Environmental Issues and Solutions Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course explores the major environmental challenges facing our world today, including climate change, pollution, resource depletion, loss of biodiversity, and waste management. Students will examine the causes and consequences of these issues from scientific, economic, and social perspectives. Through case studies, discussions, and analysis of current events, the course emphasizes evidence-based strategies and innovative solutions for mitigating environmental problems. Students will also learn about policy frameworks, technological advancements, and community actions that contribute to sustainable development and environmental stewardship.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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32 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1:
Literacy
From a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) The _________ is the land needed to provide resources and assimilate the waste of a person or population.
A) carrying capacity
B) biomass
C) ecological fingerprint
D) ecological footprint
E) population demand
Answer: D
Q2) The policy that was NOT effective in preserving the environment was the
A) Homestead Act
B) establishment of the National Forest Service
C) establishment of the National Park Service
D) Clean Air Act
E) Clean Water Act
Answer: A
Q3) What does an environment include?
Answer: An environment includes the biological (living) and physical (nonliving) surroundings in which any given living organism exists.
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) Which form of ultraviolet (UV) radiation is important in the formation of ozone?
A) UV-A
B) UV-B
C) UV-C
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Prior to Susan Solomon's experiments, the information available to NASA ozone-modeler Paul Newman led him to believe that the loss of ozone in the Antarctic spring was due to excess solar activity. What was the new information that Solomon discovered that led Newman to reject his hypothesis in favor of her polar cloud hypothesis? Is it possible that Solomon's hypothesis could be rejected in the future?
Answer: The level of ClO (chlorine monoxide) in the stratosphere measured by Solomon's team supported the hypothesis that UV-B breaks down CFCs, which in turn break down ozone molecules. All conclusions in science are tentative. The data supporting her hypothesis are strong, but new information could cause the hypothesis to be modified or even rejected.
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
Chemicals in Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) Describe what it means to be a critical thinker. List four measures that should be included in a critical thinker's skill set.
Answer: Critical thinkers have skills that enable them to logically assess the information they find, reflect on that information, and reach their own conclusions. These skills include being skeptical, evaluating the evidence, being open minded, and watching out for biases.
Q2) Explain the differences between primary, secondary, and tertiary information sources. Provide an example of each type.
Answer: Primary sources present new and original data or information, including novel scientific experiments and first-hand accounts of any given observation. An example would be a peer-reviewed journal article. Secondary sources come from reputable sources and present and interpret information from primary sources. An example would be a textbook on environmental science. Tertiary sources are those that present and interpret information from secondary sources. Tertiary sources may be accurate; however, they may introduce errors because they do not rely on the primary source for facts. Many blogs, websites, and even news shows are examples.
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population
Control
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a good predictor of population growth in a country?
A) the land mass of a country
B) crude death rate
C) crude birth rate
D) population momentum
E) All of the above are good predictors.
Q2) Refer to the graph in Infographic 4.4. A friend states that the only reason human environmental impact is unsustainable is the dramatic population growth in less developed countries. How can you explain that more developed countries also make unsustainable demands on our Earth's limited resources?
Q3) What effect is the Chinese migration from rural to urban areas having on the population?
A) Urban families tend to be larger than rural families.
B) Urban families tend to be smaller than rural families.
C) Cities are better able to handle the burgeoning populations than the countryside is.
D) There are fewer opportunities for education and health care in the cities.
E) More Chinese are deciding to immigrate to other countries.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Health- Eradicating a Parasitic
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the
Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) Which prevention method(s) would be most effective in the eradication of Guinea worm disease?
A) reducing air pollution
B) providing access to clean water
C) ceasing all war
D) using solar stoves for cooking
E) planting runoff gardens near bodies of water
Q2) Why is it important to get affected community buy-in when trying to reduce environmental health hazards (or any kind of hazard, for that matter)?
Q3) Which human activity has not influenced the prevalence and seriousness of health hazards?
A) deforestation
B) urbanization
C) dam building
D) habitat fragmentation
E) All of these options have influenced the prevalence and seriousness of human health hazards.
