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Environmental Chemistry Test Questions - 2075 Verified Questions

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Environmental Chemistry Test Questions

Course Introduction

Environmental Chemistry explores the chemical processes occurring in the environment and how human activity influences these processes. The course covers the sources, reactions, transport, effects, and fates of chemical species in water, air, soil, and living organisms. Students will examine topics such as atmospheric chemistry, water and soil pollution, toxicology, and waste management. Emphasis is placed on understanding the fundamental principles of chemistry as they relate to environmental issues, as well as analytical methods used to monitor and assess environmental quality. Through case studies and practical examples, students will gain insights into current environmental challenges and potential solutions.

Recommended Textbook Chemistry and Chemical Reactivity 9th Edition by John C. Kotz\New folder

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Chapter 1: Basic Concepts of Chemistry

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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the kinetic-molecular theory of matter is/are CORRECT?

1)Particles in a gas move faster as the temperature increases.

2)Particles in a liquid are packed closely together,but are not confined to specific positions.

3)Particles in a gas vibrate back and forth about an average position.

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 2

E) 1,2,and 3

Answer: D

Q2) Which one of the following statements is not a comparison of physical properties?

A) Mercury and gallium are both liquids at 50\(^{\circ}\)C.

B) Oxygen is more soluble in water than helium.

C) Silver and gold are malleable metals.

D) Oxygen and nitrogen are both liquids at -200\(^{\circ}\)C.

E) Calcium dissolves more quickly than iron in acids.

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Mathlets Review: The Tools of Quantitative Chemistry

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Q1) The melting point of a certain solid is -27\(^{\circ}\)C.This corresponds to A) 9\(^{\circ}\)F.

B) -33\(^{\circ}\)F.

C) -17\(^{\circ}\)F.

D) -106\(^{\circ}\)F.

E) 17\(^{\circ}\)F.

Answer: C

Q2) How many joules are equivalent to 450 calories?

A) 0.45 J

B) 4.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>2</sup> J

C) 9.3\(\times\) 10<sup>-3</sup> J

D) 1.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> J

E) 4.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>5</sup> J

Answer: D

Q3) What is the difference between the accuracy of measurements and the precision of measurements?

Answer: Accuracy is an indicator of how close a measurement,or the average of a set of measurements,is to the correct value.Precision is an indicator of how close two measurements are to each other,or how much numerical spread is present in a set of measurements.

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Atoms, molecules, and Ions

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Q1) An ionic compound has the formula MCl<sub>2</sub>.The mass of 0.3011 mol of the compound is 62.69 grams.What is the identity of the metal?

A) Ni

B) Cu

C) Sn

D) Hg

E) Ba

Answer: E

Q2) What is the mass number of an argon atom with 22 neutrons?

A) 2

B) 18

C) 22

D) 40

E) 39.95

Answer: D

Q3) The building blocks of atoms (neutrons,protons,and electrons)are called ________ particles.

Answer: subatomic

Q4) Millikan's oil drop experiment determined the charge of the ________.

Answer: electron

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Chemical Reactions

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Q1) Metals react with oxygen gas to produce oxides with the general formula M<sub>x</sub>O<sub>y</sub>.Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of titanium with oxygen to yield titanium(IV)oxide.

A) 4 Ti(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2 Ti<sub>2</sub>O(s)

B) Ti(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)TiO<sub>2</sub>(s)

C) 2 Ti(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2 TiO(s)

D) Ti(s)+ O(g)\(\to\) TiO(s)

E) 8 Ti(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2 Ti<sub>4</sub>O(s)

Q2) If an aqueous solution of ____ is added to a mixture of Pb<sup>2+</sup> and Ba<sup>2+</sup>,the lead ion will precipitate,but the barium ion will remain in solution.

A) NaOH

B) Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

C) K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

D) KCO<sub>3</sub>

E) Ca(CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>

Q3) ________ acid is produced in a larger quantity than any other chemical in the United States.This chemical is used in the production of fertilizers,pigments,alcohol,paper and detergents.

