
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Environmental Biology explores the interactions between living organisms and their environments, examining how both natural and human-induced changes impact ecosystems and biodiversity. The course covers foundational principles of ecology, population dynamics, energy flow, nutrient cycling, and the structure and function of various ecosystems. Students will analyze environmental challenges such as climate change, pollution, habitat destruction, and resource depletion, while learning about conservation strategies and sustainable practices. Emphasis is placed on scientific methods, critical thinking, and real-world applications to empower students to better understand and address contemporary environmental issues.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 8th Edition by George B Johnson
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Q1) All living things are able to maintain stable internal conditions,whether they are unicellular or complex,multicellular organisms.This property is called:
A)metabolism
B)homeostasis
C)heredity
D)cellular organization
Answer: B
Q2) Biologists study the diversity of life in many ways except the observation of:
A)behavior
B)religion
C)DNA
D)fossils
Answer: B
Q3) The ozone depletion problem is expected to ______________ over the next few decades.
Answer: improve
Q4) As life forms become more advanced,new properties occur.These properties are referred to as ______________.
Answer: emergent
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Q1) The chemical bond within a water molecule is a ______ bond. Answer: covalent
Q2) Nonpolar molecules are water soluble.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) If an element has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14,how many neutrons does it have?
A)6
B)14
C)7
D)8
E)Impossible to determine
Answer: D
Q4) A substance that increases the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> is called a(n)________.
Answer: acid
Q5) A solution with a pH of 3 is said to be highly ____________. Answer: acidic
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Q1) Lipids are insoluble in water because they are nonpolar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Describe the structure of DNA.
Answer: The monomer is a nucleotide of deoxyribose,phosphate and a nitrogenous base.The molecule is double stranded and looks like a ladder.The sides of the ladder are the sugar-phosphate backbone and the rungs of the ladder are the bases.The bases are complementary with adenine (A)bonding with thymine (T)and guanine (G)bonding with cytosine (C).DNA stores the hereditary information for cells.
Q3) Making and breaking molecules in the body require the aid of ____________ to help the reactions proceed.
A)heat
B)water
C)blood
D)enzymes
Answer: D
Q4) In RNA,thymine is replaced with __________.
Answer: uracil
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Q1) The surface of a nucleus is bounded by a special kind of membrane called the ______________________.
Q2) The _________________ of a eukaryotic cell is the organelle that houses the genetic material known as DNA.
Q3) When a cytoplasmic vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane,expelling its contents outside the cell,the process is known as:
A)active transport
B)exocytosis
C)phagocytosis
D)endocytosis
Q4) Select the membrane molecule that is made up of a polar region with two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
A)Phospholipids
B)Cell surface proteins
C)Transmembrane proteins
D)Carbohydrate chains
Q5) Explain what happens to plant and animal cells when placed in hypertonic,hypotonic and isotonic environments.
Q6) Explain an instance when a membrane defect can cause a disease.
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Q1) Chemical reactions that release energy are called ______ reactions.
A)exergonic
B)endergonic
C)catalysis
D)catalytic
Q2) Enzymes are catalysts because they operate to:
A)lower activation energy
B)raise activation energy
C)supply activation energy
D)supply the reactants
Q3) Explain how enzymes are regulated by feedback inhibition.
Q4) Most human enzymes work best within the range of:
A)pH 3 - 5
B)pH 4 - 6
C)pH 6 - 8
D)pH 8 - 10
E)pH 11 - 14
Q5) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.
Q6) Distinguish between reactants,substrates,and products.
Q7) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.
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Q1) The energy to power the Calvin cycle comes from A)cellular respiration.
B)the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
C)the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis.
D)oxygen.
E)chlorophyll.
Q2) Which wavelength of light is the shortest?
A)Gamma rays
B)X-rays
C)UV light
D)Visible light
E)Infrared
Q3) The internal membranes within the chloroplast are organized into flattened sacs called ____________.
Q4) The most abundant protein on earth is
A)cellulose.
B)rubisco.
C)ATPase.
