Environmental Geology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Environmental Geology explores the dynamic interactions between the Earths geologic processes and human society. The course examines topics such as natural hazards (earthquakes, landslides, floods), resource distribution and management, environmental pollution, soil erosion, and the impact of human activity on Earth systems. Through case studies and applied examples, students gain an understanding of how geological knowledge is crucial for sustainable land use, hazard mitigation, and effectively addressing current environmental challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Environmental Geology 5th Edition by KELLER
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792 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Philosophy and Fundamental Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the Gaia hypothesis?
A)a hypothesis that states the Earth is alive
B)the concept of environmental unity
C)the hypothesis lying at the root of uniformitarianism
D)a set of hypotheses that likens the Earth to a superorganism with interrelated, mutually adjusting systems
Answer: D
Q2) ________ analysis evaluates change in open systems by examining the relative rates at which materials enter and leave a system.
Answer: Input-output
Q3) Previous environmental degradation led to catastrophe in the 2010 earthquake in ________.
Answer: Haiti
Q4) The concept of a land ethic maintains that we are responsible to the entire environment, not just to humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Internal Structure of Earth and Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________-waves pass through the outer core.
Answer: P
Q2) How did seafloor spreading revive Alfred Wegener's ideas about continental drift?
A)Sea floor spreading relied on new fossil evidence documenting the former joining of the continents.
B)Sea floor spreading provided an explanation for the consumption of oceanic crust at plate boundaries.
C)The topography of the ocean floor demonstrated that mountain ranges on either side of the Atlantic Ocean were formerly joined.
D)Sea floor spreading prevented a viable mechanism for moving the continents. Answer: D
Q3) Convergence of plates can cause ________ forces that build mountain ranges. Answer: compressive
Q4) Yellowstone National Park lies atop a(n) ________.
Answer: continental hot spot
Q5) The volcano called ________ is the youngest of the Hawaiian volcanoes.
Answer: Loihi
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4
Chapter 3: Minerals and Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) St. Francis Dam, located in California, collapsed as a result of intense earthquake shaking.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A batholith is a large mass of igneous rock consisting of multiple ________.
Answer: plutons
Q3) In a covalent bond
A)chains or sheets of atoms are held together by weak forces
B)atoms are joined by electrical charges
C)electrons are shared between all atoms in a solid mass
D)electrons are shared between a limited number of atoms
Answer: D
Q4) Why are silicate minerals the most common minerals in the crust?
A)because oxygen and silicon are the most common elements in the crust
B)because carbonate and oxide minerals are more easily weathered
C)because their building block is in the shape of a tetrahedron
D)because they include elements such as magnesium, sodium, and potassium
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Ecology and Geology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ________ is a group of populations of different species living in the same area with varying degrees of interaction with each other.
Q2) As an ecosystem evolves following disturbance, it follows the path of
A)succession
B)restoration
C)naturalization
D)ecology
Q3) Wolves and sea otters are examples of ________ species.
Q4) Landslides in Southern California mountains can benefit steelhead trout.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A group of individuals capable of interbreeding is called a(n)
A)ecosystem
B)species
C)biota
D)ecological community
Q6) The Kissimmee River ecosystem benefited greatly from stream channelization and flood control.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Natural Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a catastrophe differ from a disaster?
A)damages from a catastrophe are of such a magnitude to require a long recovery period
B)a disaster is typically much worse than a catastrophe
C)a catastrophe involves loss of life, while a disaster does not
D)a disaster occurs across a much greater geographic area than does a catastrophe
Q2) The ________ of an event is the amount of energy released.
Q3) One benefit of volcanic eruptions is nutrient-rich ________.
Q4) A catastrophe is an event that requires a long recovery period.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hazardous processes can become catastrophes because of population increase. A)True
B)False
Q6) The deadly 1985 eruption of Nevado del Ruiz is an example of inaccurate prediction. A)True
B)False
Q7) Benefits of ________ include enrichment of soils and the creation of new land.
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Chapter 6: Earthquakes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seismic risk maps are useful tools for short-term earthquake prediction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shake maps are used to predict where shaking is likely to occur in a future earthquake.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of ________ releases elastic strain during and after an earthquake.
Q4) ________ intensity is useful in rapid determination of the degree of shaking.
Q5) During the strain accumulation phase of the earthquake cycle
A)no seismic activity occurs
B)major seismic activity occurs
C)rocks are deformed elastically
D)the major release of elastic deformation occurs
Q6) Buried faults are typically associated with folds in sedimentary rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Tsunamis are only a hazard near their source.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Tsunamis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 1700 AD tsunami generated by a large earthquake on the Cascadia subduction zone in the Pacific Northwest was dated most precisely using
A)Native American histories
B)Pacific Northwest sediments
C)Japanese tsunami records
D)early seismograms in China
Q2) A tsunami warning system includes seismometers, buoys with ________, and communication systems.