Q4) Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD) possible? Page 7
Q5) How might washing your hands lead to a human health threat?
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Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) One major difference between mainstream and environmental economics is that mainstream economics assumes that waste can be disposed of in a(n) _______ system.
A) closed-loop
B) open-loop
C) two-way
D) linear
E) bilinear
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important reason to maintain an intact ecosystem?
A) An intact ecosystem provides numerous ecosystem services.
B) An intact ecosystem can renew and recycle resources.
C) If we use more resources and goods than the ecosystem can replenish, we will not be able to receive these goods and services.
D) Our future health and well-being will be threatened.
E) All of the above are important reasons to maintain intact ecosystems.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 6.5. You can find a double cheeseburger on the "dollar menu" at many fast-food chains. Use the infographic to describe how the true cost of that food product is not reflected by the sale price.
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Chapter 7: Managing Solid Waste- a Plastic Surf: Are the Oceans Teeming With Trash-
Ecology
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Q1) Why is there no such thing as waste in natural, non-human ecosystems?
A) There is not enough consumption to produce waste.
B) The discarded matter of one organism becomes the resources for another.
C) All organisms reuse their own discarded matter.
D) There is one niche in every ecosystem that consumes all waste from the other members of the ecosystem.
E) Waste does exist in natural ecosystems; we just can't see it.
Q2) What is e-waste? Explain why recycling e-waste is a better idea than simply burying it in a hazardous waste landfill. What are the concerns with such recycling efforts?
Q3) Aquatic ecosystems are considered particularly vulnerable to plastic waste. Describe four ways that plastic waste can affect aquatic species and ecosystems.
Q4) Refer to Infographic 7.7. Use the infographic to describe an eco-industrial park and the advantages of using such innovations.
Q5) At the grocery store, you are faced with a dilemma. Which container of milk is the most eco-friendly (plastic, paperboard, or glass)? Discuss impacts and trade-offs for each type.
Q6) What everyday changes can you make to reduce the amount of waste you produce?
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT characterize a particular biome?
A) distinct climate
B) dominant vegetation
C) temperature
D) precipitation
E) size
Q2) An organism's habitat can be considered its _________, while its niche can be viewed as its ___________.
A) address; profession
B) profession; address
C) place where it reproduces; place where it lives
D) life requirements; physical environment
E) role in a community; energy source
Q3) Which nutrient cycle(s) do(does) not have a phase in the atmosphere?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorous
D) choices A and B only
E) choices B and C only
Q4) If no new matter enters the system, how can Earth continue to exist? Page 11
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Early in the colonization of a new habitat, a population will show _____________, shifting to _____________ as the density of the population increases.
A) resistance; biotic potential
B) exponential growth; logistic growth
C) logistic growth; exponential growth
D) biotic potential; overshoot
E) None of the above is correct.
Q2) Which species' offspring are more likely to survive?
A) r-selected species
B) K-selected species
C) Both are likely to survive.
D) Neither is likely to survive.
Q3) Availability of water, food, and sunlight are all _________ regulators.
A) biotic
B) exponential
C) logarithmic
D) bottom-up
E) top-down
Q4) Why might a minimum viable population not be an ecologically effective population?
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Chapter 10: Community Ecology- What the Stork Says: a Bird Species in the Everglades Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) Humans drained the Everglades in the early 20th century because
A) they were seen as having no utility to humans
B) they wanted to develop cities and towns in the region
C) they thought it would prevent flooding
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) One example of commensal interaction could be ________________.
A) snail kites and apple snails
B) gray squirrels and humans
C) bees and daffodils
D) leeches and alligators
E) gray squirrels and fox squirrels
Q3) The historic flow of water in south Florida was from Lake Okeechobee, with the main flow moving ________________.
A) south through the Everglades and into Florida Bay
B) east-west across Florida
C) southeast through the Everglades to Miami and the Atlantic Ocean
D) north to Orlando
Page 14
E) east through West Palm Beach and into the Atlantic Ocean
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Describe how a population evolves by natural selection.
