Environmental Microbiology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the diversity and dynamics of microbial communities in natural and engineered environments, focusing on the roles microbes play in ecological processes, nutrient cycling, bioremediation, and environmental health. The course examines microbial interactions with plants, animals, and abiotic factors, incorporating molecular and cultivation-based methods to understand microbial ecology. Students learn about the impact of human activity on microbial populations, the use of microbes for pollution control and waste management, and the significance of microbial processes in maintaining environmental balance and sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek worked as a cloth draper, inspecting the quality of cloth. How did this lead to his interest in microscopy?
Answer: His work introduced him to magnifying lenses. He began the hobby of grinding lenses, ultimately making a microscope that enabled him to observe single-celled microbes.
Q2) It took the advent of the polymerase chain reaction to detect the presence of the causative agent for which disease?
A) anthrax
B) tuberculosis
C) AIDS
D) rabies
E) smallpox
Answer: C
Q3) What is the significance of the work of Ignaz Semmelweis and Joseph Lister?
Answer: They showed that use of antiseptics on doctors' hands and medical instruments drastically reduced the mortality rate of hospital patients. They made these observations before Robert Koch's germ theory of disease.
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3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) List and briefly describe four ways that light interacts with objects. Answer: (1) Absorption: light energy is absorbed by an object. (2) Reflection: a wavefront bounces off an object at an angle equal to its incident angle. (3) Refraction: light bends when it enters a substance that slows its speed. (4) Scattering: a wavefront interacts with an object of smaller dimensions than the wavelength.
Q2) As lens strength increases, the light cone ________ and the lens must be ________ the object. A) narrows; nearer to B) narrows; farther from C) widens; nearer to D) widens; farther from E) widens; touching
Answer: C
Q3) Explain why components from thermophilic bacteria take less X-ray damage than other bacteria.
Answer: There is always unavoidable deterioration of specimens under the exposure of X-rays. However, thermophilic bacteria have more stable crystals than homologous crystals growing at moderate temperatures. Since the crystals are more stable, they can better withstand X-ray exposure.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The bacterial flagellum is a helical protein filament whose ________ motor moves the cell in search of a more favorable environment.
A) shaking
B) vibrating
C) wavelike
D) whiplike
E) propeller-like
Answer: E
Q2) Polyamines are ________ charged when the pH is near neutral.
A) not
B) negatively
C) positively
D) super
E) randomly
Answer: C
Q3) Explain how bacteria can produce proteins more quickly than eukaryotes do.
Answer: Bacteria have no membrane around the nucleoid. This transcription and translation can be coupled with no need to transport the mRNA out of a nucleus.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when a sessile biofilm (or a part of it) begins to starve or experiences oxygen depletion?
A) attachment
B) quorum sensing
C) EPS production
D) dispersal
E) biofilm maturation
Q2) Which of the following is the best technique for counting only viable cells?
A) direct microscopic count
B) spread plate
C) spectrophotometer
D) chemostat
E) dry weight measurements
Q3) Compare and contrast complex media, synthetic media, and enriched media.
Q4) Why would an organism go through the process of sporulation? How might endospores cause problems in the food industry?
Q5) What are some specific problems that biofilms can cause in the medical field, and why are they so difficult to prevent and destroy?
Q6) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Alkaliphiles use ________ force in addition to proton motive force to maintain pH.
A) potassium motive
B) sodium motive
C) calcium motive
D) magnesium motive
E) sulfur motive
Q2) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples.
Q3) Which category best describes E. coli?
A) strict aerobe
B) aerotolerant anaerobe
C) facultative anaerobe
D) microaerophile
E) strict anaerobe
Q4) If a disinfectant is added to a culture containing 1 ´ 10 CFU per milliliter and the D-value of the disinfectant is 2 minutes, how many viable cells are left after 4 minutes of exposure?
Q5) Describe the studies with Salmonella that showed that in vitro conditions do not always model what happens in vivo (in this case in the phagocytic vacuole).
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Why was the advent of tissue culture heralded as the end of the "monkey era"? What types of things are we able to do with it?
Q2) The number of virus particles released at lysis is referred to as
A) the lytic number.
B) burst size.
C) the lysogenic number.
D) the temperate number.
E) the release number.
Q3) Which is the period of time that is categorized by virtually undetectable virions inside the infected cell?