Q3) Tsunami can take several hours to cross the ocean because
A)they move slowly
B)they are so high that wind impedes their progress
C)the travel distances are great
D)the ocean is too deep to transmit the waves
Q4) The 2004 Indonesian/Indian Ocean tsunami came as a complete surprise to scientists working in the area.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ in Thailand are at least one type of animal that appear to have sensed the impending tsunami.
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Chapter 8: Volcanic Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries?
A)Plate tectonic boundaries are created by volcanism.
B)Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma.
C)Earthquakes at plate boundaries bring large amounts of magma to the surface.
D)In reality, most volcanoes are in the plate interiors rather than at plate boundaries.
Q2) What is one reason that ash fall is such a significant hazard?
A)The basaltic magma that produces the ash is low in silica.
B)The weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings.
C)The pyroclastic flow that deposits the ash is a hot, glowing cloud.
D)The associated lava flows can cover large areas.
Q3) Why is the geologic history of a volcano important in hazard prediction?
A)The geologic history helps to determine whether evacuation is necessary.
B)The geologic history reflects the history of subduction beneath a volcano.
C)The geologic history is an important indicator of seismic activity.
D)The geologic history reveals the frequency and style of eruptions.
Q4) Caldera eruptions are very common features of subduction zones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Rivers and Flooding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The base level of a stream is typically sea level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ consists of straightening, deepening, widening, clearing, or lining existing stream channels.
Q3) Urbanization generally increases the lag time between the peak of rainfall and the peak of the resulting flood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For the same amount of discharge, a narrow, shallow channel will have a higher water velocity than will a wide, deep channel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A braided stream usually has just one channel.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The bed load is the dominant portion of the total load for most rivers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Slope Processes, Landslides, and Subsidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vegetation influences landslides in part by
A)anchoring the slope materials
B)influencing the local climate
C)aerating the soil
D)promoting deeper weathering of underlying rock
Q2) Climate influences landslides by determining the vegetation present on a slope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Snow avalanches tend to move down tracks called ________.
Q4) The Vaiont Dam disaster occurred when landslides caused the dam to fail. A)True
B)False
Q5) Land subsidence in the Central Valley, California, results mostly from oil extraction. A)True B)False
Q6) The Thistle landslide, in the state of ________, was one of the most expensive landslides in U.S. history.
Q7) All slope movements fall under the term ________.
Q8) The lower portion of a slump typically evolves into a(n) ________.
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Chapter 11: Coastal Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a "soft" solution to coastal erosion that tends to imitate natural processes.
Q2) Lake level variations are the strongest control on erosion along the Great Lakes shorelines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The balance of sediment input and output along a stretch of coastline is called the ________.
Q4) What adverse effect do groins and jetties both have on coastal erosion?
A)They stop littoral transport of sand and starve down-drift areas of sand.
B)They reflect waves across the beach.
C)They cause the waves striking the structure to increase in height and erosive power.
D)They rob the waves of their energy to transport sand.
Q5) A(n) ________ is a narrow flow of water away from the beach and into deep water.
Q6) Seacliff erosion tends to occur at a greater rate during the summer.
A)True B)False
Q7) ________ breakers are wave types that occur on steeply sloping beach faces.
Q8) The ________ is the time it takes for successive wave crests to pass a point.
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Chapter 12: Impact of Extraterrestrial Objects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Tunguska event resulted from impact of a large meteorite.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A meteorite is
A)a small comet
B)a large meteoroid
C)a meteoroid that has entered the Earth's atmosphere
D)a meteoroid, asteroid, or comet that strikes the Earth's surface
Q3) A meteoroid that enters the Earth's atmosphere is called a(n) ________.
Q4) What would be the principal option for preventing a catastrophic meteorite impact, once a threatening object was identified?
A)changing the orbit of the object with small nuclear explosions
B)breaking the object into smaller pieces with nuclear explosions
C)evacuate the potentially affected area
D)constructing a physical shield around Earth
Q5) What is an aerial burst?
A)an explosion in the asteroid belt that sends asteroids hurtling toward Earth
B)a secondary explosion above an impact crater, occurring after impact
C)a meteor bursting into many smaller pieces when bombarded with nuclear weapons
D)an explosion of a meteor entering the Earth's atmosphere
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Chapter 13: Water Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pumping of groundwater from a well creates a(n) ________ in the aquifer.
Q2) The ability of an Earth material to transmit water is called its ________.