Q4) _____-oxides produce acids when reacted with water.

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Chapter 5: Stoichiometry: Quantitative Information About Chemical Reactions

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Q1) Sulfur hexafluoride is produced by reacting elemental sulfur with fluorine gas.S<sub>8</sub>(s)+ 24 F<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 8 SF<sub>6</sub>(g)

What is the percent yield if 18.3 g SF<sub>6</sub> is isolated from the reaction of 10.0 g S<sub>8</sub> and 30.0 g F<sub>2</sub>?

A) 40.2%

B) 45.8%

C) 47.6%

D) 54.6%

E) 61.0%

Q2) The reaction of 5.07 g N<sub>2</sub> with 0.722 g H<sub>2</sub> produces 1.27 g NH<sub>3</sub>.The percent yield of this reaction is ________.

Q3) The numbers preceding the formulas in chemical equations are referred to as the ________ coefficients.

Q4) In combustion analysis,the gases produced by the combustion of a hydrocarbon are passed through a tube containing finely divided NaOH supported on asbestos.The purpose of the NaOH is to absorb ________ produced by the combustion reaction.

Q5) The pH of purified water (or of a neutral solution)is _____.

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Chapter 6: Principles of Chemical Reactivity: Energy and Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The energy stored in a fuel is called _____.

A) heat

B) internal energy

C) temperature

D) kinetic energy

E) potential energy

Q2) Specific heat capacity is

A) the quantity of heat needed to change the temperature of 1.00 g of a substance by 1 K.

B) the quantity of heat needed to change the temperature of 1.00 g of a substance by 4.184 K.

C) the capacity of a substance to gain or lose a 1.00 J of energy in the form of heat. D) the temperature change undergone when 1.00 g of a substance absorbs 4.184 J.

E) the maximum amount of energy in the form of heat that 1.00 g of a substance may absorb without decomposing.

Q3) Why are you at greater risk from being burned by steam at 100 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C than from liquid water at the same temperature?

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Chapter 7: The Structure of Atoms

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Q1) A device emits light at 761.7 nm.What is the frequency of this radiation?

A) 3.94 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4 </sup>Hz

B) 1.15 \(\times\) 10<sup>27 </sup>Hz

C) 3.94 \(\times\) 10<sup>14 </sup>Hz

D) 2.61 \(\times\) 10<sup>-37 </sup>Hz

E) 2.61 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>Hz

Q2) Which of the following properties is associated with the value of the n quantum number?

A) the number of electrons in an orbital

B) the size of an orbital

C) the orientation in space of an orbital

D) the energy of an orbital

E) the shape of an orbital

Q3) Which of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum has the lowest frequency?

A) x-ray

B) gamma ray

C) ultraviolet

D) infrared

E) visible

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Chapter 8: The Structure of Atoms and Periodic Trends

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Q1) Which of the following cations has the same number of unpaired electrons as Fe<sup>2+</sup>?

A) Ni<sup>2+</sup>

B) Fe<sup>3+</sup>

C) Cr<sup>2+</sup>

D) Mn<sup>2+</sup>

E) Co<sup>2+</sup>

Q2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy \(\underline{\text{ one }}\) d orbital?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 6

D) 10

E) 14

Q3) How many electrons can be described by the quantum numbers n= 3 and l= 1?

A) 10

B) 2

C) 14

D) 18

E) 6

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Chapter 9: Bonding and Molecular Structure

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Q1) Use Lewis structures to predict the bond order for a carbon-oxygen bond in the carbonate ion?

A) 1

B) 3/2

C) 4/3

D) 2

E) 5/2

Q2) How many different molecules have the molecular formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

Q3) In PCl<sub>5</sub>,the Cl-P-Cl bond angle between an axial and an equatorial chlorine atom is ________ degrees.

Q4) One might expect PCl<sub>3</sub> to have a trigonal planar molecular geometry since its central atom is surrounded by three outer atoms.However,PCl<sub>3</sub> has a trigonal pyramidal geometry.Explain.