A) eclipse
B) latent
C) rise
D) burst
E) lag
Q4) How can a virus be used to transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another?
Q5) What is the advantage of symmetry in viral particles?
Q6) Define oncogenes and oncogenic viruses, and explain how they can be used in gene therapy.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) The nucleoids of bacteria and most archaea, as well as the nuclear DNA of eukaryotes, are kept ________ supercoiled.
A) positively
B) neutrally
C) negatively
D) loosely
E) extra
Q2) How does a restriction-modification system avoid the destruction of a bacterium¢s own genome while breaking down foreign DNA?
Q3) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates pieces of linear DNA based on A) size.
B) charge.
C) sequence.
D) degree of supercoiling.
E) extent of methylation.
Q4) Why is replication of the lagging DNA strand a problem, and how is this problem overcome?
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA?
Q6) Describe the functions of DNA Pol III.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) The typical bacterial ribosome is composed of
A) 16 RNAs and a variety of proteins.
B) an 80S (30S + 50S) component made of RNA and proteins.
C) 80S subunits along with several RNAs and at least 50 proteins.
D) two subunits made of three RNAs and at least 50 proteins.
E) three subunits containing both RNA and proteins.
Q2) Which of the following is normally read as a stop codon but encodes tryptophan in vertebrate mitochondria?
A) AUG
B) UCA
C) UAC
D) UGA
E) UAG
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of initiation of transcription?
A) The RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds.
B) GTP hydrolysis catalyzes bubble formation.
C) The promoter unwinds.
D) The first rNTP is usually a purine.
E) Position +1 marks the start of the gene.
Q4) What does it mean to annotate a genome? Explain the goals.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) After extensive DNA damage, special DNA polymerases are expressed that sacrifice replication ________ to rescue the damaged genome.
A) initiation
B) accuracy
C) termination
D) modification
E) restriction
Q2) Compare and contrast general and site-specific recombination.
Q3) Which of the following bacteria requires artificial assistance to become competent to take up DNA?
A) Bacillus
B) E. coli
C) Haemophilus
D) Neisseria
E) Streptococcus
Q4) Describe two processes that may happen during the evolution toward pathogenicity.
Q5) Describe the process whereby DNA is transferred from Agrobacterium to plants.
Q7) Is an Hfr cell also considered to be F ? Why or why not? Page 11
Q6) Describe the purpose of an Ames revision test and how it is performed.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following statements about riboswitches is true?
A) They are found mainly at the 3' end of a mRNA.
B) They are capable of binding to a ligand and activating transcription but do not repress transcription.
C) They can control transcription but no translation.
D) Ligands that can bind range from vitamins, amino acids, magnesium, and fluoride.
E) They have no secondary structures involved in their control.
Q2) What type of RNAs bind to complementary sequences of target transcripts and stimulate or prevent translation?
A) ribosomal
B) transfer
C) messenger
D) antisense
E) small
Q3) How is repression of biosynthetic pathways different than repression of a catabolic pathway? Why does repression of these two types of pathways work differently?
Q4) Explain the process of attenuation in regulating transcription of the tryptophan operon.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) Endogenous retroviruses (ERVs) express viral components, including reverse transcriptase, as part of the host cell normal functions. What role do ERVs play in mouse B-cell immune response to carbohydrate antigens?
Q2) What is the cause for cloudy centers appearing in lambda plaques on an Escherichia coli confluent plate?
A) A low multiplicity of infection prevents the appearance of large numbers of lysed cells.
B) Cell debris forms a physical barrier between uninfected cells and virions.
C) Compounds in agar or nutrient medium protect bacterial cells from infection.
D) A large number of infected cells become resistant to bacteriophage infection.
E) Some infected cells become lysogens and start growing up where the infection began.
Q3) Approximately 60%-80% of Americans acquire herpes simplex, usually HSV-1, in epithelial lesions commonly known as A) chancres.
B) pox.
C) cold sores.
D) shingles.
E) hives.
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) A protein of interest can be specifically detected on western blots; this technique requires all of the following EXCEPT
A) primary antibodies produced against the protein under study.
B) an enzyme-tagged secondary antibody, directed against the primary antibody.
C) an easily detectable product formed by the enzyme in the tagged secondary antibody.
D) labeled DNA.
