Environmental Microbiology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and interactions of microorganisms within natural and engineered environments. This course examines microbial diversity, physiology, and ecology, focusing on how bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes influence soil, water, air, and biogeochemical cycles. Students gain an understanding of microbial processes relevant to environmental health, bioremediation, wastewater treatment, and pollution control. Emphasis is placed on methods for studying microbes in complex environments, contemporary research in microbial ecology, and the impact of microorganisms on global environmental change and sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1432 Verified Questions
1432 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because viruses could not be visualized using conventional microscopes further progress required the development of techniques for isolating,propagating and analyzing viruses. All of the following are true,except:
A) crystal structure of the tobacco mosaic virus showed that it was made up of RNA and protein
B) viruses were first observed with an electron microscope
C) viral DNA has a different structure from that discovered by Watson and Crick
D) Hershey and Chase demonstrated that the genetic material of some viruses is DNA
Answer: C
Q2) Which is a false statement about genomes?
A) genomes contain all the genetic material of a species.
B) all of the genome is made up of useful genes whose function we already know
C) humans have only 300 genes not found in the mouse
D) most microbial genomes are smaller than the human genome
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The double helix is a structure associated with A) disaccarides
B) a compound with hydrogen bonds
C) lipids
D) DNA
Answer: D
Q2) Chemical bonds form between atoms through the interaction of A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) isotopes
Answer: C
Q3) Identify which of the following is not a colloid
A) salt water
B) gelatin desserts
C) agar plates used to grow microorganisms
D) fluid in cells
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) The counterstain in a spore stain is
A) malachite green
B) crystal violet
C) safranin
D) methylene blue
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following can be used to examine live specimens?
A) transmission electron microscope
B) scanning electron microscope
C) scanning tunneling electron microscope
D) atomic force microscope
Answer: C
Q3) The formula for resolving power of a lens is l/2NA (wavelength /2 x numerical aperture). What does this say about resolving power?
A) the smaller the wavelength the greater the resolving power of the lens
B) it is not related to the lens' numerical aperture
C) we can not precisely calculate the resolving power of a lens
D) a larger resolving power is indicative of a better lens
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Penicillin controls the growth of bacteria by
A) destroying cell membranes
B) preventing protein synthesis
C) removing cell walls
D) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis
Q2) The cytoskeleton consists of
A) microfilaments and sterols
B) microtubules and proteins
C) microfilaments and microtubules
D) sterols and proteins
Q3) Endospores are usually induced to form when
A) temperatures rise
B) certain nutrients are depleted
C) radiation is detected
D) water is lost from the cell
Q4) What is the function of gas-filled vacuoles in aquatic photosynthetic bacteria?
A) transducers to detect chemicals and signal the cells to respond
B) regulate the depth at which they float by changing amount of gas in vacuoles
C) change the handedness of the helix in which the bacteria is moving
D) allows the bacteria to respond to magnetic fields
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioluminescent microbes
A) may have evolved to remove oxygen from the atmosphere
B) are often beneficiares of symbiotic relationships with a larger host, producing light in exchange for nutrients
C) often have the enzyme luciferase which catalyzes the oxidation reaction that emits light
D) all of the above
Q2) Which statement about fermentation is true?
A) all fermentation of pyruvic acid always results in the same end product
B) all fermentation of glucose begins with pyruvic acid as a substrate
C) the same fermentation reaction produces both wine and cheese
D) none of the above
Q3) The end product of glycolysis is
A) fructose-1,6-diphosphate
B) 1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid
C) phosphoenolpyruvic acid
D) pyruvic acid
Q4) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) The streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating individual bacterial cells from one another by
A) dragging them across a solid surface
B) dispersing them in liquid media
C) killing off those cells that are not able to survive in hot agar
D) embedding some cells in the agar so that they are exposed to lower concentrations of oxygen
Q2) Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise?
A) aerotolerant anaerobes
B) facultative anaerobes
C) obligate anaerobes
D) obligate aerobes
Q3) The pour plate method of isolating pure cultures
A) relies on the fact that liquid agar will solidify as it cools
B) is useful for growing microaerophiles
C) results in some organisms growing embedded in the agar
D) all of the above
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polymerase chain reaction
A) allows for the rapid amplification of a billion copies of DNA without needing a living cell
B) can be applied to historic samples and to criminal investigations
C) requires oligonucleotides to cut DNA into smaller pieces
D) two of the above are true
Q2) A DNA mutation that results in no change in protein product produced is termed a
A) missense mutation
B) nonsense mutation
C) silent mutation
D) frameshift mutation
Q3) The process of ________ results in the synthesis of a new protein.