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Chapter 10: Bonding and Molecular Structure: Orbital

Hybridization and Molecular Orbitals

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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning valence bond (VB)theory is/are CORRECT?

1)VB theory can describe molecular bonding in excited states.

2)VB theory assumes that electrons are localized between pairs of atoms.

3)VB theory predicts localized lone pairs of electrons.

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 2 and 3

E) 1,2,and 3

Q2) Nitric acid,HNO<sub>3</sub>,dissociates in water to form nitrate ions and hydronium ions.What change in hybridization of the nitrogen atom occurs in this dissociation?

A) sp<sup>2</sup> to sp<sup>3</sup>

B) sp<sup>2</sup> to sp

C) sp<sup>3</sup> to sp

D) sp to sp<sup>3</sup>

E) no change

Q3) Which theory,valence bond or molecule orbital,correctly predicts the existence of paramagnetic molecules?

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Gases and Their Properties

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Q1) The pressure exerted by gas molecules inside a container is due to gas molecules colliding with the walls of the container.Why does one mole of oxygen molecules exert the same pressure inside a flask as one mole of hydrogen molecules,although the mass of an oxygen molecule is sixteen times greater than the mass of a hydrogen molecule?

Q2) It is possible to make a barometer using a liquid other than mercury.What would be the height (in meters)of a column of carbon tetrachloride at a pressure of 0.890 atm,given that 0.890 atm is equal to a 0.676 m column of mercury and the densities of mercury and carbon tetrachloride are 13.5 g/cm<sup>3</sup> and 1.58 g/cm<sup>3</sup>,respectively.

A) 5.78 m

B) 0.173 m

C) 0.0792 m

D) 1.07 m

E) 0.936 m

Q3) The gas constant,R,expressed in SI units has a value of 8.314.The units of the constant are ________.

Q4) A pressure of 1.00 atm has a metric equivalent of 1.01 \(\times\) 10<sup>5</sup>

Q5) What are two ways in which real gases differ from ideal gases?

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Chapter 12: Intermolecular Forces and Liquids

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is responsible for capillary action,a property of liquids?

A) cohesive forces

B) adhesive forces

C) viscosity

D) A and B

E) A,B,and C

Q2) Equilibrium is established between a liquid and its vapor when

A) the rate of evaporation equals the rate of condensation.

B) equal masses exist in the liquid and gas phases.

C) equal concentrations (in molarity)exist in the liquid and gas phases.

D) all the liquid has evaporated.

E) the liquid ceases to evaporate and the gas ceases to condense.

Q3) Which of the following pure liquids is expected have the highest boiling point?

A) CO

B) NO

C) PH<sub>3</sub>

D) AsH<sub>3</sub>

E) ICl

Q4) A cup of oil takes longer to pour from a glass than a cup of water.A liquid's resistance to flow is referred to as its ________.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: The Chemistry of Solids

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Q1) Arrange the three common unit cells in order from least dense to most dense packing.

A) face-centered cubic < body-centered cubic < primitive cubic

B) primitive cubic < body-centered cubic < face-centered cubic

C) primitive cubic < face-centered cubic < body-centered cubic

D) body-centered cubic < primitive cubic < face-centered cubic

E) body-centered cubic < face-centered cubic < primitive cubic

Q2) The bandgap of Si is 107.1 kJ/mol.What is the maximum wavelength of light that can excite an electron transition across the band gap? (h = 6.626 \(\times\) 10<sup>-34</sup> J.s; c = 3.000 \(\times\)10<sup>8</sup> m/s)

A) 551.4 nm

B) 1118 nm

C) 549.0 nm

D) 1852 nm

E) 516.9 nm

Q3) A salt with a 1:1 ratio of anions to cations may pack in a face-centered cubic unit cell with the anions at the lattice points and the cations occupying one-half of the ________ holes.Zinc sulfide is an example of this structure.

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Chapter 14: Solutions and Their Behavior

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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning solubility is/are CORRECT?

