Environmental Microbiology Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and activities of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. The course examines microbial diversity, physiology, and ecology, as well as the interactions between microbes and their surroundings including soil, water, and air. Key topics include nutrient cycling, biodegradation, pathogenesis in the environment, and the use of microbes in bioremediation and wastewater treatment. Students will also discuss emerging issues such as antibiotic resistance and microbial responses to climate change, integrating laboratory techniques and contemporary research to understand the vital influence of microorganisms on environmental health and sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium?
A)Staph Aureus
B)Staphylococcus Aureus
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Staphylococcus Aureus..
E)S.Aureus,
Answer: C
Q2) Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A)microbes are found on dust particles.
B)a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C)life-forms can only arise from preexisting life-forms.
D)a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E)microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
Answer: B
Q3) _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering.
Answer: Viruses
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A newly synthesized polypeptide that will ultimately form a cytoplasmic protein will most likely fold into a tertiary structure with its _____________ amino acid R-groups facing outward.
A)hydrophilic
B)hydrophobic
Answer: A
Q3) What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom <sup>32</sup><sub>16</sub>S?
A)2
B)6
C)8
D)16
E)32
Answer: B
Q4) _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. Answer: Peptide
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and _____.
Answer: liquid
Q2) All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A)methylene blue.
B)nigrosin.
C)crystal violet.
D)safranin.
E)carbol fuchsin.
Answer: B
Q3) All of the following are correct about agar except A)it is flexible.
B)it melts at the boiling point of water (100<sup>°</sup>C).
C)it is a source of nutrition for bacteria.
D)it solidifies below 42<sup>°</sup>C.
E)it is solid at room temperature.
Answer: C
Q4) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme _____, that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls.
Q2) Compare and contrast the cyanobacteria to the green and purple sulfur bacteria with regard to: a) habitat, b) photosynthesis properties, c) cell properties, and d) impact and importance to the environment.
Q3) An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is the A)size of the periplasmic space.
B)similarities of cell membrane proteins.
C)size of the bacterial chromosome.
D)nitrogen base sequence of rRNA.
E)size of the ribosomes.
Q4) A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is
A)gram-negative.
B)gram-positive.
C)archaea.
D)a spheroplast.
E)acid fast.
Q5) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of protozoans are generally nonmotile?
A)Sarcodina
B)Ciliophora
C)Mastigophora
D)Apicomplexa
Q2) Fungal spores
A)are only produced under harmful environmental conditions.
B)are only asexually produced.
C)cannot be seen in a light microscope.
D)are produced by molds but not by yeasts.
E)are used to identify fungi.
Q3) Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi.
D)bacteria.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called _______.
Q5) Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oncogenic viruses include all the following except
A)Hepatitis B virus.
B)Measles virus.
C)Papillomavirus.
D)HTLVI and HTLVII viruses.
E)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q2) A naked virus does not have a(n) _____.
Q3) Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.
Q4) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
A)lysogeny.
B)budding.
C)plaques.
D)pocks.
Q5) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
Q6) During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the _________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term chemotroph refers to an organism that A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q2) When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called A)symbiosis.
B)satellitism.
C)commensalism.
D)mutualism.
E)synergism.
Q3) The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species'generation time. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
A)ATP
B)phosphate
C)hydrogen ions
D)oxygen
E)NADH
Q2) Glycolysis
A)uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP and requires oxygen.
B)uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP and requires oxygen.
C)uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP, does not require oxygen.
D)uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP, does not require oxygen.
Q3) The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is A)mitochondria.
B)within the cell membrane.
C)lysosomes.
D)cytoplasm.
E)outside of the cell.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces them is
A)DNA ligase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)DNA helicase.
D)DNA gyrase.
E)primase.
Q2) Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are A)repressors.
B)transposons.
C)transformers.
D)plasmids.
E)operons.
Q3) Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A)protein.
B)nucleotide.
C)amino acid.
D)purine.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA polymerases used in PCR
A)use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.
B)must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C)include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D)are labeled with fluorescent dyes.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) The enzyme___ adds nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively replicated.
A. DNA polymerase III, 3 5
B. DNA polymerase I, 3 5
C. DNA polymerase III, 5 3
D. DNA polymerase I, 5 3
Q3) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.
