Environmental Microbiology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the diversity, functions, and ecological roles of microorganisms within natural and engineered environments. The course covers microbial interactions with soil, water, and air, emphasizing nutrient cycling, degradation of pollutants, and the impacts of microbes on ecosystem health. Students will examine cutting-edge techniques for studying microbial communities, analyze case studies on bioremediation, water quality, and emerging environmental threats, and discuss the application of microbiological principles to sustainable environmental management.
Recommended Textbook
Living in a Microbial World 1st Edition by Bruce Hofkin
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208 Verified Questions
208 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Living in a Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are control groups necessary in a proper scientific experiment?
Answer: In a proper experiment, the effect of the experimental variable, if any, is compared between the experimental group and the control group. Without the control group, in which the experimental variable was not manipulated, there would be no way to evaluate the effect of the experimental variable.
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a microorganism?
A) a bacterium
B) a protozoan
C) a flea
D) a virus
E) a single-celled fungus
Answer: C
Q3) Those factors that are kept the same in the experimental group and the control group are called:
A) control variables.
B) experimental variables.
C) manipulated variables.
D) observed variables.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When one atom donates electrons and another atom accepts those electrons, a(n) ________ bond forms.
A) polar covalent
B) hydrogen bond
C) nonpolar covalent
D) ionic
Answer: D
Q2) What factors determine if a substance will or will not dissolve in water?
Answer: Water is a highly polar molecule, because of the polar covalent bonds between oxygen and hydrogen atoms. These polar covalent bonds result in partial charges on each atom in a water molecule; partial negative on the oxygen and partial positive on the hydrogen atoms. These partial charges can attract charges, either partial or full, on other molecules, allowing the water to hydrogen bond with these charged molecules. Consequently, any molecule with charges (ionic compounds or compounds consisting of largely polar covalent bonds) will hydrogen bond with water, and the collective force of many hydrogen bonds causes the molecule to dissolve. Molecules that are composed of mainly nonpolar covalent bonds lack charges, and therefore cannot hydrogen bond with water. They therefore do not dissolve in water.
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Chapter 3: The Cell: Where Life Begins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane phospholipids:
A) are highly hydrophobic.
B) are highly hydrophilic.
C) have hydrophobic phosphate heads and hydrophilic fatty acid tails.
D) have hydrophilic phosphate heads and hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
E) are found in prokaryotic, but not eukaryotic, cells.
Answer: D
Q2) As cells increase in size:
A) their surface/volume ratio increases, and they become more metabolically efficient.
B) their surface/volume ratio decreases, and they become more metabolically efficient.
C) their surface/volume ratio increases, and they become less metabolically efficient.
D) their surface/volume ratio decreases, and they become less metabolically efficient.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: A Field Guide to the Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi that grow on dead material are called:
A) autotrophs.
B) saprophytes.
C) filamentous fungi.
D) fleshy fungi.
E) Zygomycota.
Q2) In which of the following ways are prions believed to differ from all other infectious agents?
A) Unlike any other infectious agents, they are acellular.
B) Unlike any other infectious agents, they can infect many different species of hosts.
C) Unlike any other infectious agents, are able to reproduce without any nucleic acid.
D) Prions appear to be unusual viruses that have both DNA and RNA.
E) Unlike other infectious agents, which are found only in specific host tissues, prions have the ability to infect any tissue in a host's body.
Q3) How are rRNA genes used to deduce evolutionary relationships?
Q4) What are mycorrhizial relationships? Provide an example.
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Chapter 5: The Microbiology of History and the History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four flasks are prepared with a broth that supports microbial growth. Broth A is boiled and then sealed to prevent the entry of air. Broth B is boiled and left open to the air. Broth C is boiled and left open, but the flask is fitted with an S-shaped neck. Broth D is boiled, left open to the air, and fitted with an S-shaped neck, but after two days the neck is removed. If the broths are examined after four days, which ones will contain living microorganisms?
A) All broths will contain microorganisms.
B) None of the broths will contain microorganisms.
C) broths B & D
D) broths A & C
E) broths B, C & D
Q2) What is the danger associated with agricultural monocultures?
Q3) What are Koch's Postulates? Explain how they are used to determine the cause of a particular disease.
Q4) Why is a large population of hosts more important for the maintenance of a "crowd disease" than it is for other types of diseases?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ use(s) codons to specify which amino acid should be added to the growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) rRNA
E) operons
Q2) Which of the following is not a difference in the way gene expression occurs in bacteria and in eukaryotes?
A) In bacteria, but not eukaryotes, RNA polymerase binds the promoter directly.