1)Ionic compounds composed of Group 1A metal ions and halide ions,such as NaCl,are insoluble in nonpolar solvents.

2)The solubility of the halogens (Cl<sub>2</sub>,Br<sub>2</sub>,and I<sub>2</sub>)in polar solvents is greater than their solubility in nonpolar solvents.

3)The solubility of polar molecules,such as sugar,in polar solvents is generally greater than their solubility in nonpolar solvents.

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3

E) 1,2,and 3

Q2) A surfactant used for cleaning is called a(n)________.

Q3) Aqueous colloidal solutions can be classified as ________ (water-fearing),or hydrophilic (water-loving).

Q4) If one of the factors determining the equilibrium of a system is changed,the system adjusts to counteract that change.This is known as ________ principle.

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Chapter 15: Chemical Kinetics: the Rates of Chemical Reactions

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Q1) The pre-exponential,A,in the Arrhenius equation is called the ________ factor.

Q2) The rate law for a reaction is rate = k[A]<sup>2</sup>[B].Which of the following mixtures of reactants will give the \(\underline{\text{ smallest initial rate? }}\)

A) 1.0 M A,1.0 M B

B) 2.0 M A,0.50 M B

C) 0.50 M A,0.50 M B

D) 0.125 M A,3.0 M B

E) 1.5 M A,0.50 M B

Q3) For which of the following hypothetical rate laws would the units of the rate constant have the general form M<sup>-2</sup>.h<sup>-1</sup>?

A) rate = k[A]<sup>3</sup>

B) rate = k[A]<sup>2</sup>

C) rate = k[A]

D) rate = k

E) rate = k[A]<sup>4</sup>

Q4) The ________ of an elementary step is defined as the number of reactant molecules that come together in the reaction.

Q5) Termolecular elementary steps are rare.Why?

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Chapter 16: Principles of Reactivity: Chemical Equilibria

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Q1) If the reaction quotient,Q,is equal to K in a gas phase reaction,then

A) the chemical system has reached equilibrium.

B) the temperature must be increased for the reaction to proceed in the forward direction.

C) the reaction will proceed in the forward direction until equilibrium is established.

D) the reaction will proceed in the backward direction until equilibrium is established.

E) the reaction will proceed in the direction that increases the number of gas phase particles.

Q2) In 1913,the Haber-Bosch process was patented.The product of the Haber-Bosch process is ________.

Q3) The symbol Q is called the ________.

Q4) If a stress is applied to an equilibrium system,the system will respond in such a way as to relieve that stress.This is a statement of ________ principle.

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Chapter 17: The Chemistry of Acids and Bases

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Q1) When a Lewis acid and a Lewis base combine,the product may be referred to as an acid-base ________.

Q2) What is the pH of a 0.016 M HClO<sub>4</sub>(aq)at 25 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C? (K<sub>w</sub> = 1.01 \(\times\)10<sup>-14</sup>)

A) 15.80

B) 4.14

C) 12.20

D) 1.80

E) 9.86

Q3) What is the pH of the solution which results from mixing 50.0 mL of 0.30 M HF(aq)and 50.0 mL of 0.30 M NaOH(aq)at 25 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C? (K<sub>a</sub> of HF = 7.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup>)

A) 1.98

B) 5.84

C) 8.16

D) 10.85

E) 12.02

Q4) A molecule that can behave as either a Brønsted-Lowry acid or base is termed ________.

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Chapter 18: Principles of Reactivity: Other Aspects of Aqueous Equilibria

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Q1) What is the maximum hydroxide-ion concentration that a 0.027 M MgCl<sub>2</sub> solution could have without causing the precipitation of Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>? For Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>,K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>-11</sup>.

A) 4.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-6</sup>

B) 1.7 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup>

C) 1.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>-8</sup>

D) 6.7 \(\times\) 10<sup>-9</sup>

E) 2.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-5</sup>

Q2) Two important biological buffer systems control pH in the range between 6.9 and 7.4.These buffer systems are H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>/HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> and ________.