Q4) Which of the following would be of LEAST value in DNA profiling?
A)mitotyping
B)STR (short tandem repeat) analysis
C)sequencing blood group alleles
D)analysis of SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms)
Page 12
Q5) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
Q6) Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?
A)detergents
B)ultraviolet light
C)alcohol
D)hydrogen peroxide
E)crystal violet
Q2) _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.
Q3) Explain why boiling water is considered disinfection, not a sterilization method.List three materials commonly disinfected by boiling water.
Q4) Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections?
A)triclosan
B)formaldehyde
C)phenol
D)silver nitrate
E)mercurochrome
Q5) __________ or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
A)giving a narrow-spectrum drug.
B)culturing the pathogen and identifying it.
C)performing the disk diffusion assay.
D)using a broad-spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.
E)using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.
Q3) Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A)gentamicin
B)vancomycin
C)cephalosporins
D)penicllins
E)clavamox
Q4) Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are called ________.
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Q5) Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experiments have been done to determine the infective dose of a specific pathogen in animals with normal microbiota and gnotobiotic animals. Predict how the infective dose for gnotobiotic animals is expected to compare to the infective dose of animals with normal microbiota.
A)The infective dose would be the same for both groups of animals.
B)The infective dose would be lower for the gnotobiotic animals.
C)The infective does would be higher for the gnotobiotic animals.
Q2) The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
A)before birth, in utero.
B)during, and immediately after birth.
C)when a child first goes to school.
D)when an infant gets its first infectious disease.
E)during puberty.
Q3) An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
A)fomite.
B)carrier.
C)vector.
D)reservoir.
E)source.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual has been born with Kartagener's syndrome, a disorder of microtubules that impairs the motion of cilia and flagella.What type of infections would you predict would be most common in this individual?
A)respiratory
B)oral
C)gastric
D)uterine
Q2) Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All the following are events of early inflammation, except A)macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
B)chemical mediators and cytokines are released.
C)brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
D)exudate and pus can accumulate.
E)capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema.
Q4) Describe the physical or anatomical barriers at the following body sites, and explain how they accomplish body defense: a) eyes, b) skin, c) gastrointestinal tract, d) respiratory tract, and e) urinary tract.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of natural passive immunity would be
A)chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
Q2) Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A)malaria.
B)botulism.
C)cholera.
D)yellow fever. E)rabies.
Q3) The DTaP immunization
A)contains diphtheria toxoid.
B)is administered in childhood.
C)contains tetanus toxoid.
D)contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the various ways by which antibodies interact with antigen and facilitate antigen inhibition or destruction.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human blood types involve all the following, except A)MHC genes.
B)ABO antigen markers.
C)inheritance of two of three possible alleles.
D)genetically determined glycoprotein markers.
E)genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.
Q2) The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.
Q3) Compare and contrast local atopies and systemic anaphylaxis with regard to: a) events of the hypersensitivity, b) chemical mediators and their effects, c) patient tissues involved, and d) two specific examples of each.
Q4) The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast local atopies and contact dermatitis with regard to: a) components and events of the immune response, b) tissue damaging mediators, and c) two examples of each.
Q6) Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in A)Ouchterlony double diffusion.
B)Western Blot.
C)immunelectrophoresis.
D)radioimmunoassay (RIA).
E)the Quellung test.
Q2) All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species, except A)motility.
B)carbohydrate fermentation.
C)catalase test.
D)oxidase test.
E)coagulase test.
Q3) Biochemical testing used for identification of pathogens involves each of the following, except
A)inoculation of additional media, incubation, and observation for a color change.
B)quick tests that take just a few seconds.
C)examining organisms through the microscope.
Q4) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Q1) All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except
A)it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
B)it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
C)oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
D)bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation.
E)signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.
Q2) Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except
A)necrotizing fasciitis.
B)erysipelas.
C)impetigo.
D)scarlet fever.
E)scalded skin syndrome.
Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae is
A)called the meningococcus.
B)in the viridans group.
C)a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule.
D)a pathogen with endotoxin.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves A)chest X-ray.
