Environmental Chemistry Test Preparation

Course Introduction

Environmental Chemistry explores the chemical processes that occur in natural environments and how human activities impact these processes. The course covers fundamental concepts such as the composition of air, water, and soil, chemical cycles (carbon, nitrogen, sulfur), the fate and transport of pollutants, and methods for sampling and analyzing environmental contaminants. Emphasis is placed on understanding the mechanisms by which pollutants interact with natural systems, strategies for pollution prevention, and the role of chemistry in developing solutions for environmental challenges such as climate change, waste management, and resource conservation.

Recommended Textbook

Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski

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31 Chapters

1479 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which compound contains the most polar bond? \(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 }\)

\(\begin{array} { c c } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { Cl } \end{array}\)\(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { NH } _ { 2 }\) I\(\quad\quad\quad\quad\)II\(\quad\quad\quad\)III\(\quad\quad\quad\)IV

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following statements about bonding is true?

A) Covalent bonds result from the transfer of electrons from one element to another.

B) Ionic bonds result from the transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal.

C) Ionic bonds result from the sharing of electrons between two non-metals.

D) Covalent bonds result from the sharing of electrons between two metals.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct classification of the following compound? CH3-O-CH3

A) Brønsted-Lowry acid and Lewis acid.

B) Brønsted-Lowry base and Lewis base.

C) Brønsted-Lowry base.

D) Lewis base.

Answer: B

Q2) Which is the conjugate base in the following reaction? \[\begin{array} { l } \mathrm { HCl } &+& \mathrm { H } _ { 2 } \mathrm { O } ?&\mathrm { Cl } ^ { \ominus } &+& \mathrm { H } _ { 3 } \mathrm { O }^ { \oplus } \\ \text { I }&&\text { II } &\text { III } &&\text { IV } \\ \end{array}\]

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

Answer: C

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following lists contains common heteroatoms found in organic molecules?

A) N, O, S, P, Cl

B) Na, O, S, P, Cl

C) Na, Mg, S, N, Cl

D) Na, Mg, O, N, Cl

Answer: A

Q2) Why do \(\pi\) bonds confer reactivity on a particular molecule?

A) Because \(\pi\) bonds are difficult to break in chemical reactions.

B) Because \(\pi\) bonds make a molecule an acid.

C) Because \(\pi\) bonds are easily broken in chemical reactions.

D) Because \(\pi\) bonds make a molecule an electrophile.

Answer: C

Q3) What molecular features are required for soap to properly dissolve grease and oil?

A) The molecule must be large.

B) The molecule must contain a polar head.

C) The molecule must contain a non-polar tail.

D) B and C are required.

Answer: D

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the approximate C-C-C bond angle in propane?

A) 90°

B) 109.5°

C) 120°

D) 180°

Q2) Which of the following compounds has primary, secondary and tertiary hydrogen atoms?

A) Pentane

B) Hexane

C) 2-Methylpentane

D) 2,2-Dimethylpentane

Q3) Which of the following statements about the conformations of acyclic alkanes is not true?

A) The staggered and eclipsed conformations are equally stable.

B) The staggered conformations are more stable than the eclipsed conformations.

C) An energy minimum and maximum occur every 60° as the conformation changes from staggered to eclipsed.

D) Conformations that are neither staggered nor eclipsed are intermediate in energy.

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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Achiral molecules usually contain a plane of symmetry.

B) With one tetrahedral stereogenic center, a molecule may or may not be chiral.

C) With two or more stereogenic centers, a molecule is always chiral.

D) Chiral molecules usually contain a plane of symmetry.

Q2) Which of the following is the definition of chirality?

A) The existence of a molecule with a mirror image.

B) The existence of a molecule with a carbon atom that has four different substituents.

C) The existence of a molecule that is superimposable on its mirror image.

D) The existence of a molecule that is not superimposable on its mirror image.

Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?

A) A molecule that is superimposable on its mirror image is said to achiral.

B) A molecule that is not superimposable on its mirror image is said to be chiral.

C) A molecule that is superimposable on its mirror image is said to be chiral.

D) A carbon atom bonded to four different groups is a stereogenic center.

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Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the Keq corresponds to the highest value of \(\Delta\)G°?

A) Keq = 10-1

B) Keq = 10-2

C) Keq = 10-3

D) Keq = 10-5

Q2) Which of the following statements about elimination reactions is true?

A) Two \(\sigma\) bonds are broken.