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) transversion
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's
A) bacterial chromosome
B) F plasmid
C) F pilus
D) mitochondria
Q2) When cells conjugate for longer periods of time,which of the following will occur?
A) fewer genes will be transferred
B) more genes will be transferred
C) the same number of genes will be transferred
D) It is impossible to tell. Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related
Q3) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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10
Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following is a reason that bacteria cannot be classified in the same way as animals?
A) some bacteria are not motile
B) bacteria don't reproduce sexually
C) bacteria are single celled organisms
D) bacteria are prokaryotic organisms
Q2) All of the following are considered eukaryotes except A) Archea
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Humans
Q3) Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae are unusual in that they
A) are sometimes gram negative and sometimes gram positive
B) have no cell walls
C) must live inside other living cells
D) are extremely large
Q4) What is a species? How are species determined for bacteria and plants/animals?
Discuss whether you believe that the species concept is better than identifying microbes based on their ecological niche (habitat,functions,etc.)or based on phylogenetic/evolutionary relationships.
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures do viruses use to attach themselves to the host cell and help viruses enter the host cells?
A) viral spikes
B) viral tails
C) viral particles
D) viral nucleic acid
Q2) Diseases such as Creutzfeld-Jacob disease,kuru,and mad cow disease are caused by
A) RNA viruses
B) DNA viruses
C) bacteria
D) prions
Q3) Which of the following viruses plays an important role in the development of cervical cancer?
A) adenoviruses
B) herpes viruses
C) papilloma viruses
D) slow viruses
Q4) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that are normally free living but can also obtain nutrients from a host are called
A) facultative parasites
B) obligate parasite
C) biological vectors
D) accidental parasites
Q2) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as
A) obligate parasites
B) schizons
C) hermaphrodites
D) accidental parasites
Q3) Fungal hyphae are sometimes separated into smaller compartments by cross walls called
A) mycelium
B) thalli
C) sporangia
D) septa
Q4) Outline or illustrate in detail form the life cycle of the malaria parasite,naming the stages and the various host organisms involved. Describe another protozoa that causes human diseases.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a practical means of killing microorganisms?
A) pasteurization
B) freeze-drying
C) ultrasonic waves
D) ultraviolet light
Q2) Microwave radiation
A) damages DNA by ionizing radiation.
B) destroys bacterial endospores.
C) produces peroxides, which oxidize molecules.
D) when tuned to energy levels of water releases the energy as heat.
Q3) Which of the following statements about evaluating the effectiveness of chemical agents is false?
A) phenol coefficient can be used to evaluate the efficacy of phenol derivatives
B) materials present can complex with or inactivate a chemical agent during the phenol coefficient test
C) in the filter paper test, a clear area around the disk indicates a prevention of microorganism growth but not killing of microbes
D) the use-dilution test is considered to be more meaningful than the phenol coefficient
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A special group of chemical substances that are used to treat diseases caused by microbes:
A) antibiotics
B) synthetic drugs
C) semi-synthetic drugs
D) antimicrobial agents
Q2) Determining microbial sensitivity to an antimicrobial agent by using a filter paper soaked with the drug on a bacterial lawn on an agar plate is called:
A) dilution method
B) disk diffusion method
C) automated testing
D) phage typing
Q3) Which does not involve testing microbial sensitivity to antimicrobials?
A) disk diffusion method
B) dilution method
C) minimum inhibitory concentration
D) toxic dosage level
Q4) Describe the targets or action for 3 of the following: antifungal agents,antiviral agents,antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) A disease in which the agent is acquired directly from the environment and is not transmittable is a
A) local disease
B) secondary disease
C) noncommunicable disease
D) acute disease
Q2) The microorganism Staphylococcus aureus causes which condition?