D)NADPH.
E)chlorophyll.
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Q1) During which stage(s)of cellular respiration is CO<sub>2</sub> produced?
A)Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
B)Krebs cycle only
C)Electron transport chain
D)Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and Krebs cycle
E)Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Q2) When substrate level phosphorylation occurs it means that
A)NAD is converted into NADH.
B)ATP is converted into ADP plus a phosphate group.
C)ADP is converted into ATP by addition of a phosphate group.
D)AMP is converted into NAD by adding a phosphate group.
E)NADH is converted into NAD + H.
Q3) When a high-energy phosphate group is transferred from a substrate to ADP it is called ____________.
Q4) Cellular respiration
A)oxidizes glucose and reduces oxygen.
B)oxidizes oxygen and reduces glucose.
C)releases energy and reduces water.
D)requires energy and releases NADH.
E)releases energy and oxygen.

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Q1) During mitosis,chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the cell during this phase
Q2) Pairs of chromosomes that have the same size,shape,and function are ________________________________.
Q3) After duplication,sister chromatids remain joined together:
A)until metaphase
B)by the centromere
C)throughout mitosis
D)until telophase
E)by the kinetochore
Q4) What cell cycle regulatory protein is a tumor-suppressor protein?
A)E2F
B)EGF
C)p53
D)HER2
Q5) The daughter chromatids are separated and pulled to their respective poles during ___________________ of mitosis.
Q6) Genes known as _________ encode proteins that stimulate cell division.
Q7) Explain how the new molecular therapies might stop the growth of cancer.
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Q1) What is the basis of Herman Muller's Ratchet theory?
A)That meiosis reduces the chromosome number in half.
B)That synapsis must occur for crossing over to take place.
C)That parthenogenesis does not increase genetic variability.
D)That evolution is due to mutations,not crossing over.
E)That once harmful mutations arise,asexual populations have no way of eliminating them.
Q2) Meiosis involves four nuclear divisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The arrangement of the chromosomes in metaphase I of meiosis is not important as long as homologues pair.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some organisms are able to reproduce both sexually and asexually.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After meiosis,the gamete joins with another gamete in all eukaryotic organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In snapdragons,pink-flowered plants are produced when red-flowered plants are crossed with white-flowered plants.This type of inheritance can best be described as:
A)simple dominant and recessive traits
B)codominance
C)incomplete dominance
D)sex-linked traits
Q2) A genetic family tree can more correctly be called a ____________.
Q3) What discovery by T.H.Morgan finally determined that genes were carried on chromosomes?
A)Heat-sensitivity of certain enzymes determining coat color
B)Sex-linked inheritance of eye color in fruit flies
C)The finding of complete dominance
D)Discovery of the Rh blood group
Q4) What is the product of transcription?
A)DNA
B)Genes
C)Protein
D)RNA
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Which scientists are credited for deducing the true structure of DNA?
A)Rosalind Franklin
B)Martha Chase and Frederick Griffith
C)James Watson and Francis Crick
D)Rachel Carson and Oswald Avery
Q2) A plant species has its DNA analyzed.The results show that 28% of its nitrogen bases are guanine.What is the percent represented by thymine?
A)28%
B)24%
C)23%
D)22%
Q3) An unexpected change in a cell's genetic makeup is called a ____________.
Q4) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence ATTGCAT,its complementary strand will have the sequence:
A)ATTGCAT
B)TAACGTA
C)GCCATGC
D)CGGTACG
Q5) The two strands of DNA are said to be __________ to one another.
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Q1) To turn genes off,a regulatory protein called a(n)__________ is bound to a regulatory site so that RNA polymerase is blocked.
A)repressor
B)translator
C)signal molecule
D)operon
Q2) The process of bringing in the appropriate amino acid into position along the mRNA in the cytoplasm is:
A)translation
B)transcription
C)transduction
D)promotion
Q3) In humans,what percent of the genome is devoted to the exons that encode proteins?