E) antibodies to detect quantity and size of specific proteins in cell extracts.
Q2) His -fusion-tagged proteins can be recovered from affinity chromatography columns because the histidine tag tightly binds to beads coated with ________ ions. The elution buffer contains ________, which has stronger affinity for these ions.
A) copper; sulfate
B) magnesium; EDTA
C) iron; citrate
D) calcium; EGTA
E) nickel; imidazole
Q3) Describe the difference between autoradiography and phosphor imaging.
Q4) Explain the principle of riboswitches and switchboards, and provide examples of their application.
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) Glucose is activated by ________ phosphorylation(s) by ATP during the first stage of the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) Glucose is not phosphorylated.
Q2) In the pentose phosphate shunt, glucose 6-phosphate is oxidized to 6-phosphogluconate, which is then decarboxylated to ribulose 5-phosphate. What is the main metabolic role of this pathway?
A) production of ATP and NADH + H<sup>+</sup>
B) regeneration of NADP<sup>+</sup>
C) production of carbohydrates with three to seven carbon atoms, which can be utilized in biosynthesis
D) production of pyruvate to feed the Krebs cycle
E) oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide
Q3) Soils and waters become contaminated with industrial aromatic compounds and efforts are made to use bacteria to clean up these areas. Describe the experiment and finding from phenanthrene metabolism in the Antarctic.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Why and how is it that mitochondria have only a single electron transport system (ETS), unlike many bacteria?
Q2) While testing the chemiosmotic theory across the domains of life, researchers prepared "inside-out" vesicles from bacterial plasma membranes, mitochondrial internal membranes, and chloroplast thylakoids. An inside-out vesicle is a
A) vesicle in which the F1 subunit of the proton-ATPase faces outward.
B) membrane in which the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids face outward.
C) cell that has been enzymatically stripped of its cell wall.
D) preparation of outer membranes in Gram-negative bacteria, chloroplast envelopes, and mitochondria outer membranes.
E) preparation from bacterial cytoplasm, chloroplast stroma, and mitochondrial matrix.
Q3) Which of the following reactions is possible by reverse electron flow?
A) reduction of Fe<sup>3+</sup> to Fe<sup>2+</sup>
B) NADP<sup>+</sup> reduction to NADPH
C) protein biosynthesis
D) reduction of oxygen by Fe<sup>2+</sup> to form H<sub>2</sub>O and Fe<sup>3+</sup>
E) anammox
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Briefly describe the reductive acetyl-CoA pathway. What is its relevance for methanogens?
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true about Rubisco?
A) It catalyzes the addition of CO<sub>2</sub> to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
B) It is present in all organisms that use the Calvin cycle to fix CO<sub>2</sub>.
C) It is found in the carboxysomes of autotrophic bacteria.
D) All species contain the same number of large and small subunits.
E) Its structure is highly conserved across bacterial groups and chloroplasts.
Q3) Which pair is NOT matched correctly?
A) NtrC-regulates nitrogenase gene expression in response to NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> concentration
B) NtrB-phosphorylates NtrC when NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+ </sup>concentration is low
C) NifL-forms a two-component signal transduction system with NtrC
D) NifA-acts in concert with factor <sup>-54</sup>
E) NifHDKTY-components of nitrogenase
Q4) Briefly discuss how carbon molecules of different sizes can be made for biosynthesis. What else is needed and how is it obtained?
Q5) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Ethanolic fermentation of ________ was important to early civilizations because it provided a drink free of waterborne pathogens.
A) roots
B) flowers and leaves
C) leaves
D) grain and fruit
E) stems and leaves
Q2) Brewer's yeast, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, conducts ________ fermentation of maltose, a ________, which is produced by the action of amylases on starch.
A) ethanolic; pectin
B) lactic acid; lactone
C) ethanolic; disaccharide
D) mixed; fructose
E) ethanolic; monosaccharide
Q3) What makes a company dealing with industrial microbiology a success?
Q4) How is injera produced and why is it nutritionally better than quick-rising wheat breads?
Q5) Describe several physical means of food preservation.
Q6) Explain the difference between food spoilage and food poisoning.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Briefly discuss the types of geological evidence of early life and their advantages and limitations.
Q2) In the domains of life, archaea and bacteria differ from each other in that
A) archaea contain membrane-bound organelles, bacteria do not.
