorine.
D)They can sanitize and disinfect.
E)They form trihalomethanes with organic compounds.
Q3) Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine is optimally achieved by ______.
A)filtration
B)chlorination
C)pasteurization
D)boiling water
E)moist heat autoclave
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aminoglycosides
A)destroy peptidoglycan.
B)are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D)damage cell membranes.
E)block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Q2) The first modern antimicrobial drugs were sulfa drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by ______.
A)influenza A virus
B)HIV
C)herpes simplex virus
D)respiratory syncytial virus
E)hepatitis C virus
Q4) The use of antibiotics in cattle feed leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a ______.
A)fomite
B)carrier
C)vector
D)reservoir
E)source
Q2) A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth.This specimen was from an HIV positive patient.If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is ______.
A)direct
B)fomite
C)vehicle
D)droplet nuclei
E)aerosol
Q3) An epigenetic change is one that occurs when a microbial cell produces a toxin or an exoenzyme that directly damages host cells.
A)True
B)False

Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following are benefits of fever except
A)it increases the availability of iron.
B)it increases metabolism.
C)it stimulates hematopoiesis.
D)it increases phagocytosis.
E)it reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply.
Q2) Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except
A)the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
B)the flushing action of tears and blinking.
C)nasal hairs.
D)phagocytic white blood cells.
E)the flushing action of urine.
Q4) The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide
A)surveillance cells.
B)a connection between tissues and organs.
C)filtration of extracellular fluid.
D)filtration of blood.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the statements below represents the correct order of events in the adaptive immune response?
A)Lymphocyte challenge, antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response
B)Antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response
C)Antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response
D)Lymphocyte development, antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response
Q2) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A)Opsonization
B)Agglutination
C)Anamnestic response
D)Neutralization
E)Complement fixation
Q3) Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens.
A)True
B)False

Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is to
A)test for the allergen in the blood.
B)test for levels of IgE specific for the allergen.
C)test for high levels of IgG in the serum.
D)inject high levels of the allergen so see if the patient goes into anaphylactic shock.
Q2) Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor,
A)all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk.
B)she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C)she can never again have a low risk pregnancy.
D)only future Rh- fetuses are at risk.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In precipitation tests, the antigen
A)-antibody complex settles to the bottom of the tube.
B)is a whole cell.
C)is an insoluble molecule.
D)is a soluble molecule.
Q2) A direct immunofluorescence test involves a(n)
A)agglutination reaction.
B)lysis reaction.
C)known antibody binding to an unknown antigen.
D)precipitation reaction.
Q3) Biochemical tests include all of the following except A)gas production tests.
B)sugar fermentation tests.
C)antibiotic sensitivity tests.
D)ribotyping tests.
E)tests for the presence of specific enzymes.
Q4) An infectious organism isolated from a patient has a sequence on its genome TATTGAAGC.This will hybridize to the RNA probe UAUUGAAGC.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is ______.
A)enterotoxin
B)hemolysin
C)exfoliative toxin
D)erythrogenic toxin
E)toxic shock syndrome toxin
Q2) Which of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched?
A)Antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes
B)Sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth
C)Lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
D)Keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing
Q3) Current recommendations for the treatment of MRSA infections in the United States will change based on
A)patterns of antibiotic resistance.
B)the cost of different antibiotics.
C)the availability of different antibiotics.
D)congressional approval.
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A)It is a small, gram-negative coccus.
B)It is the most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis.
C)It has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis.
D)It produces an alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide.
Q2) Which type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system?
A)Macrophages
B)Neurons
C)Astrocytes
D)Schwann cells
E)Microglial cells
Q3) Poliovirus initially multiplies in the ______.
A) lymphoid tissue
B) central nervous system
C) nasopharynx
D) intestine
E) basal ganglia
Q4) Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding erhlichiosis is incorrect?
A)It often coinfects with Borrelia burgdorferi.
B)Treatment requires an extensive course of antibiotics, usually 3-6 weeks.
C)The disease vector is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.
D)Symptoms include fever, headache, and muscle pains.
E)The disease is diagnosed by PCR or indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
Q2) Which of the following are features that make Bacillus anthracis a potential bioterrorism weapon?
A)It is naturally occurring worldwide in soil, and intentional release may not be suspected.
B)It forms endospores that can be stored in powder form indefinitely.
C)Pulmonary anthrax is rapidly fatal.
D)Vaccination is not widespread in the United States.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Which of these diseases would most likely be identified by viewing a stained blood smear in a light microscope?
A)Chagas disease
B) Dengue fever
C) HIV
D)Ebola hemorrhagic fever

Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary bacterial infections may occur with the common cold.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pneumonias have different signs and symptoms depending on whether they are classified as CAP or HCAP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the ______.
A)auditory canal
B)sinuses
C)nasal cavity
D)eustachian (auditory) tubes
E)subarachnoid space
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of Histoplasma capsulatum?
A) It grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat droppings.
B) It is a protozoan.
C)It is a dermatophyte.
D)It grows in dry, arid soil.

Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding schistosomiasis is incorrect?
A)There is only a single drug available to treat Schistosoma infection, praziquantel, and drug-resistant strains are beginning to arise.
B)Once a person has recovered from an infection with Schistosoma mansoni, they are protected with lifelong immunity.
C)Efficacy of treatment is assess by observing fecal samples placed in water for whether eggs can hatch to release live miracidia.
D)Schistosomiasis is transmitted by exposing the skin to a water source that has been contaminated with sewage.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of enterotoxigenic
A)It causes traveler's diarrhea.
B)It can be life-threatening in infants.
C)It causes a high fever.
D)Fluid replacement is vital to surviving an infection.
E)coli (ETEC)?
Q3) The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) In the final trimester of pregnancy, your test results came back positive for an infection that would likely be damaging for the newborn, so your doctor wants to prescribe an antibiotic.What organism is the likely culprit here?
A)Group B Streptococcus
B) Herpes simplex 2
C) Leptospira
D) Trichomonas
Q2) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The latency period of syphilis is ______.
A)3 to 6 months
B)1 year
C)10 years
D) 20 years or longer
Q4) Which of the following characteristics can distinguish vaginitis and vaginosis?
A)Causative agent
B)Presence of vaginal inflammation
C)Presence of discharge
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is a source of methane?
A)Gastrointestinal tract of cattle and sheep
B)Photosynthesis from halophiles in the Dead Sea
C)Decomposition of organic detritus on the forest floor
D)Degradation of cellulose and lignin by fungi
E)All of these processes produce methane.
Q2) Phytoplankton is composed of protozoa and small invertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Metagenomic analysis involves DNA sequencing of various samples taken from a particular habitat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following types of microbes is most likely to be found in the sediment of Lake Michigan?
A)Mesophiles; temperatures in the hypolimnion support growth in the 4-9°C range
B)Autotrophs; their carbon source is dissolved carbon dioxide
C)Cyanobacteria; seasonal upwelling of nutrients can cause dramatic increases in their numbers
D)Anaerobes; oxygen is least abundant in the sediment layer
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes
A)high temperature and pressure.
B)pasteurization.
C)refrigeration and freezing.
D)irradiation.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The organism used to make bleu cheese is ______.
A)Micrococcus
B)Penicillium roqueforti
C)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
D)Propionibacterium
E)Streptococcus lactis
Q3) Which bacteria ferment lactose in milk, producing acids that curdle the milk?
A)Spirulina
B)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
C)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D)Pediococcus
E)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
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