Environmental Microbiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the diversity, roles, and interactions of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. The course covers fundamental principles of microbial ecology, including the structure, function, and dynamics of microbial communities in soil, water, air, and extreme habitats. Students learn about microbial processes involved in biogeochemical cycling, biodegradation, bioremediation, and environmental health. Emphasis is placed on modern molecular and cultivation-based methods for studying environmental microbes and their applications in pollution control, wastewater treatment, and sustainable ecosystem management.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by
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Jacquelyn G. Black
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) Koch's postulates were
A) specific to anthrax and tuberculosis but don't apply to other diseases
B) designed to establish a casual relationship between a causative microbe and a disease
C) strict in that microorganisms isolated from experimentally inoculated hosts had to be different from the microorganism that was introduced into the host.
D) interpreted as many organisms could cause the same disease
Answer: B
Q2) In which of the following groups would you find a mushroom?
A) bacteria
B) protozoa
C) fungi
D) viruses
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) In salt,a sodium atom loses an electron to a chlorine atom. What is true about the chloride ion found in salt?
A) it has one less electron than proton
B) it is less chemically stable than a chlorine atom
C) it is an anion
D) it is in a covalent bond
Answer: C
Q2) Electrons that have more energy have a _______ charge and are found in the
A) positive; inner electron shell
B) positive; outer electron shell
C) negative; nucleus
D) negative; outer electron shell
Answer: D
Q3) Fatty acids that are _________ have ___________ .
A) saturated ; lost their secondary structure
B) unsaturated, a double bond between two carbons that have lost hydrogen atoms
C) saturated, one or more double bonds
D) denatured, all the hydrogen they can.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) Electron microscopes use ________ to focus the electron beam.
A) glass lenses
B) electromagnets
C) mechanical stages
D) laser beams
Answer: B
Q2) The best electron microscopes have a resolution of
A) 0.1 nm
B) 1 nm
C) 10 nm
D) 100 nm
Answer: B
Q3) Electron microscopes
A) that are scanning have better resolution than those that are transmission
B) are much more expensive and take up more space than light microscopes
C) can use the same preparations of specimens that have been prepared for viewing with a light microscope
D) have a resolving power approximately 10 times better than the best light microscope
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Mitochondria
A) are responsible for converting sunlight to chemical energy
B) are present only in photosynthetic organisms
C) have a double membrane
D) are responsible for protein synthesis
Q2) The Fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of
A) cell walls
B) cell membranes
C) capsules
D) endosymbiotic relationships
Q3) Bacteria with flagella all over their surface are said to be
A) monotrichous
B) peritrichous
C) amphitrichous
D) lophotrichous
Q4) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
Q5) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) The prokaryotic aerobic metabolism of glucose produces a total (net)of ________ molecules of ATP.
A) 24
B) 30
C) 34
D) 38
Q2) Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain the energy they need from
A) the reactions of photosynthesis
B) sunlight
C) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
D) chemical reactions in their cytoplasm
Q3) A metabolic pathway that is involved in both breakdown and synthetic reactions is properly termed
A) catabolic
B) amphibolic
C) metabolic
D) anabolic
Q4) Describe the chemical characteristics of enzymes and indicate why they are important in the metabolism of large molecules and how they determine which metabolic pathways occur in a cell.
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Where would you expect to find a barophile?
A) at the bottom of a lake
B) in unpasteurized milk
C) in the large intestine
D) in sewage
Q2) Bacterial growth in colonies on agar plates
A) have all phases of growth occurring simultaneously somewhere in the colony
B) most growth occurs at the center of the colony
C) involves budding of small new colonies from the surface of an existing colony
D) have lag phase cells in the center of the colony, surrounded by a ring of cells in exponential phase
Q3) When a bacterial cell divides into two new cells,the new cells are called
A) daughter cells
B) sister cells
C) son cells
D) father cells
Q4) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria don't continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Polymerase chain reaction
A) allows for the rapid amplification of a billion copies of DNA without needing a living cell
B) can be applied to historic samples and to criminal investigations
C) requires oligonucleotides to cut DNA into smaller pieces
D) two of the above are true
Q2) Mutations
A) when occurring on a particular Okazaki fragment can lead to different loci
B) often change a person's blood from type A to type AB
C) are responsible for heritable variations seen in progeny
D) occur only when the DNA is transmitted to a daughter cell
Q3) Reverse transcription occurs when
A) RNA is used as a template to produce DNA
B) DNA is used as a template to produce RNA
C) Protein is used as a template to produce RNA
D) RNA is used as a template to produce protein
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) Soil bacteria are incredibly resistant to multiple antibiotics,presumably as a response to competition from bacteria that produce antibiotics. What are three ways that these antibiotic resistant genes could move from soil bacteria species to other species of bacteria? Briefly describe each gene transfer process. Name one or more factors that would affect the likelihood of this transfer occurring.
Q2) In horizontal gene transfer
A) genes are passed between bacteria of different generations
B) genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells
C) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation
D) none of the above
Q3) In a culture containing both F and F cells,which of the following will occur if we wait long enough?