B) Bacteria, but not eukaryotes, have non-coding regions called introns in their genes, which must be removed from mRNA following transcription.
C) In bacteria, but not eukaryotes, translation can begin on a particular mRNA, before transcription of that same mRNA molecule is complete.
D) The ribosomes used by bacteria in translation are smaller and somewhat different in structure than those used by eukaryotes.
E) Gene expression is generally quicker in bacteria than it is in eukaryotes.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Metabolism and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A photoautotroph is a microorganism that uses ________ as its carbon source and ________ as its energy source.
A) organic molecules; organic molecules
B) inorganic molecules; organic molecules
C) CO<sub>2 </sub>; inorganic molecules
D) CO<sub>2</sub>; sunlight
Q2) Why is pyruvate reduced during fermentation?
A) to regenerate NAD<sup>+</sup>, permitting glycolysis to continue
B) to produce additional NADH, which can be oxidized in electron transport
C) to produce additional ATP by coupling ATP production to the reduction of pyruvate. The now reduced form of pyruvate can then enter the Krebs Cycle.
D) Pyruvate is toxic to cells. It is therefore reduced to a non-toxic form.
Q3) A chemically defined medium is often required to grow ________ bacteria in the laboratory.
A) fastidious
B) non-fastidious
C) acidophilic
D) halophilic
E) microaerophilic
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Evolution: the Origin and Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which of the following conditions would resistance to a specific antibiotic most likely evolve?
A) when the antibiotic is not commonly used
B) when the antibiotic is routinely used, even in inappropriate situations
C) when the antibiotic is used, but only in carefully controlled and appropriate situations
D) when the use of the antibiotic is suddenly curtailed
E) when several antibiotics, including the specific antibiotic under consideration, are used together
Q2) Molecules composed of RNA that have enzymatic activity are known as:
A) ribosomes.
B) RNases.
C) catalases.
D) ribozymes.
E) nucleases.
Q3) Why is it that natural selection can never result in organisms that are perfectly adapted to their environment?
Q4) It is believed that mitochondria were acquired by primitive eukaryotic cells before chloroplasts were. What is the evidence for this?
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Chapter 9: An Ecologists Guide to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements comparing freshwater and marine environments is true?
A) The marine environment is generally far more stable than the freshwater environment.
B) A seasonal thermocline may develop in a marine environment, but not a freshwater environment.
C) Benthic zones occur in marine environments, but not in freshwater environments.
D) In a marine environment, the pelagic zone usually has the highest species diversity, while in freshwater environments, diversity in the pelagic zone is usually low.
E) In marine environments, phosphorus is usually the principal factor limiting microbial growth. In freshwater environments, iron is usually the most principal limiting factor.
Q2) Describe why decomposers are so important in ecosystems.
Q3) What exactly is a biofilm? Where are biofilms found?
Q4) Why does the addition of extra nutrients into a lake often result in a die-off of fish and other animals?
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11
Chapter 10: The Nature of Disease: a Pathogens Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does our normal flora protect us from some infections by pathogens?
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins?
A) They all work in different ways.
B) They are all proteins.
C) They are only produced by Gram-negative bacteria.
D) They are only produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
E) They interfere with host ribosomes, blocking protein synthesis by host cells.
Q3) For a given pathogen:
A) the ID<sub>50 </sub>will always be lower than the LD<sub>50.</sub>
B) the ID<sub>50</sub> will always be higher than the LD<sub>50.</sub>
C) the ID<sub>50</sub> and the LD<sub>50</sub> will always be equal.
D) the ID<sub>50 </sub>may be lower or higher than the LD<sub>50.</sub>
Q4) Which of the following is false about exotoxins?
A) Part of the exotoxin called the "A subunit" binds to receptors on the surface of certain host cells.
B) The combined exotoxin (both the A & B subunits) enter the host cell by endocytosis.
C) They may be produced by either Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria.
D) They are generally more toxic than endotoxins at low concentration.
E) They are composed of protein.
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Chapter 11: Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way can the fever response be used to illustrate the point that response to pathogens can both be protective and harmful?
Q2) Which of the following is true about interferon?
A) It is released by uninfected cells during a viral infection.
B) It is produced by virally infected cells during a viral infection, whereupon it inhibits further viral replication within the cells where it is made.
C) It is produced by virally infected cells to activate helper T-cells.
D) It is released by virally infected cells to induce an antiviral state in uninfected cells.
E) It is released by cells in lymph nodes to attract T cells to the lymph node.
Q3) During a successful secondary immune response:
A) the inductive period will be longer than it was during a primary response.
B) greatly increased levels of IgM are produced.