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the theory of evolution?
A) It helps us understand the diversity of life on Earth and how populations change over time.
B) It is supported by a vast amount of evidence and is very likely not to be wrong.
C) Natural selection is the main mechanism by which populations adapt and evolve.
D) The pace of evolution is generally slow.
E) Evolution is just a theory that can be easily dismissed by available evidence.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 11.3. A population of grasshopper mice preys upon a population of beetles. The population of beetles contains individuals with an adaptive trait of squirting a noxious fluid that repels the mice. Over time, the majority of beetles in the population will have the genes that provide for that trait. Use the infographic to describe what changes will need to occur in the grasshopper mouse population to counter what has happened in the beetle population. What is this situation an example of?
Q4) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
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Chapter
Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) The number of unique species _________ with isolation.
A) increases
B) decreases
Q2) Why must certified sustainable palm oil plantations be required to minimize their use of fire and pesticides?
A) Fire and pesticides decrease the genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity of the local ecosystem.
B) Fire and pesticides will kill the palm trees, causing the farmers to replant the trees every year.
C) Fire and pesticides make the palm oil taste bad.
D) Fire and pesticides may cause harm to plantation workers.
E) Certified sustainable palm oil plantations are not restricted in their use of fire and pesticides.
Q3) Why might a species become endangered?
A) habitat loss
B) low genetic diversity
C) human involvement (for example, hunting, destruction of habitat, etc.)
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) According to the Red List, created by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, which classification would be given to a species under the most serious threat?
A) near threatened
B) vulnerable
C) critically endangered
D) endangered
E) least concern
Q2) Biodiversity is important in a population because:
A) individuals in that population need a variety of mates.
B) it allows the population to be more resistant to disruptions.
C) it increases the populations vulnerability to extinction.
D) it increases the chances that each member of the population will be identical to each other.
E) it measures the species' richness but not the genetic diversity in the population and is therefore a great predictor of ecosystem stability.
Q3) Refer to the graph in Infographic 13.1. Agriculture/aquaculture represents the greatest threat to vertebrate species. Why do you think this is? Frame your answer in terms of the major threats to global biodiversity.
Page 18
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Chapter
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) Which of the following is a cheap way to maintain water supplies?
A) not waste so much water
B) use water-saving irrigation methods
C) create groundwater replenishment systems
D) install high-tech water filtration systems
E) both A and B
Q2) What is a consequence of too much water being removed from an aquifer?
A) saltwater intrusion
B) dry wells
C) cones of depression
D) lowered water table levels
E) all of these answers
Q3) Which of the following is the closest to the World Health Organization's estimates for those without access to clean water?
A) 10%
B) 18%
C) 33%
D) 53%
E) none of these answers
Q4) Refer to Table 14.1. Explain how using less energy saves water. Page 19
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) In drought years, the size of the hypoxic zone in the Gulf and Mexico is:
A) larger.
B) smaller.
C) unchanging.
Q2) Why is the prevention of soil erosion one of the best management practices to reduce the amount of pollution being delivered to the Mississippi River?
Q3) Increased nutrient pollution, when compared to previous years' levels, is due to a single factor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How can you explain to your neighbor that her perfectly manicured, monocultural, heavily fertilized lawn may be contributing to the destruction of ecosystems in the Gulf of Mexico?
Q5) Let's say you become interested in studying the amount of water pollution in a stream that runs through your backyard. Without special equipment, how could you perform a biological assessment on the stream?
Q6) Discuss some ways that human alteration of watersheds has affected the quality of surface water and the quantity of groundwater.
Page 21
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Chapter
Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in every human on Earth being fed a life-sustaining diet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe how traditional selective breeding, where farmers attempt to produce offspring with valuable traits by breeding parents with those traits, is different from creating organisms with valuable traits using genetic engineering.
Q3) A person who eats 5,000 calories a day can be malnourished.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In transgenic organisms, what step(s) would a gene gun replace?