A) No conjugation will occur
B) The cells will all become genetically identical
C) All F will become F cells
D) All F cells will become F cells
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) In DNA hybridization experiments,DNA from two closely related organisms will show A) very little annealing
B) a high percentage of annealing
C) 100% annealing
D) it is impossible to tell
Q2) Viruses are not assigned to any Kingdom because A) there are too few viruses to bother
B) viruses are not alive
C) virology is not a recognized branch of microbiology
D) none of the above, viruses are grouped with the bacteria
Q3) Before bacteria received a kingdom of their own they were generally classified along with A) plants
B) animals
C) fungi
D) viruses
Q4) How do lateral gene transfer and symbiosis complicate both the three domain and five kingdom treelike structure? Where do viruses,viroids and prions fit in today's taxonomy? Are they classified based on phylogeny or morphology?
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) A virus's RNA can be directly used to synthesize proteins by the host cell after infection in a process shown below:
A) RNA protein
B) RNA RNA protein
C) RNA DNA protein
D) RNA RNA DNA protein
Q2) The only RNA tumor virus that causes human cancer is
A) retroviruses
B) proviruses
C) rhinovirus
D) rubella virus
Q3) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________.
A) prophage, lysogen
B) plaque, lysogen
C) lysogen, prophage
D) prophage, retrovirus
Q4) Why was it previously believed that only DNA viruses can cause cancer? How can RNA viruses cause cancer?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Members of the phylum Ascomycota produce asexual spores called ________ .
A) antheridia
B) archegonia
C) ascogonia
D) conidia
Q2) Which of the following organisms is a saprophyte?
A) euglenoids
B) sarcodines
C) slime molds
D) diatoms
Q3) Arthropods are responsible for transmitting ________ pathogens.
A) viral
B) bacterial
C) protozoan
D) viral, bacterial and protozoan
Q4) Bread molds are members of the phylum
A) Zygomycota
B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) Deuteromycota
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Alcohols
A) oxidize disulfide bonds
B) dissolve lipids and denature proteins
C) alter nucleic acids
D) lower the pH
Q2) Membrane filters are used for sterilization because
A) filters with smallest pore size do not clog easily.
B) many materials are destroyed by heat sterilization
C) they are used to sterilize only very small amounts of liquid
D) they are impractical for the filtration of beer, sera, media, vitamins and drugs.
Q3) All of the following are examples of heavy metals used as antimicrobial agents except
A) iodine
B) merthiolate
C) selenium sulfate
D) copper sulfate
Q4) Compare the meanings of the following paired terms: a)disinfectant and antiseptic; b)bactericidal agent and bacteriostatic agent; and c)sterilization and disinfection. When is it worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item?
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Which one of the following antimicrobial agents is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis?
A) tetracycline
B) penicillin
C) chloramphenicol
D) erythromycin
Q2) Polypeptide antibiotics that act as detergents and distort bacterial cellular membranes do so by:
A) acting as antimetabolites
B) inhibiting cell wall synthesis
C) disrupting cell membrane function
D) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
Q3) A decreased efficacy of an antimicrobial agent during combination therapy is called
A) antagonism
B) cross-resistance
C) synergism
D) second-line
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) An infection that is confined to a specific area of the body:
A) local infection
B) focal infection
C) systemic infection
D) latent infection
Q2) Leukocidin
A) is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity
B) is an endotoxin
C) is insoluble in host tissues
D) destroys or damages neutrophils
Q3) Which of the following statements about the relationship between hosts and microbes is true?
A) an opportunistic pathogen has a relatively low infectious dose
B) infection always leads to symptoms
C) some organisms can be pathogens and commensals
D) endogenous infections are caused by microbes that are endemic to environment
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Which of the following pertain to foodborne transmission of infectious agents?
A) poorly treated drinking water
B) microorganisms in dry air
C) properly refrigerated foods
D) unsanitary food preparation
Q2) A site where microorganisms can persist and thus maintain the ability to cause infection:
A) control group
B) portal of exit
C) reservoir
D) prospective
Q3) Pathogens that are mainly transients from soil,water,plants or animals usually follow what mode of disease transmission?
A) airborne
B) foodborne
C) insectborne
D) mechanical vectorborne
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterroism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) What collection of lymphoid tissue,found in the ileum of the small intestine,is comprised of unencapsulated regions filled with lymphocytes,called lymphoid nodules?
A) gut-associated lymphatic tissues
B) mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues
C) phagosomes
D) tonsils
Q2) You receive a cut on your foot. What are the four characteristic signs of inflammation you would expect to see? How would an inflammatory response develop against bacteria that enter the cut?
Q3) Macrophages include all of the following except
A) wandering macrophages
B) cells that phagocytise large debris
C) the fastest phagocytes to reach an infection site
D) histiocytes, kupffer cells and osteoclasts
Q4) Which of the following is not a chemical barrier?