C) long-lived plasma cells immediately begin secreting antibody.
D) the number of pathogens should remain below the threshold of disease.
E) there will be a stronger cell-mediated response, but a less vigorous humoral response.
Q4) How does HIV reduce immune function?
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13
Chapter 12: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does stopping an antibiotic prescription prematurely contribute to the development of drug resistance?
Q2) If the number of microorganisms must be reduced in a beverage that cannot be subjected to high temperatures, ________ would be an effective control method.
A) pasteurization
B) autoclaving
C) filtration
D) the addition of heavy metals
Q3) Pasteurization:
A) is a technique used to sterilize liquids.
B) relies on high temperature and high pressure to kill microorganisms.
C) can be considered to be a bacteriotatic control measure.
D) selectively kills thermophiles in liquids.
E) selectively kills mesophiles in liquids.
Q4) What are some of the problems associated with the development of antiviral drugs?
Q5) In what situations would UV radiation be an appropriate method for microbial control?
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14
Chapter 13: Epidemiology: Who, What, When, Where, and Why
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Sample Questions
Q1) Into which category of emergent diseases would dengue be placed?
A) Category 1: invasion of a new host population by a known pathogen
B) Category 2: appearance of a completely new, previously unknown pathogen
C) Category 3: association of a well-known disease with a new pathogen
D) Category 4: increased virulence, or a renewed problem, with a well-known but previously less virulent or well-controlled pathogen
Q2) Epidemic paralytic polio:
A) was more likely when newborns were exposed to the virus.
B) was more likely when exposure was delayed beyond infancy.
C) was most commonly seen in situations where sanitation was poor.
D) was eradicated in the United States as routine sanitation became commonplace. E) has not been observed since the 19<sup>th</sup> century in developed countries.
Q3) Which of the following pathogens would most likely be used as a bioterrorism agent?
A) Pathogen A: an obligate anaerobe
B) Pathogen B: an obligate aerobe
C) Pathogen C: a Gram-positive bacterial species
D) Pathogen D: a RNA virus
E) Pathogen E: a spore-former
Page 15
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the polymerase chain reaction? Briefly state how it works.
Q2) A restriction enzyme that recognizes relatively rare base sequences in the DNA will:
A) cleave DNA into a relatively large number of small fragments.
B) cleave DNA into a relatively small number of small fragments.
C) cleave DNA into a relatively large number of large fragments.
D) cleave DNA into a relatively small number of large fragments.
Q3) Southern blotting can be used to:
A) insert donor DNA into recipient DNA.
B) determine if a specific gene is present in a DNA molecule.
C) separate DNA fragments based on size.
D) make many copies of a particular gene.
E) determine the exact nucleotide sequence in a DNA molecule.
Q4) Which of the following is not added to the reaction mix in the polymerase chain reaction?
A) a DNA polymerase enzyme
B) appropriate primers
C) target DNA
D) a supply of DNA nucleotides
E) a gene probe
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Guess Whos Coming to Dinner: Microorganisms and
Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial fermentation only occurs under certain environmental conditions. Why, in terms of metabolism, do these organisms ferment under such conditions?
Q2) If you make homemade wine, which of the following accurately describes the relationship between sweetness and alcohol content?
A) The sweeter the wine, the higher the alcohol content.
B) The sweeter the wine, the lower the alcohol content.
C) The dryer the wine, the lower the alcohol content.
D) There is no specific relationship between sweetness and alcohol content.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of single-cell protein?
A) yogurt
B) cheese
C) Spirulina
D) beer
E) summer sausage
Q4) In what way is the production of vinegar different from the production of the fermented food products discussed in this chapter?
Q5) Provide a biochemical explanation for why bread rises during its production.
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Chapter 16: Better Living With Microorganisms: Industrial and Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of organism would be most promising if you were seeking an organism that can digest hydrocarbons, to help clean up oil spills?
A) a nonfastidious organism
B) a fastidious organism
C) an obligate anaerobe
D) an extreme thermophile
E) an acidophile
Q2) The easiest step when it comes to developing a new antibiotic is:
A) finding a microorganism that produces an antibiotic.
B) determining the optimum growth conditions for the microorganism in question.
C) the scale-up process.
D) improving the bacterial strain so that commercially valuable quantities of the antibiotic are produced.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an extremozyme?
A) a microorganism that is isolated from a very hot, thermal pool of water
B) the Taq polymerase, isolated from Thermus aquaticus, which is used in PCR
C) a cellulase enzyme, which can digest cellulose, used in a stain remover
D) a biopesticide used to control insect pests in the garden
E) a microorganism used in nanotechnology
Page 18
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