B) Two \(\sigma\) bonds are formed.

C) Two \(\pi\) bonds are broken.

D) Two \(\pi\) bonds are formed.

Q3) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The size of the activation energy tells us about the reaction mechanism.

B) The size of the activation energy tells us about the reaction rate.

C) A slow reaction has low activation energy.

D) A fast reaction has large activation energy.

Q4) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Ionic intermediates are formed in radical reactions.

B) Radicals are intermediates in polar reactions.

C) Carbocations are electrophiles.

D) Radicals are nucleophiles.

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Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution

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Sample Questions

Q1) The reaction of 1-bromobutane with sodium hydroxide affords the substitution product 1-butanol. What would happen to the rate of the reaction if the concentration of both 1-bromobutane and sodium hydroxide were doubled?

A) The rate remains the same.

B) The rate decreases by a factor of 2.

C) The rate increases by a factor of 2.

D) The rate increases by a factor of 4.

Q2) Which of the following statements about carbocation stability is true?

A) Carbocations are stabilized by electron-withdrawing inductive effects only.

B) Carbocations are stabilized by electron-withdrawing inductive effects and hyperconjugation.

C) Carbocations are stabilized by electron-donating inductive effects only.

D) Carbocations are stabilized by electro-donating inductive effects and hyperconjugation.

Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an SN1 reaction?

A) The rate is proportional to the concentration of substrate.

B) The reaction is favored in polar protic solvents.

C) The rate is independent of the concentration of the nucleophile.

D) The electrophilic carbon undergoes inversion of stereochemistry.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Consider the following E2 reaction. What rate equation would be observed for this reaction? \[\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { Br } + \stackrel { \oplus \ominus } { \mathrm { KOC } } \left( \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \right) _ { 3 } \longrightarrow \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } = \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } + \mathrm { KBr } ^ { + }\]

A) Rate = k[CH3CH2CH2Br]

B) Rate =

k[CH3CH2CH2Br][KOC(CH3)3]

C) Rate =

k[CH3CH2CH2Br][KOC(CH3)3]2

D) Rate =

k[CH3CH2CH2Br]2[KOC(CH3</s ub>)3]

Q2) How many different E2 products can form from the dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following ethers cannot be prepared by the Williamson ether synthesis?

A) Isopropyl methyl ether

B) tert-Butyl methyl ether

C) tert-Butyl phenyl ether

D) Methyl phenyl ether

Q2) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?

A) Sodium methoxide and tert-butyl bromide.

B) Sodium tert-butoxide and iodomethane.

C) Methanol and tert-butyl alcohol in the presence of KOH.

D) Iodomethane and tert-butyl bromide in the presence of KOH.

Q3) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?

A) Bromobenzene and sodium methoxide.

B) Phenol and sodium methoxide.

C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane.

D) Sodium phenoxide and bromomethane.

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Chapter 10: Alkenes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following reaction conditions would result in anti-Markovnikov addition to an alkene?

A) H2O/H3O+

B) HBr

C) HCl

D) [1] BH3; [2] H2O2/HO-

Q2) Markovnikov addition of HBr to CH3CH=CH2 involves which of the following?

A) Initial attack by bromide anion (Br-).

B) Initial attack by bromine radical (Br ).

C) Formation of a primary carbocation.

D) Formation of a secondary carbocation.

Q3) In which of the following alkene addition reactions will carbocation rearrangements occur?

A) Addition of Br2 and H2O

B) Addition of Br2

C) Addition of Cl2 and H2O

D) Addition of H2O in the presence of H2SO4

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Chapter 11: Alkynes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following molecular formulas is consistent with the formula for a molecule containing one alkyne and no other degrees of unsaturation? \[\begin{array} { c c c l }

\mathrm { C } _ { 10 } \mathrm { H } _ { 20 } & \mathrm { C } _ { 10 } \mathrm { H } _ { 22 } & \mathrm { C } _ { 10 } \mathrm { H } _ { 18 } & \mathrm { C } _ { 10 } \mathrm { H } _ { 19 } \\

\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }

\end{array}\]

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

Q2) Which of the following statements about alkynes is not true?

A) Alkynes undergo many addition reactions.

B) Alkynes are more polarizable than alkenes.

C) Both \(\pi\) bonds of a C-C triple bond are weaker than a C-C \(\sigma\) bond.

D) The electrons in the \(\pi\) bonds of alkynes are more tightly held than those of alkenes.