A) gas gangrene
B) botulism
C) scalded skin syndrome
D) scarlet fever
Q3) Exotoxins
A) are soluble substances secreted into host tissues
B) build up after antibiotic treatment
C) require the bacteria to die or divide
D) consist of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following prevent and control nosocomial infections except
A) infection control programs in hospitals
B) patient isolation procedures
C) proper education of staff
D) contamination in hemodialysis equipment
Q2) Which of the following pertain to foodborne transmission of infectious agents?
A) poorly treated drinking water
B) microorganisms in dry air
C) properly refrigerated foods
D) unsanitary food preparation
Q3) Congenital infectious diseases
A) cause infection when present on poorly cooked meat
B) cross the placenta from infected mother to fetus
C) enter the body via contaminated water
D) effect only the mother and not the fetus
Q4) A zoonoses refers to an infectious disease that is transmitted
A) to a vertebrate animal from a human
B) from a water reservoir to a human
C) from a human to their pets
D) to a human from vertebrate animal
17
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The granulocyte that releases the inflammatory agent histamine is a
A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
Q2) Interferons are stimulated by viruses and
A) are produced only by macrophages
B) stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells
C) form membrane attack complexes
D) none of the above
Q3) Is fever useful? A patient comes to you with a fever and a respiratory infection,would you be more worried about aggressively treating the fever or too little fever control? Explain your answers.
Q4) An accumulation of pus in a cavity formed by damaged tissue
A) occurs during chronic inflammatory process
B) represents unencapsulated areas of lymphocytes
C) accounts for redness and increased tissue temperature
D) is known as an abscess
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) The role of activated macrophages is to
A) produce polyclonal antibodies
B) produce toxic hydrogen peroxide and accelerate the inflammatory response
C) bind to the MHC II molecule and T cell receptor molecule not in the receptor site
D) none of the above
Q2) Privileged sites
A) have M cells interspersed between epithelial cells
B) include the uterus, anterior chamber of the eye and testes
C) have especially strong immune responses against viruses
D) are not accessible to most pathogens
Q3) You are vaccinated against chickenpox as an infant and then when you are six you encounter the virus as one of your friends is suffering from chickenpox. How does your response to the vaccine (ie your first exposure to the antigen)differ from the response to the virus when you are six (i.e. your second exposure to the antigen)? What antibodies would be in your serum during the first and second response? If you don't get chickenpox when you were six even though you were exposed,is the vaccine a T-independent antigen or a T-dependent antigen?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) In HIV testing ELISA detects _________ while Western blot detects ________.
A) HIV antibodies, HIV antigen proteins
B) HIV proteins, HIV reverse transcriptase
C) HIV capsid proteins, HIV carbohydrates
D) HIV antibodies, HIV antibody complexes
Q2) A wheal and flare reaction is best described as a
A) raised white area with a reddened area.
B) raised red area.
C) blister.
D) flat red area
Q3) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivities except
A) granulomatous reactions
B) serum sickness
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) lupus erythematosus
Q4) Drug reactions
A) are associated with only 3 of the 4 types of hypersensitivities
B) are common because most drug molecules are large enough to act as allergens
C) can occur with antibiotics
D) two of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Which of the following insect diseases are correctly matched with their characteristics?
A) Myiasis - screwworms injure cattle
B) Blackfly fever - toxins introduced cause fever and ascending motor paralysis
C) Chigger dermatitis - inflammation in pubic areas at louse bite sites
D) Scabies - congo floor maggot sucks human blood
Q2) Mucus membranes
A) produce an oily secretion called sebum
B) contain keratin, a waterproofing protein
C) trap pathogens in a thick watery secretion of glycoproteins and electrolytes
D) are distributed with sweat glands that lower the pH of the membranes
Q3) Blastomycosis
A) is common in the Mississippi Valley
B) causes disfiguring granulomatous pus producing skin lessions
C) occurs mostly in young female children
D) two of the above
Q4) Gas gangrene was historically thought of as a battlefield injury and thought to have played a role in determining the outcome of armed conflicts. Describe gas gangrene. What causes gas gangrene? Why is amputation so common? And what civilians are susceptible to the disease?
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Chancroid is caused by
A) Escherichia coli
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q2) Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the
A) bladder
B) rectum
C) kidney
D) urethra
Q3) The acid pH in the vagina is predominantly due to ______ fermenting the _____ present in vaginal cells.