Q3) What is the pH of an aqueous solution composed of 0.64 M NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> and 0.20 M NH<sub>3</sub>? (K<sub>a</sub> of NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> = 5.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-10</sup>)

A) 4.80

B) 8.75

C) 9.20

D) 9.25

E) 9.76

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Entropy and Free Energy

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Q1) What is \(\Delta\)G° at 298 K for the following reaction? H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ Br<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2HBr(g); \(\Delta\)<sub>r</sub>HS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 = -103.8 kJ/mol-rxn; \(\Delta\)<sub>r</sub>SS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 = 21.3 J/K.mol-rxn at 298 K

A) -97.45 kJ/mol-rxn

B) 110.1 kJ/mol-rxn

C) -110.1 kJ/mol-rxn

D) 6.451 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> kJ/mol-rxn

E) -6.451\(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> kJ/mol-rxn

Q2) As defined by Ludwig Boltzmann,the third law of thermodynamics states that A) there is no disorder in a perfect crystal at 0 K.

B) in a spontaneous process,the entropy of the universe increases.

C) the total entropy of the universe is always increasing.

D) the total mass of the universe is constant.

E) mass and energy are conserved in all chemical reactions.

Q3) The change in entropy for any process is not dependent upon the pathway by which the process occurs.In other words,the change in entropy for any process is a(n)________ function.

Q4) At what temperature (in kelvin units)is the entropy of a pure crystal 0.0 J/K.

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Chapter 20: Principles of Reactivity: Electron Transfer Reactions

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Q1) Write a balanced chemical equation for the overall reaction represented by the cell notation below.Mn(s)| Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)|| Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)| Zn(s)

A) 2Mn(s)+ Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) Zn(s)+ 2Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

B) Mn(s)+ Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) Zn(s)+ Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

C) Mn(s)+ Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) Zn(s)+ Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

D) 2Zn(s)+ Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\to\)Mn(s)+ 2Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

E) Zn(s)+ Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\to\)Mn(s)+ Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

Q2) Calculate E°<sub>cell</sub> for the cell for the reaction below, 2Cr(s)+ 3Sn<sup>4+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) 3Sn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+2Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)

Given the following standard reduction potentials.

Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 3e<sup>-</sup>\(\to\) Cr(s)\(~~~~~~~~\)\(~~~~~~~~\)ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 = -0.74 V Sn<sup>4+</sup>(aq)+ 2e<sup>-</sup>\(\to\) Sn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(~~~~~~~~\)\(~ ~~\)ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 = 0.15V

A) 0.89 V

B) 0.59 V

C) 0.42 V

D) -0.59 V

E) (-0.89) V

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Chapter 21: Environmental Chemistry Earths

Environment,energy,and Sustainability

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Q1) What is the most abundant nitrogen oxide in the atmosphere?

A) NO

B) NO<sub>2</sub>

C) N<sub>2</sub>O

D) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>

E) NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>

Q2) Ocean acidification is the result of the increasing atmospheric concentration of what gas?

A) CH<sub>4</sub>

B) NO<sub>2</sub>

C) CO<sub>2</sub>

D) SO<sub>2</sub>

E) SO<sub>3</sub>

Q3) Which gas has the highest concentration in the Earth's atmosphere?

A) N<sub>2</sub>

B) O<sub>2</sub>

C) Ar

D) CO<sub>2</sub>

E) O<sub>3</sub>

Q4) Explain why the melting of Arctic sea ice will not raise the sea level.

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Chapter 22: The Chemistry of the Main Group Elements

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Q1) Which of the following reactions describes the formation of a molecular compound of hydrogen?

A) 2Cs(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2CsH(s)

B) 2Na(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2NaH(s)

C) Mg(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)MgH<sub>2</sub>(s)

D) S<sub>8</sub>(s)+ 8H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 8H<sub>2</sub>S(g)

E) 2Al(s)+ 3H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2AlH<sub>3</sub>(s)

Q2) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) Phosphoric acid gives a tart taste to carbonated beverages such as colas.

B) Sodium phosphate,Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>,is a relatively strong base used in paint strippers.