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Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium? CH3Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH3Li + LiCl

A) Oxidized

B) Reduced

C) Oxidized and Reduced

D) Neither oxidized nor reduced

Q2) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH4 is true?

A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H-).

B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H- occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.

C) The reaction follows SN1 mechanism.

D) The nucleophile, H-, is a weak nucleophile.

Q3) Which of the following classes of organic compounds cannot undergo reduction easily?

A) Alkanes

B) Alkenes

C) Alkynes

D) Carboxylic acids

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the base peak of a mass spectrum is always true?

A) The base peak corresponds to the molecular ion.

B) The base peak corresponds to the most abundant ion.

C) The base peak corresponds to the lowest m/z.

D) None of the above.

Q2) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has a molecular ion peak in its mass spectrum at mass 94, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3600-3200 and 1600 cm-1?

A) The compound has a molecular mass of 94.

B) The compound contains a C=O group and Csp3-H hybridized bonds.

C) The compound contains an OH group and a benzene ring.

D) Both A (The compound has a molecular mass of 94) and B (The compound contains a C=O group and Csp3-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.

E) Both A (The compound has a molecular mass of 94) and C (The compound contains an OH group and a benzene ring) are true statements.

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Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?

A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.

B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.

C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.

E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.

Q2) Which of the following statements about 13C NMR is not true?

A) "In 13C proton-decoupled NMR spectra, all peaks are singlets."

B) "13C NMR spectra display peaks for only carbons that bear hydrogen atoms."

C) "13C NMR chemical shifts occur over a greater range than 1H NMR chemical shifts."

D) "13C NMR easily differentiates between the different hybridized carbons (sp3, sp2 and sp hybridized carbons)."

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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about radicals and radical reactions is not true?

A) Most radicals are unstable.

B) A radical contains an atom that has an octet of electrons.

C) Half-headed arrows are used to show the movement of lone electrons.

D) A radical is formed by homolysis of a covalent bond.

Q2) Which of the following statements about radical reactions is not true?

A) Light or heat provides the energy needed for homolytic bond cleavage to form radicals.

B) Breaking the weak O-O bond of peroxides initiates radical reactions.

C) The diradical O2 removes radicals from a reaction mixture.

D) Radicals rearrange.

Q3) Which of the following statements about carbon radicals is not true?

A) Carbon radicals are classified as primary, secondary, tertiary, or quaternary.

B) A carbon radical is sp2 hybridized.

C) The geometry of a carbon radical is trigonal planar.

D) The unhybridized p orbital in a carbon radical contains the unpaired electron.

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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a product obtained from the addition of 1 equivalent of HBr to (E)-1,3-pentadiene?

A) (E)-4-Bromo-2-pentene

B) (E)-1-Bromo-2-pentene

C) 3-Bromo-1-pentene

D) (E)-3-Bromo-2-pentene

Q2) What is the definition of a resonance structure?

A) Compounds with the same molecular formula

B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks

C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons

D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds

Q3) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of the Diels-Alder reaction is true?

A) Three pi bonds break; two sigma bonds and one pi bond form.

B) Three pi bonds break; one sigma bond and two pi bonds form.

C) Two pi bonds break; one sigma bond and one pi bond form.

D) Two pi bonds break; two sigma bonds and one pi bond form.

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Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds

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Q1) Which of the following is not a criterion for antiaromaticity?

A) The molecule must be cyclic.

B) The molecule must have (4n + 2) pi electrons.

C) The molecule must be planar.

D) The molecule must be completely conjugated.

Q2) Which of the following statements about the structure of benzene is not true?

A) Benzene is planar.

B) Benzene has three short double bonds alternating with three longer single bonds.

C) The electrons in the pi bonds are delocalized around the ring.

D) Benzene has six pi electrons.

Q3) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?

A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.

B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.

C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.

D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.

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Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution

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Q1) Which of the following substituents is an ortho, para director?

A) "- CHO"

B) "- COOH"

C) "- NHCOR"

D) "- CN"

Q2) What is the electrophile in aromatic sulfonation?

A) H2SO3

B) H2SO4

C) SO3+

D) HSO3+

Q3) What is the electrophile in aromatic nitration?

A) NO+

B) NO2+

C) NO3+

D) NO2H

Q4) What are the two distinct pathways for nucleophilic aromatic substitution?