B)acid-fast stain of sputum.
C)sputum culture.
D)tuberculin skin test.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) _____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
Q3) Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except A)capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.
B)anaerobic.
C)reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.
D)gram-positive bacillus.
E)spore-former.
Q4) Using specific examples, discuss how gram-positive bacilli are divided into major genera.At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results.
Q5) Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Discuss the patients at greatest risk for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections and describe the type of infections that they acquire.
Q2) Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock.This is due to
A)the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of bacteria.
B)lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall of bacteria.
C)a cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin.
D)coagulase.
E)a neurotoxin similar to botulin.
Q3) Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections?
A)Hemophilus
B)Stenotrophomonas
C)Burkholderia
D)Legionella
E)both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas
F)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Klebsiella has a large _____ that contributes to its ability to cause chronic lung infections.
Q5) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called _____.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
Q2) Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification?
A)Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis
B)Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis
C)cholera
D)Lyme disease
E)leptospirosis
Q3) The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose
A)chlamydiosis.
B)syphilis.
C)Lyme disease.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)Q fever.
Q4) Chlamydia trachomatis causes
A)nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.
B)cervicitis in females.
C)congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.
D)ocular trachoma.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Sabouraud's dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is/are true of cryptococcal meningitis?
A)It is most often caused by Cryptococcus gattii.
B)The pathogen usually enters the body via the respiratory route.
C)It is usually a mild form of meningitis that is self-limiting.
D)It is most often seen in patients with AIDS.
E)The pathogen can be detected in CSF specimens by negative staining.
Q3) Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all A)mycotoxins.
B)fungal enzymes.
C)antifungal drugs.
D)culture media supplements for fungi.
Q4) Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called _____.
Q5) Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission?
A)toxoplasmosis
B)trichomoniasis
C)giardiasis
D)malaria
E)balantidiasis
Q2) Diseases transmitted by vectors include
A)balantidiasis.
B)amebiasis and trichomoniasis.
C)amebic meningoencephalitis.
D)trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis.
E)cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.
Q3) Giardiasis involves
A)a protozoan that does not form cysts.
B)infection of the large intestine.
C)symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.
D)vector transmission.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) Compare and contrast chickenpox and shingles, and explain the underlying reasons for their differences in pathogenesis.
Q2) Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except A)it replicates in T-lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue.
B)it causes roseola in infants.
C)it appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults.
D)it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.
E)it is transmitted by saliva.
Q3) Herpes whitlow is a deep-set herpes simplex virus infection of the A)nasal mucosa.
B)finger.
C)oral mucosa and tongue.
D)eye.
E)newborn.
Q4) Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.
A)True B)False
Q5) Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is
A)leukemia.
B)Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C)Kaposi's sarcoma.
D)melanoma.
E)colon cancer.
Q2) Which is incorrect about Hepatitis A infection?
A)It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route.
B)It has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine.
C)It predisposes a person for liver cancer.
D)Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity.
E)HAVRIX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.
Q3) Which infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing, and a hoarse cough?
A)croup
B)mumps
C)influenza
D)measles (rubeola)
E)rubella
Q4) The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a _____.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Indicator bacteria are A)coliforms.
B)gram-negative rods.
C)evidence of fecal contamination.
D)used in water quality tests.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) As energy is transferred to the next trophic level, how much of it is generally lost as heat?
A)None
B)5%
C)10%
D)50%
E)90%
Q3) All of the following are abiotic factors, except A)atmospheric gases.
B)an animal carcass.
C)minerals.
D)water.
E)light.
Q4) Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Vinegar can be produced when alcohol in wine is oxidized to acetic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drying, or _________ is not a reliable microbicidal method.
Q3) During which phase of growth would a primary metabolite be produced?
A)lag phase
B)exponential phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Why are cases of food borne illnesses escalating in the United States despite our knowledge of how to prevent outbreaks?
Q5) Nitrates and nitrites are used in cured meats mainly to prevent
A)staphylococcal enteritis.
B)shigellosis.
C)botulism.
D)listeriosis.
E)Vibrio enteritis.
Q6) Hypertonic levels of sugar or salt create high __________ pressure that plasmolyzes bacteria.
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