B) bacteria can be extreme thermophiles, archaea cannot.
C) archaea contain ester-linked membrane fatty acids, bacteria do not.
D) bacteria start protein production with formylmethionine, archaea do not.
E) bacteria have introns, archaea do not.
Q3) Explain how banded iron formations could arise in the geologic record due to photoferrotrophy.
Q4) The loss of genes encoding for unselected traits is known as A) random mutation.
B) natural selection.
C) reductive evolution.
D) clade evolution.
E) random recombination.
Q5) Describe the intracellular endosymbiosis between algae of the genus Chlorella and Paramecium. Why is this symbiosis considered reversible?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Describe the photosynthetic machinery of cyanobacteria.
Q2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa may form ________ in the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients.
A) sarcinae
B) filaments
C) biofilms
D) cysts
E) capsules
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the mycoplasmas?
A) They have lost their cell wall and the S-layer through reductive evolution.
B) Their cells maintain their shape through a type of cytoskeleton.
C) When cultured on agar, their colonies have a "fried-egg" shape.
D) They are parasites of all kinds of multicellular organisms.
E) They have some of the largest bacterial genomes.
Q4) Which gammaproteobacteria genera include species that oxidize H S to S ?
A) Escherichia and Enterobacter
B) Chromatium and Beggiatoa
C) Klebsiella and Shigella
D) Proteus and Erwinia
E) Rhodobacter and Nitrosomonas
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Compare and contrast the supercoiling in hyperthermophilic archaeal species with bacteria and eukaryotes. What is responsible for this feature, and what does it accomplish for these archaea?
Q2) Most organisms of the order ________ lack both a cell wall and an S-layer.
A) Archaeoglobales
B) Thermoplasmatales
C) Halobacteriales
D) Methanobacteriales
E) Methanococcales
Q3) ________-branched chains increase membrane stability.
A) Isoprenoid
B) Ester
C) Ether
D) Diether
E) Phospholipid
Q4) Discuss the role of the four different types of rhodopsins found in the Halobacterium species (bacteriorhodopsin, halorhodopsin, and sensory rhodopsins I and II).
Q5) Discuss the genome and morphology of known archaeal viruses. Why are their genomes all similar in structure?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Glomeromycota are obligate mutualists of plants
A) that form fruiting bodies, such as basidiomycetes.
B) and are considered pathogenic to more than 90% of all land plants.
C) that form arbuscular mycorrhizae, in which fungal filaments surround the plant cell walls but do not penetrate them.
D) that receive sugars from plants and provide ammonium and phosphate to plants.
E) that form periarbuscular space within the fungi's own cell wall.
Q2) The following are examples of challenges for classification of eukaryotes, EXCEPT
A) eukaryotic chromosomes are located inside the nucleus.
B) eukaryotes have experienced multiple endosymbiotic events.
C) genome size and complexity has delayed completion of genomic sequences.
D) for superficial similarity in form and habitat in distant taxa leading to convergent evolution.
E) within a clade, some cells have lost structures through reductive evolution; others have not.
Q3) Compare and contrast radiolarians and foraminiferans.
Q4) Describe how the life cycle of the slime mold Dictyostelium discoideum is dependent upon prokaryotic organisms.
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Fungi play a much larger and more significant role in the decomposition of terrestrial biomass than they do in marine ecosystems. This is because fungi
A) do not thrive in a marine environment.
B) outcompete bacteria in terrestrial habitats.
C) can degrade the abundant lignin in terrestrial habitats.
D) decompose leghemoglobin rapidly.
E) degrade human waste faster than bacteria.
Q2) Describe the initiation process for legume-rhizobium symbiosis.
Q3) The Dutch microbiologist van Niel first demonstrated anoxygenic photosynthesis in soil and water bacteria. He generalized his work by hypothesizing that
A) every molecule in nature can be used as a source of nitrogen by some microorganism.
B) photosynthesis results in oxygen production.
C) microbes are found in every environment on Earth.
D) microbes cannot live deep within Earth.
E) photosynthesis occurs deep within Earth.
Q4) Describe the steps in sequencing a metagenome.
Q5) Explain at least three ways in which metagenomes may overlook organisms in the environment.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Wastewater treatment generates which of the following gases in quantities sufficient for recovery as fuel?