C) Ca(H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>.H<sub>2</sub>O is used as an acid leavening agent in baking powder.

D) Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> is a dark green compound used in latex paints.

E) Calcium monohydrogen phosphate is an abrasive and polishing agent in toothpaste.

Q3) A(n)________ reaction is one where an element or compound is simultaneously oxidized and reduced.

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Chapter 23: The Chemistry of the Transition Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) When 8.1 moles of [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2</sub> is dissolved in water,how many moles of ions are in solution?

A) 73

B) 24

C) 5.1

D) 2.7

E) 6.1

Q2) The product of the oxidation of iron in most soil in the absence of excess oxygen is black magnetite.The chemical formula of this compound is ____.

A) FeO

B) FeO<sub>2</sub>

C) Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

D) Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

E) Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub>

Q3) Phenanthroline (C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>8</sub>N<sub>2</sub>)can bind to metal ions using both its ammine groups.It is referred to as a(n)________ ligand,meaning it is "two-toothed."

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Chapter 24: Carbon: Not Just Another Element

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a \(\underline{\text{ chiral }}\) molecule?

A) CH<sub>3</sub>CBr<sub>2</sub>Cl

B) CBrCl<sub>2</sub>I

C) CH<sub>3</sub>CHBrCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

D) (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CHCl

E) CH<sub>2</sub>BrI

Q2) Which of the following reactions is a substitution reaction?

A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub> + Br<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5</sub>Br + HBr

B) CH<sub>2</sub>=CH<sub>2</sub> + Br<sub>2</sub> \(\to\)CH<sub>2</sub>BrCH<sub>2</sub>Br

C) CH<sub>2</sub>=CH<sub>2</sub> + HBr \(\to\)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Br

D) CH<sub>2</sub>=CH<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> \(\to\)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

E) HC\(\equiv\)CH + 2Br<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) CHBr<sub>2</sub>CHBr<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Molecules with nonsuperimposable mirror images are termed chiral.Pairs of nonsuperimposable,mirror image molecules are called ________.

Q4) Cis-1,2-dichloroethylene and trans-1,2-dichloroethylene are examples of ________ isomers.

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Chapter 25: Biochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement concerning the twenty different \(\alpha\)-amino acids widely found in nature is true?

A) Each \(\alpha\)-amino acid has a different number of carbon atoms.

B) Each \(\alpha\)-amino acid has one amino (-NH<sub>2</sub>)group.

C) Each \(\alpha\)-amino acid has one carboxylic acid (-COOH)group.

D) These \(\alpha\)-amino acids differ in the R groups attached to the \(\alpha\)-carbon.

E) None of these \(\alpha\)-amino acids are aromatic compounds.

Q2) What is the complementary base which hydrogen bonds with thymine in double stranded DNA?

A) adenine

B) cytosine

C) guanine

D) thymine

E) uracil

Q3) Starch and cellulose are polysaccharides made up long chains of glucose linked by glycosidic bonds.Despite the identical composition,why can humans digest starch but not cellulose?

Q4) A compound which contains both a positive and negative charge is called a ____.

Q5) What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radioactive isotopes with greater than 83 protons in the nucleus that sit below the band of stability are most likely to decay by what mode(s)?

A) alpha emission

B) beta emission

C) positron emission or alpha emission

D) electron capture or beta emission

E) electron capture or positron emission

Q2) All of the following statements concerning nuclei are true EXCEPT

A) only hydrogen-1 and helium-3 have more protons than neutrons.

B) from He to Ca,stable nuclei have roughly equal numbers of protons and neutrons.

C) elements with odd atomic numbers have more stable isotopes than do those with even atomic numbers.

D) the neutron to proton ratio in stable nuclei increases as mass increases.

E) more stable isotopes have an even number of neutrons than an odd number.

Q3) A unit used to quantify biological damage is called the ________ or rem.

Q4) Explain the difference between 1 rad and 1 rem of radiation.

Q5) Explain the treatment named boron neutron capture therapy (BNCT).

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