A) mucous membrane
B) saliva
C) gastric juice
D) complement
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) An area on an antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds is called:
A) Fc fragment
B) Fab fragment
C) Fab and Fc fragment
D) epitope or antigenic determinant
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except
A) antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body
B) made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody
C) produced by a clone of cultured cells
D) used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis
Q3) A compromised host
A) may have a poor diet
B) may have an impairment in cell mediated immunity but not humoral immunity
C) usually has increased resistance to infectious diseases
D) two of the above
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
Q5) How do vaccines work? Can you describe 2 hazards of vaccines? In your opinion why aren't there vaccines for every disease?
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) DiGeorge's Syndrome is due to a lack of A) B-cells
B) T-cells
C) complement
D) TH cell deficiency
Q2) Hypersensitivity or allergy refers to the immune system responding
A) in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance
B) too little too late
C) inadequately to an antigen
D) to its own tissues as if they were foreign
Q3) The only treatment used to cure allergies is _____________.
A) epinephrine
B) antibiotics
C) desensitization
D) sensitization
Q4) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is mediated by
A) IgG, IgM
B) IgE
C) complement
D) two of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is implicated in eye infections such as A) trachoma
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) conjunctivitis
D) two of the above
Q2) Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A) rheumatic fever
B) toxic shock syndrome
C) scarlet fever
D) roseola
Q3) Which of the following statements about pox diseases is incorrect?
A) molluscum contagiosum only elicits a slight immune response
B) monkey pox outbreaks have increased with the discontinuation of smallpox vaccination
C) vaccinia virus can be used as a smallpox vaccine
D) cowpox only causes disease in cows, humans can not be infected
Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following viruses can lead to fever blisters (cold sores)on the mouth and lips?
A) HSV-1
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) HSV-2
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A) Herpes Whitlow - fingers
B) HSV 2 - genital herpes
C) HSV 1 -- labial fever blisters
D) Herpes gladiatorium -- pneumonia
Q3) A patient has a UTI with a low number of bacteria in the patient's urine sample and only one pathogen was detected. What condition(s)could have led to the infection?
A) pyelonephritis
B) cystitis
C) acute prostatitis
D) two of the above
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Amphotericin B is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections for all of the following except
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Cryptococcosis
C) Pneumocystis pneumonia
D) Aspergillosis
Q2) Pharyngitis is described as
A) a sore throat
B) a strep throat
C) a viral infection
D) a fungal infection
Q3) Legionellosis is a form of pneumonia that differs from classical pneumonia in that A) patients have an abnormal chest X-ray
B) there is major organ (liver, kidney) involvement
C) the causative agent is a virus
D) patients have fever with chills
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which helminth burrows through the skin,reach the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed and then burrow into villi of the intestines and mature to adult worms?
A) Ascariasis
B) Trichinosis
C) Hookworms
D) Strongyloidiasis
Q2) Which of the following infections is due to prokaryotic organisms?
A) stomach ulcers
B) hepatitis
C) duodenal ulcers
D) two of the above
Q3) Staphylococcus food poisoning is caused by
A) enterotoxins
B) exotoxins
C) toxins that cause neural stimulation of the vomiting center of the brain
D) all of the above
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Swelling that results from roundworms blocking the lymphatic is called
A) myocarditis
B) elephantiasis
C) pericarditis
D) lymphangitis
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to red streaks beneath the skin of legs and arms?
A) bacteremia
B) septic shock
C) septicemia
D) lymphangitis
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a bacteria-fibrin mass that forms on damaged valvular surfaces?
A) vegetation
B) lymphangitis
C) ischemia
D) petichia
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) African sleeping sickness is caused by
A) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) prions
Q2) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area where it is difficult to get to and vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent?
Q3) All of the following are true about brain abscesses except
A) reach brain from head wounds or via blood
B) treated either with antibiotics or surgical removal
C) occurs in Hansen's disease
D) can be detected by CAT scan
Q4) Botulism includes
A) food poisoning
B) infant botulism
C) wound botulism
D) all of the above
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) In testing for water purity,the presumptive test would include
A) Eosin-methylene blue agar
B) lactose broth
C) nutrient agar
D) Gram stain
Q2) Which of the following symptoms is not part of sick building syndrome?
A) headache and burning eyes
B) nosebleeds and skin problems
C) dizziness and nausea
D) feeling like there is too much air
Q3) Soil contains human pathogens,for instance
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) all of the above
Q4) Cytophaga,found in soil,is characterized by
A) being a fungus
B) cellulose degradation
C) being strictly aerobic
D) being a protozoan decomposer
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Tuberculosis can be transmitted by
A) unpasteurized milk
B) unpasteurized cheeses
C) fomites in food
D) all of the above
Q2) Milk naturally contains some antimicrobial substances which include
A) agglutinins
B) leukocytes
C) lactenin
D) all of the above
Q3) The yeast responsible for wine and beer is generally
A) Candida
B) Aspergillus
C) Saccharomyces
D) Mucor
Q4) Floppy baby syndrome is caused by
A) Bacillus species in milk
B) Clostridium botulinum in milk
C) Clostridium botulinum in honey
D) Bacillus in honey
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