A) Addition-substitution and substitution-addition

B) Addition-elimination and elimination-addition

C) Addition-addition and elimination-elimination

D) Elimination-substitution and substitution-elimination

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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H

Bond

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Q1) In the presence of strong acids, which of the oxygen atoms on the carboxyl group is preferentially protonated and why?

A) Protonation occurs at the carbonyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.

B) Protonation occurs at the carbonyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate base is stabilized by the inductive effect.

C) Protonation occurs at the hydroxyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate acid is stabilized by resonance.

D) Protonation occurs at the hydroxyl oxygen because the resulting conjugate base is stabilized by the inductive effect.

Q2) Which of the following is the most polar organic compound?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH3

B) CH3CH2CHO

C) CH3CH2CH2OH

D) CH3COOH

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;

Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction

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Q1) A carbonyl group, C=O, and an alkene, C=C, double bonds, are both sp2 hybridized. However, the chemistry of these two functional groups is very different. This can be explained by which of the following statements?

A) The bond angle of the carbonyl is larger than the bond angle of the alkene.

B) The electronegative oxygen of the C=O group makes this bond polar.

C) The bond of the C=C is longer that the bond of the C=O.

D) There is more steric crowding in the carbonyl than in the alkene.

Q2) Rank the following compounds in order of increasing reactivity (least to most reactive) with respect to acyl substitution. I. methyl benzoate II) benzoylchloride

III) benzamide

A) III< I < II

B) II < I < III

C) II < III < I

D) I < III < II

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition

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Q1) What is the first step in nucleophilic addition under acidic conditions?

A) Protonation of the nucleophile

B) Addition of the nucleophile

C) Loss of water

D) Protonation of the carbonyl

Q2) Using 1H NMR spectroscopy, how can you tell the difference between an aldehyde and a ketone?

A) An aldehyde has a C-H stretch (one or two) between 2700-2830 cm-1.

B) An aldehyde has a proton signal between 9-10 ppm.

C) A ketone has signals around 2-3 ppm.

D) A ketone has a signal around 200 ppm.

Q3) Using IR spectroscopy, how can you tell the difference between a ketone and an aldehyde?

A) A ketone has no carbonyl stretch at 1720 cm-1.

B) An aldehyde has a carbonyl stretch at 1820 cm-1.

C) An aldehyde has two C-H stretches between 2700-2850 cm-1.

D) A ketone has no C-H stretches.

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Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives

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Q1) Where is the carbonyl absorption found in the IR spectrum of a simple ester?

A) 2.5 ppm

B) 2250 cm-1

C) 3800 cm-1

D) 1740 cm-1

Q2) Why is pyridine included in the reaction of an acid chloride and an amine or alcohol?

A) Pyridine will deprotonate the amine or alcohol, making it a better nucleophile.

B) Pyridine will neutralize the acid by-product of the reaction.

C) Pyridine will protonate the carbonyl of the acid chloride, making it more reactive.

D) Pyridine will absorb the heat of the reaction.

Q3) What is the direct product of the base-promoted hydrolysis of an ester?

A) A nitrile

B) A carboxylic acid

C) An amide

D) A carboxylic acid salt

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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl

Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon

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Q1) For most compounds with a single keto group in the molecule, equilibrium favors the keto form over the enol form of the compound. This is due largely to what?

A) The C=O bond is much stronger than the C=C bond.

B) The C=C bond is much stronger than the C=O bond.

C) The keto form can undergo intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

D) The enol form can undergo intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

Q2) If you want to form a thermodynamic enolate, you want to:

A) Keep the reaction as cold as possible.

B) Use an aprotic solvent such as THF.

C) Use a protic solvent such as ethanol.

D) Use a carboxylic acid.

Q3) Will acetophenone be completely deprotonated by lithium diisopropylamide (LDA)?

A) Yes

B) No

Q4) Which of the following compounds is the most acidic?

A) Ethyl acetoacetate

B) 2-Butanone

C) 1-Butanol

D) 3-Pentanone

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Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions

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Q1) What is the general name for the reaction product formed in an aldol addition reaction?

A) "\(\alpha\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

B) "\(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

C) "\(\gamma\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

D) "\(\alpha\),\(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound."

Q2) The \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl product of an Aldol reaction is oftentimes not the final isolated product, what is the explanation for this result?

A) It undergoes elimination, since water is a good leaving group.

B) The hydroxy group is oxidized to a carbonyl.