A) isolation and replication of a desired gene
B) insertion of a desired gene into a plasmid
C) plasmid delivering a desired gene to the host nucleus
D) A, B, and C
E) B and C
Q5) Given what you know about industrial agriculture and the Green Revolution, why is world hunger considered a "wicked problem"?
Q6) Why are low-tech farming methods more accessible to women farmers?
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative
Solutions
to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Rearing meat or dairy animals in confined spaces, maximizing the number of animals that can be grown in a small area, is referred to as a __________.
A) sustainable agriculture system
B) concentrated animal feeding operation (CAFO)
C) monoculture
D) traditional agriculture system
E) transgenic operation
Q2) What is the one possible result of growing crops in marginal soil?
A) cultural eutrophication
B) dependence on fertilizer
C) lower yields
D) increased greenhouse gas release
E) All of these answers are potential results.
Q3) Which green bean would likely have a higher nutrient content?
A) one grown on a new industrial farm
B) one grown on an established industrial farm
C) They would both have the same nutrient content.
Page 23
Q4) What are monocultures and concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs)?
Describe pros and cons of each in industrialized agriculture.
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Q1) The greatest amount of electricity in the United States is generated using
A) coal
B) wind turbines
C) hydroelectric power
D) natural gas
E) nuclear power
Q2) If a mining company came to you with a plan to plant the same species of pine trees, and only pine trees, on their reclaimed mine in order to comply with the laws, what would you tell them? Would you advise them to go ahead with their plan, or would you suggest a different one?
Q3) How are mountaintop removal mines typically "reclaimed"?
Q4) __________________ is removing dirt and rock that overlays a mineral deposit close to the surface in order to access that deposit.
A) Subsurface mining
B) Surface mining
C) Fracking
D) Deep mining
E) Hydraulic mining
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Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 19.3. The United States reached its peak oil for domestic deposits in 1970. What have we done since then?
A) increased our dependence on other countries for oil
B) reduced our demand for oil
C) found other fuel sources to use instead of oil
D) continued to search for new sources of oil in the United States
E) used up our stores of domestic oil while reducing our dependence on foreign oil
Q2) All of the following are products of crude oil refining EXCEPT ________________.
A) liquefied petroleum gas
B) gasoline
C) diesel oils
D) natural gas
E) kerosene
Q3) Explain why oil consumption in the United States is on the decline but globally oil consumption is on the rise.
Q4) What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?
Q5) Explain why it is difficult to determine how long oil reserves will last.
Q6) What is the sequence used for extracting oil from the petroleum reservoirs? Page 25
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) The World Health Organization estimates that indoor air pollution may be responsible for up to ______ or more premature deaths of women and children each year, mostly in developing nations.
A) 500,000
B) 1 million
C) 2 million
D) 3 million
E) 50 million
Q2) In 1963, the United States passed the ______, which sets a maximum amount for emissions of pollutants or the presence of pollutants in ambient air.
A) Safe Air Act
B) Safe Air Law
C) Clean Air Act
D) Clear Air Law
E) Safe and Clean Air Act
Q3) Compare and contrast the health risks associated with indoor air pollution in developed versus developing countries.
Q4) Why do lower income or minority areas often have some of the worst outdoor air quality?
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.
Q2) The actual temperature on any given day is the _________, while the range of expected values, based on location and time of year, is the __________.
A) climate; weather
B) albedo; radiative forcer
C) weather; climate
D) prediction; weather
E) forecast; reality
Q3) _______ is the ability of a surface to reflect away solar radiation.
A) Albedo
B) Positive feedback
C) Radiative force
D) Greenhouse effect
E) None of these answers
Q4) Describe how the recent changes in global climate are expected to impact biodiversity.
Page 28
Q5) What changes occurred to Minnesota's climate 12,000 and 6,000 years ago? What effect did these changes have on the ranges for various tree species?
Q6) In terms of temperature, what recent global trends have been observed?
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Chapter 22: Nuclear Power - the Future of Fukushima: Can
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) What is one criticism of nuclear energy-development projects?
A) They would upset the fossil fuel-based global economy.