Q3) The drainage density on clay soils is likely to have what relationship to the drainage density on gravel soils?
A)greater drainage density on clay soils
B)greater drainage density on gravel soils
C)equal drainage density, the soil type has no effect
D)greater drainage density on clay soils, but with fewer streams
Q4) Water pressure is generally greater in a confined aquifer than in an unconfined aquifer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The global ________ involves the transfer of water between Earth's water reservoirs.
Q6) A(n) ________ stream typically lies above the water table.
Q7) A cone of depression forms when water is pumped from an unconfined aquifer, but not when water is pumped from a confined aquifer.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Water Pollution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acid mine drainage results from the oxidation and dissolution of coal and ________ ores.
Q2) In the mid-1990s, Congress passed revisions to the Clean Water Act with broad public support.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Cuyahoga River in Ohio has been degraded dramatically over the past 30 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus are removed from municipal wastewater by secondary treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main concern with organic chemicals in groundwater is their flammability. A)True
B)False
Q6) Wetlands are especially efficient at reducing ________ levels in wastewater.
Q7) A cone of ________ is formed in saltwater as it intrudes fresh groundwater near a pumping well.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Mineral Resources and the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Environmental regulation has largely failed to reduce pollution from mining.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Kimberlite pipes are sources of what mineral?
A)gold
B)silver
C)copper
D)diamond
Q3) ________ mineral deposits form through the circulation of hot, chemically active waters.
Q4) The concentration factor for gold is less than the concentration factor for copper.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is cyanide heap leaching used to extract gold from some deposits?
A)The gold concentration is too low to be extracted using traditional methods.
B)It is safer than other methods.
C)Gold can only be extracted from finely disseminated deposits.
D)It produces fewer mine tailings than other methods.
Q6) Itai-Itai disease was prevalent in a river valley in the country of ________.
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Chapter 16: Energy Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best solution to concerns over acid rain is to buffer lakes with calcium carbonate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The accident at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant caused similar levels of environmental degradation as did the Three Mile Island accident.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pressurized water reactors will potentially make nuclear energy safer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following geologic situations is most likely to contain significant oil concentrations?
A)1.1-billion-year-old rocks that accumulated in the vicinity of a divergent plate boundary
B)200-million-year-old rocks that have been exposed by uplift in a subduction zone
C)300-million-year-old rocks that accumulated in a subsiding sedimentary basin
D)150-million-year-old rocks that are flat lying and unfaulted
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18
Chapter 17: Soils and Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which soil horizon is known as the zone of accumulation?
A)A horizon
B)B horizon
C)C horizon
D)R horizon
Q2) ________ works with the natural topography to reduce soil erosion.
Q3) Clay soils tend to resist deformation because clays have high cohesion and high intra-grain friction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do soils become fertile?
A)deep and thorough leaching of parent material to release nutrients
B)mild weathering of parent material and addition of organic matter
C)human manipulation to retain moisture and improve texture
D)intimate interaction with the soil biota
Q5) Soil cohesion is enhanced by the presence of
A)gravel and sand particles
B)clay and silt particles
C)subsurface water
D)organic matter
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Chapter 18: Global Climate Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Climate is the long-term average of weather conditions over some area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why was Erik the Red able to explore Greenland in the 10th century AD?
A)He managed to sail the North Atlantic during a two-year period of minimal storms.
B)His explorations took place during a particularly warm climatic period.
C)There was no glacial ice in Greenland at the time.
D)Sea temperatures were cooler, so there was less propensity for storms.
Q3) ________ gases are responsible for both ozone depletion and greenhouse warming.
Q4) ________ events reflect changes in atmospheric flow and water temperatures in the equatorial Pacific.
Q5) The ocean ________ is largely responsible for keeping northern Europe relatively warm.
Q6) El Niño effects are typically restricted to the eastern Pacific Ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A continental ice sheet once covered most of Canada.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Geology, Society, and the Future
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factory is a fugitive source of air pollution emissions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Secondary pollutants are those emitted by smaller industrial installations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The principal challenge of the multiple land use concept is
A)it is difficult to maximize land use for more than one purpose
B)sequential land uses impose cumulative impacts
C)multiple land uses often compete for pollution credits
D)environmental laws typically do not permit true multiple uses
Q4) The development of a resort at the site of an old quarry near Lake Michigan is an example of ________ land use.
Q5) The process of sequential land use focuses on
A)reclamation of land from previous uses for new uses
B)sequences of land use that involve increasing levels of contamination
C)sequential use of land for similar purposes
D)preservation of scenery for subsequent land uses
Q6) ________ land use is the process of using land for more than one compatible purpose.
Page 21
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