A)about 1.5%
B)about 20%
C)about 35%
D)about 50%
E)about 75%
Q4) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
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Q1) In gene transfer procedures,why is it necessary to use processed mRNA molecules to make DNA to transfer to another organism?
Q2) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA transcripts as there are genes in the human genome?
This is possible because human genes are fragmented and use alternative splicing.
Q3) How do you feel about cloning? Explain your position in the light of science.
Q4) When the method is perfected,it will be possible to transfer "healthy" genes into cystic fibrosis patients via aerosol inhalants to "cure" this genetic disease.Is this type of gene transfer an actual cure or is it a treatment? In other words,could this person still pass along cystic fibrosis genes?
Q5) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q6) Do you feel there is any harm in cloning mammals? Why? Why not?
Q7) What are some of the benefits of transferring genes from one organism to another?
Q8) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
Q9) What is the correct order of events for sequencing DNA?
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Q1) During fossilization,remains of an organism may become suspended in fossilized plant sap,which is called ________.
Q2) Darwin better understood the mechanism for natural selection after he read a book by ______________ on the rate of growth of populations.
A)Alfred Wallace
B)Charles Lyell
C)Thomas Malthus
D)Jean Lamarck
Q3) Sickle-cell anemia in humans is an example of:
A)directional selection
B)disruptive selection
C)stabilizing or balancing selection
D)random chance
Q4) Choose the phrase that best represents microevolutionary change.
A)Darker skin after hours spent in a tanning booth
B)Changes in allele frequency in a population
C)New forms of animals replacing older ones
D)Major episodes of extinction
Q5) A human example of stabilizing selection is _____________________.
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Q1) Why are mitochondria and chloroplasts believed to have entered early eukaryotic cells by endosymbiosis of bacteria?
A)They are the same size as bacteriA.
B)They contain DNA.
C)They are not derived from the endomembrane system as other organelles are.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) To what phylum do honeybees belong?
A)Annelida
B)Chordata
C)Arthropoda
D)Sporozoa
Q3) Mitochondria are descendents of __________,and chloroplasts are descendents of _________.
A)purple bacteria;cyanobacteria
B)methanogens;protists
C)cyanobacteria;fungi
D)orange bacteria;purple bacteria
Q4) The highest,most inclusive level of our current classification scheme is _________________.
Q5) A _________ is a group of organisms related by their ancestry.
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Q1) Which of the following is endemic in wild rodents populations of the western United States?
A)Plague
B)Tuberculosis
C)Diphtheria
D)Anthrax
E)Pneumonia
Q2) Under harsh environmental conditions,some bacteria are able to form thick-walled ______________ to protect them for up to hundreds of years until conditions improve.
A)conjugation bridges
B)zygotes
C)spirochetes
D)endospores
Q3) The viruses that can infect bacterial cells are:
A)HIV virus strains
B)influenza viruses
C)cold viruses
D)bacteriophages
Q4) How do viruses gain entry into cells?
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Q1) The ancestor to the animals appears to have belonged to this group.
A)Foraminifera
B)Dinoflagellates
C)Choanoflagellates
D)Euglenoids
Q2) What was the original purpose of sexual reproduction?
A)To repair damaged DNA
B)To form more complex organisms
C)To become better adapted to a given environment
D)All of these are correct.
Q3) The malarial parasite,Plasmodium,belongs to this group.
A)Amoeba
B)Sporozoans
C)Plasmodial slime molds
D)Water molds
Q4) The most diverse kingdom is made up of the ______________.
Q5) Plants arose from green algae.Why are green algae and plants not classified under the same kingdom?
Q6) What is the evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction?
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Q7) The most common type of asexual reproduction seen in the protists is _________.

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Q1) The process by which a single cell differentiates into a specialized multicellular organism is:
A)development
B)heredity
C)multicellularity
D)coordination
Q2) Which of the following important characteristics distinguish simple multicellular organisms from complex multicellular ones?
A)Cell membrane transport proteins
B)Cell specialization
C)Ability of individual cells to divide by mitosis
D)Ability of part of the organism to do meiosis
E)Having a cell wall
Q3) There are _______________ species found in the basidiomycetes.