B) Some methods of power generation create radioisotopes that can be used in weapons.
C) Power production cannot be increased or decreased to reflect demand.
D) Fuels used in nuclear power are not as energy rich as coal.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q2) The heat released in a nuclear chain reaction is ___________________ times more than what is released by burning coal or oil and is used to turn turbines that generate electricity.
A) 100,000
B) 1 million
C) 10 million
D) 100 million
E) 1 billion
Q3) Discuss the safety of living near a nuclear power plant relative to living near a coal-fired power plant.
Q4) Explain how using uranium as a fuel to produce energy is an advantage as far as availability goes versus the availability of fossil fuels.
Page 30
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-
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Q1) Which of the following electricity energy sources is least expensive for the consumer?
A) fossil fuels
B) solar energy
C) wind
D) geothermal energy
E) nuclear energy
Q2) What areas are best suited for geothermal energy production, and why?
Q3) How much of Samsø's electric power is produced from the burning of fossil fuels?
A) 40%
B) 30%
C) 25%
D) 10%
E) 0%
Q4) What makes solar energy an unreliable energy source?
A) Photovoltaic cells have a lot of moving parts that produce noise.
B) Sunlight is intermittent, especially in high-latitude locations.
C) It has expensive start-up costs.
D) A, B, and C are correct.
E) B and C are correct.
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Chapter
Bronx, Building a Better Backyard
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Q1) What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?
Q2) A federal highway project is proposed to connect two existing stretches of interstate. What signature feature of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) must be met prior to construction of the highway?
Q3) What type of policy is needed when an environmental problem extends across national boundaries?
A) national
B) local
C) international
D) state
E) intranational
Q4) Excess nitrogen fertilizer runs off Midwestern farmland into waterways that lead to the Gulf of Mexico, where the result is a "dead zone" of low oxygen levels. This impacts the ecosystem there and presents a significant economic hardship to the shrimping industry. What level of policy might be needed to address this problem? What existing federal law could be applied?
Q5) What was the Kyoto Protocol, and how was compliance enforced?
Page 32
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) Densely populated regions that include cities and the suburbs that surround them are known as _________________.
A) urban areas
B) sprawl zones
C) core areas
D) exurbs
E) none of these answers
Q2) Why are parking garages considered part of the New Urbanism?
A. They encourage single occupancy car use.
B. They are more compact than parking lots.
C. They are an important part of suburban and exurban development-the growth pattern of the future.
D. A, B, and C are correct.
E. None of these answers are correct.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 25.2. Discuss at least two of the benefits of urbanization to the environment.
Q4) Why would some consider the Cross Bronx Expressway a contributor to environmental justice problems?
Q5) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
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Chapter
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Q1) Describe how Mark Hersam's work at Northwestern University helps address both resource scarcity and environmental pollution.
Q2) The true cost of minerals takes into account:
A) human health and human rights.
B) fuel, machinery, and labor.
C) environmental impacts.
D) A, B, and C
E) B and C
Q3) Which type of rock forms where magma emerges and cools at a plate boundary?
A) igneous
B) metamorphic
C) sedimentary
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B
Q4) __________ is the study of Earth's structure and the processes that shape it.
A) Biology
B) Chemistry
C) Physics
D) Engineering
E) Geology
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) One of the advantages of using land for grazing is __________________.
A) it takes less land per animal than feeding grain to livestock
B) we are turning material we cannot eat into food that we can eat
C) that plants are eaten faster than they can grow
D) that the soil becomes compacted, making it harder for seeds to germinate
E) All of these answers are advantages for using land for grazing.
Q2) Refer to Infographic 27.4. Which soil layer contains the most decaying material and living organisms?
A) B horizon
B) A horizon
C) R horizon
D) C horizon
E) D horizon
Q3) What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?
Q4) Which statement is incorrect?
A) The Great Plains are a type of temperate grassland.
B) The Great Plains lie between the Mississippi River and the Rocky Mountains.
C) The Great Plains are also known as a rangeland.
D) The Great Plains stretch from Texas to Canada.