A) Staphylococcus, glycogen
B) Escherichia, glucose
C) Staphylococcus, starch
D) Lactobacillus, glycogen
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22
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) The etiology of whooping cough is
A) Rhinovirus
B) Bordatella pertussis
C) Corynebacterium
D) Haemophilus
Q2) Tubercules
A) are white patches seen on chest x-rays of TB patients
B) undergo destruction giving a cheesy, caseous appearance
C) contain live Mycobacterium
D) all of the above
Q3) Legionellosis is a form of pneumonia that differs from classical pneumonia in that A) patients have an abnormal chest X-ray
B) there is major organ (liver, kidney) involvement
C) the causative agent is a virus
D) patients have fever with chills
Q4) A friend calls and says he thinks he has the flu,because he has a runny,stuffy nose and has been sneezing quite a bit. You tell him it sounds like a cold,not the flu. Compare and contrast four of the symptoms of the common cold and influenza for him.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following protozoal infections is self-limiting in healthy individuals and has no effective treatment?
A) Balantidiasis
B) Cyclosporoiasis
C) Cryptosporidiosis
D) Amoebic dysentery
Q2) Which hepatitis decrease in reported cases in the United States since 1990 is not due to the introduction of a vaccine?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis C
D) two of the above
Q3) Which pathogen is correctly matched with the symptoms it causes?
A) Crytosoporidium - amoebic dysentery
B) Entamoeba histolytica - copious and frothy diarrhea
C) Cyclospora cayentanenisis - extreme fatigue, flu-like symptoms, watery diarrhea
D) Giardia intestinalis - watery diarrhea seen in 400,000+ Milwaukee residents in 1993
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Which infection is seen in individuals with extreme stress,poor sanitation,and nutritional deficiencies,transmitted by body lice and had an impact on both World War I and II?
A) Rickettsialpox
B) Dengue fever
C) Smallpox
D) Shinbone fever
Q2) Epidemic typhus is characterized by all of the following except
A) etiology is Rickettsia prowazekii
B) in WWI, killed 3 million Russians
C) there is no immunity after recovery
D) rash from trunk to extremities, but rarely on palms and soles
Q3) Yellow fever is characterized by all of the following except
A) carrier is sand fly
B) reservoir is monkey
C) vaccine is available
D) limited to tropical areas of Central & South America and Africa
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Mycobacterium leprae is difficult to cultivate but it can be grown
A) on blood agar
B) in armadillos
C) in tissue culture
D) in embryonated eggs
Q2) All of the following statements about rabies are true except A) to transmit the virus, the animal must be shedding the virus in the saliva.
B) rabies progresses rapidly to the brain by the flow of cytoplasm through axons.
C) incubation time is proportional to the distance between the bite wound and the brain.
D) symptoms include hydrophobia, aerophobia, confusion, and hallucination.
Q3) African sleeping sickness is caused by
A) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) prions
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true?
A) not all living microbes require carbon
B) nitrogen fixing bacteria must be in association with legumes
C) Thiobacillus oxidizes hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid
D) Cyanobacteria are the primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer
Q2) Which is a primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer?
A) Azotobacter
B) Rhizobium
C) Cyanobacteria
D) Clostridium
Q3) Which statement about septic tanks is correct?
A) pouring poisons and grease down the drain may kill the tank's beneficial microbes
B) sludge is pumped continually into a drainage leaching field
C) drainage fields last for more than 50 years
D) two of the above
Q4) What is the meaning of biological oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is it important for pollution? What do microbes have to do with this?
Q5) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Floppy baby syndrome is caused by
A) Bacillus species in milk
B) Clostridium botulinum in milk
C) Clostridium botulinum in honey
D) Bacillus in honey
Q2) A bacterial strain used to remove the pectin in the outer layer of the coffee bean in preparation for processing is
A) Phytophthora infestans
B) Erwinia carotovora
C) Erwinia dissolvens
D) Hemileia vastatri
Q3) To be suitable for industrial use,a microorganism should
A) grow rapidly and produce product in a relatively short period of time.
B) be capable of growth and product formation in large scale culture.
C) be genetically stable.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Why is salmonella so often responsible for foodborne illnesses? Through what routes can it enter eggs? What are the safeguards one can take to protect against Salmonella-contaminated poultry,eggs and meats?
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