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) nitrous oxide
D) methane
E) hydrogen sulfide
Q2) Which of the following reservoirs contains the most rapidly cycled carbon?
A) the atmosphere
B) ocean biomass
C) ocean inorganic molecules
D) land biomass
E) crust below land and ocean
Q3) Microbes participate in which step of wastewater treatment?
A) preliminary
B) primary
C) secondary
D) tertiary
E) every step
Q4) Describe the difference between a source, sink, and reservoir of an element.
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by gut microbiota?
A) inhibits inflammation
B) synthesis of vitamins
C) host tissue development
D) enzymes catalyze food
E) contributes to thin intestinal walls
Q2) The major phagocytic cells in the body are
A) T and B lymphocytes.
B) basophils and eosinophils.
C) erythrocytes and platelets.
D) neutrophils and macrophages.
E) epithelial cells and cilia.
Q3) Much of the ________ is normally free from microbes in a healthy individual.
A) nose
B) mouth
C) skin
D) respiratory tract
E) genitourinary tract
Q4) How can differences in gut microbiota account for obesity and leanness in humans?
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) A complete T-cell receptor on a helper T cell contains both the antigen-binding receptor molecule and a ________ protein for signal transduction.
A) CD8
B) CD3 complex
C) MHC I
D) MHC II
E) CD28
Q2) Omenn syndrome is an immune disorder associated with mutations in the recombination-activating genes (RAG1 and RAG2) needed for gene switching in lymphocytes. What effect would this mutation have on B cells, T cells, and the overall health of the adaptive immune response?
Q3) Innate lymphoid cells in the gut can be stimulated by
A) Treg cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) hormones.
D) IgA.
E) SIgA.
Q4) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis but not for atopic asthma?
Q5) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following are also categorized as frank, or strict, pathogens?
A) parasites
B) endoparasites
C) ectoparasites
D) primary pathogens
E) opportunistic pathogens
Q2) Mycobacterium, Trypanosomia, and Leishmania spp. are all unique in that once they are intracellular, they down-regulate the IFN-gamma receptor, causing A) immune-response suppression.
B) opsonization.
C) complement activation.
D) superantigen reactions.
E) high fever responses.
Q3) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
Q4) How does a pathogenicity island increase the "fitness" of a microorganism (pathogen) to interact with a host and cause disease?
Q5) Microbes can be transmitted indirectly from one person to another by inanimate objects, collectively called fomites. Describe the role of fomites in the spread of influenza.
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Page 28
Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) How can prescribing an antibiotic for a sick patient actually lead to triggering gastrointestinal illness? Explain and give an example.
Q2) Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.
Q3) The major challenge with treating flesh-eating disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is that
A) the bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) no antibiotic is useful, because it's a mixed infection.
C) toxin-encoding phage also encode antibiotic-degrading enzymes.
D) the causative agent is an MRSA.
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits treatment access.
Q4) Name and describe the role of the three domains found in tetanus and botulism neurotoxins.
Q5) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin versus cephalosporin in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic.
Q2) The multidrug resistance, or MDR, efflux pumps found in organisms such as resistant strains of Escherichia coli work most similarly to
A) ABC transporters.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) reverse osmosis.
D) electron transport.
E) phospholipid flip-flop.
Q3) How have modern agricultural practices contributed to the increase of antibiotic resistance seen today?
Q4) Bactrim, a sulfa drug used to treat urinary tract infections, does NOT harm host cells because eukaryotic cells
A) have efflux pumps for the drug.
B) take in folic acid in the diet.
C) do not transport the drug into the cell.
D) are naturally immunized from the drug.
E) make their own PABA precursors.
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14993
Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the use of the serum antibody ELISA with the antigen-capture ELISA in the detection of Ebola.
Q2) Which infectious disease is on the CDC bioterrorism list due to the general population NOT being vaccinated for this disease since the 1970s?
A) bubonic plague
B) rabies
C) smallpox
D) tuberculosis
E) Machupo virus
Q3) How have changes within our human culture caused new diseases to emerge? Explain your answer using a specific example that supports your statements.
Q4) An antigen-capture ELISA could be looking for all of the following in a person who is presumed to have a severe acute lung infection EXCEPT
A) mycobacterium antigens.
B) SARS antigens.
C) Haemophilus sp. antigens.
D) pneumococcal antigens.
E) anti-influenza antibodies.
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