E) None of these answers are incorrect.
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) __________________ is low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to environmental protection and respects the local people.
A) Ecosystem service
B) Ecotourism
C) A green job
D) Recreation
E) Ecosystem tourism
Q2) What is the Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act?
A) an act created in 1960 that mandated the management of national forests in a way that balances a variety of uses
B) the key act that drove the establishment of the National Forest Service in 1905
C) the act that went against Gifford Pinchot's concept of inexhaustible forest resources
D) the act that was created to support sustainable business development so that economic benefits from forests could be ranked with more value than recreational benefits from forests
E) the act that supported maximizing the yields of specific forestry products
Q3) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) Coral reefs are limited to shallow water, and there is a concern that rising sea levels will affect the reefs. This is because ______________.
A) they require the lower salinity found in shallow waters
B) there are more nutrients found in shallow water
C) their symbiotic zooxanthellae require light to survive
D) they require coastal upwellings of CO in order to survive
E) it is too difficult for them to build reefs in deeper water
Q2) What effect do acidic ocean waters have on shells made of calcium carbonate?
A) They cause increased dissolution (dissolving) of calcium carbonate shells.
B) They cause decreased dissolution (dissolving) of calcium carbonate shells.
C) There is no effect on shells made of calcium carbonate.
D) They cause shells to grow at faster rates.
E) They cause shells to overly calcify.
Q3) What is the pH trend in the seawater from the chart shown in Infographic 29.1?
A) The pH trend is not significant.
B) The pH is becoming more acidic.
C) The pH is becoming more basic.
D) There is no trend in the pH.
E) More information is needed to answer the question.
Q4) What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?
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Chapter
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Q1) Your friend refers to herself as a "meat and potatoes" kind of girl. That was the way she was raised. How could you describe to her the benefits to both the environment and to her personal health of a more plant-based diet with reduced meat consumption?
Q2) Infographic 30.2 tells us that eating one red meat serving per day ___________ compared with those who ate no red meat.
A) increases the risk of dying by 50%
B) has no effect on the risk of dying
C) decreases the risk of dying by about 25%
D) increases the risk of dying by about 25%
E) increases the risk of dying by about 1.25%
Q3) Which of the following is a UN FAO recommendation regarding livestock production?
A) Globally, plant-based diets must be adopted.
B) Environmental concerns outweigh food-security concerns in most countries.
C) The biggest issue for developing countries is food safety.
D) The focus of an agricultural policy should depend on the level of industrialization.
E) Postindustrial countries should help bolster food security in developing countries.
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Chapter
and Grassland Resources
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Q1) More than half of the world's fisheries are at ___________, the amount of fish that can be harvested without decreasing the yield in future years.
A) overexploitation yield
B) maximum sustainable yield
C) depletion yield
D) bycatch yield
E) fishery maximum yield
Q2) What role do fish play in human diets? What drives consumption of fish in poorer and wealthier countries?
Q3) As a marine biologist, you notice that the coral reefs around the Florida Keys are depleting rapidly. Which of the following choices would be most effective in protecting the coral reefs?
A) marine reserves
B) exclusive economic zones
C) marine-protected areas
D) conservation easements
E) shelterbelts
Q4) Explain the difference between a marine-protected area and a marine reserve.
Q5) How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to Recovering the
Grasslands May Be a Surprising One
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Q1) Describe some benefits of making cellulosic ethanol from switchgrass.
Q2) Although it is clear that alternative energy sources such as bioethanol and biodiesel are reducing fossil fuel usage, ___________ is also a key strategy to reducing our dependence on fossil fuels.
A) desalination
B) development of vertical farming
C) conservation
D) space exploration
E) none of these answers
Q3) List and describe at least five habits drivers can employ to maximize mileage and conserve energy.
Q4) Bioethanol that is produced by breaking down cellulose in plants is called
A) cellulosic ethanol
B) starch ethanol
C) plant ethanol
D) cellulose sequestering
E) cellulosic sequestering
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Q5) What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.
Q6) What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?
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