C) The hydroxy group reacts with the carbonyl to form a ketal.

D) Hydroxide is eliminated via an enolate intermediate.

Q3) Why is the Aldol reaction often called an Aldol condensation?

A) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses a hydroxyl group.

B) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses an oxygen atom.

C) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses a hydrogen atom.

D) The initially formed \(\beta\)-hydroxy carbonyl compound loses water.

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Chapter 25: Amines

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Q1) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?

A) 90°

B) 109.5°

C) 120°

D) 180°

Q2) In the preparation of primary amines, how can direct nucleophilic substitution between NH3 and alkyl halide be made more practical than reacting NH3 and the alkyl halide in a 1:1 ratio?

A) Use a large excess of NH3.

B) Use a large excess of alkyl halide.

C) Use a limited amount of NH3.

D) Make the alkyl halide sterically hindered.

Q3) What is a typical characteristic absorption in the IR spectrum of a primary amine?

A) Two N-H absorptions at 2500-2600 cm-1

B) One N-H absorption at 2500-2600 cm-1

C) Two N-H absorptions at 3300-3500 cm-1

D) One N-H absorption at 3300-3500 cm-1

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Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis

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Q1) Which statement below best explains what is meant by the statement, "An organocuprate reaction with a vinyl halide is stereospecific"?

A) The reaction of a specific stereoisomer with the R2CuLi reagent will yield that particular stereoisomer as the product.

B) The reaction of a vinyl halide with the R2CuLi reagent will only yield the cis product.

C) The reaction of a vinyl halide with the R2CuLi reagent will only yield the trans product.

D) The reaction of a vinyl halide with the R2CuLi reagent will only yield one enantiomer product-either R or S configuration.

Q2) Which of the following is true about the use of the Grubbs catalyst?

A) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbon-carbon coupling reactions.

B) The Grubbs catalyst is used in alkene metathesis.

C) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbene formation.

D) The Grubbs catalyst is used with palladium as a co-catalyst.

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Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about orbital symmetry and cycloaddition reactions is true?

A) Thermal cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.

B) Thermal cycloadditions involving an odd number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.

C) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an odd number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.

D) Photochemical sycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.

Q2) How many \(\pi\) molecular orbitals are present in 1,3,5,7,9-decapentaene?

A) 4

B) 5

C) 10

D) 12

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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes the relationship between D-glucose and D-fructose?

A) enantiomers

B) epimers

C) anomers

D) constitutional isomers

Q2) Upon hydrolysis of amylopectin, what sugar is formed?

A) sucrose

B) maltose

C) lactose

D) glucose

Q3) The branching units in amylopectin, a polysaccharide, which enable this molecule to be water soluble are connected with __________________________ linkages.

A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"

B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"

C) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"

D) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"

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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is (are) fibrous protein(s)?

A) keratins

B) hormones

C) enzymes

D) antibodies

Q2) What reagents would you use to convert acetaldehyde into alanine?

A) NH3

B) HCN

C) NaCN, NH4Cl

D) NaNH2

Q3) What is the separation of a racemic mixture into its component enantiomers called?

A) diastereomers

B) meso

C) resolution

D) neutralization

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Chapter 30: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) From the statements below, pick out the one that is not correct for fat-soluble vitamins.

A) Fat-soluble vitamins are classified as lipids.

B) Fat-soluble vitamins are a group of biologically active compounds containing 20 carbon atoms.

C) Fat-soluble vitamins are required in small quantities for normal metabolism.

D) Fat-soluble vitamins are stored in fat cells for use when they are needed.

Q2) What is (are) the biological precursor(s) for the formation of the steroid skeleton found in cholesterol?

A) cyclohexane

B) squalene

C) triacyl glycerols

D) arachadonic acid

Q3) Which of the following fatty acids has the lowest melting point?

A) palmitic acid

B) arachidic acid

C) stearic acid

D) lauric acid

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Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the name given to polymers with single monomers?

A) homopolymers

B) copolymers

C) block polymers

D) random polymers

Q2) Which type of polymerization process uses benzoyl peroxide (or other peroxides) as an initiator?

A) free-radical chain-growth

B) cationic chain-growth

C) anionic chain-growth

D) acid-catalyzed step-growth

Q3) Which one of the following monomers undergoes anionic polymerization most readily?

A) H2C=CH2

B) H2C=CHCH3

C) H2C=C(CH3)2

D) H2C=CHCN

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