Q4) The fungal partner in a lichen is:
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)imperfect fungi
Q5) Fungi obtain nutrients by _______________ digestion.
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Q1) Mollusks breathe using __________.
Q2) Which feature of mollusks is a rasping tongue-like organ?
A)Gills
B)Mantle
C)Radula
D)Cheliped
E)Pedipalp
Q3) Chordates are characterized by having a ________________,a dorsal,flexible supportive rod.
Q4) Sand dollars,sea stars,sea cucumbers,and sea urchins all belong to the phylum
A)Lophophorates
B)Rotirfera
C)Chordata
D)Echinodermata
E)Arthropoda
Q5) Evolution of a body cavity is important for several reasons.List three.
Q6) _________________ are small,aquatic pseudocoelomate organisms that have a crown of cilia on their heads.
Q7) A ____________________ is an example of a cnidarian.
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Q1) All of the following are correct about birds except:
A)they have a low body temperature
B)they have thin,hollow bones
C)they have large breast muscles
D)they have a fused collarbone
E)their feathers are derived from reptilian scales
Q2) What are some of the reasons why placental mammals appear to have outcompeted monotremes and marsupials,the other two groups of mammals?
Q3) When did the major evolutionary expansion of terrestrial plants and animals occur?
A)Mesozoic era
B)Paleozoic era
C)Cenozoic era
D)2 million years ago
Q4) Bony fishes possess a lateral line system to:
A)regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood
B)cleanse the blood from toxins
C)detect changes in water pressure
D)store urine until excreted
E)regulate their buoyancy
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Q1) All New World monkeys are arboreal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is the DNA of humans and chimpanzees so very similar?
Q3) Which is incorrect about anthropoids?
A)They evolved after the prosimians.
B)They were active during the night.
C)They lived in groups.
D)Their direct descendents are the monkeys.
Q4) The continent of origin for Homo habilis is believed to be ______________.
Q5) Evidence that early humans were able to walk upright includes:
A)shorter arms
B)bowl-shaped pelvis
C)spinal cord exits at the bottom of the skull
D)All of these are correct.
Q6) What happened between 10 and 5 million years ago that favored the evolution of primates that were bipedal and no longer tree-dwellers?
Q7) Humans and their direct ancestors,as well as the apes,all make up a group called the ____________________.
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Q1) Connective tissue includes blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _______________ molecule hides the myosin-binding site on the actin when muscles are not contracting.
A)calcium
B)ATP
C)neurotransmitter
D)tropomyosin
Q3) Choose the bone or set of bones that belong to the appendicular portion of the human skeleton.
A)Skull
B)Pelvic girdle
C)Vertebral column
D)Ribs
Q4) An __________________ is a group of organs that work together in the body to perform a particular function.
Q5) The type of cleavage seen in deuterostomes is called _____________ cleavage.
Q6) Groups of cells of the same structure and function are organized into __________.
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Q1) In a ___________ circulatory system,blood is pumped by a heart through blood vessels.
Q2) What is the function of the lymphatic system?
A)To return protein to the circulation
B)To transport fats absorbed from the intestine
C)To aid in the body's defenses
D)To carry bacteria and dead blood cells to the lymph nodes and spleen
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Unlike other blood cells,certain types of _________________ are not confined to the bloodstream,but instead can squeeze through the walls of capillaries to get to where they are needed.
A)erythrocytes
B)leukocytes
C)thrombocytes
D)platelets
Q4) Once inside the lymphatic system,tissue fluid is called ______________.
Q5) The heart valve guarding the entrance to the aorta is the _________ valve.
Q6) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
Q7) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
Q8) Describe how arteries are adapted to carry high pressure blood. Page 25
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Q1) Animals remove _____ from organic molecules which drives the synthesis of _____.
A)electrons;CO<sub>2</sub> B)electrons;ATP
C)protons;O<sub>2</sub> D)nitrogen;H<sub>2</sub>O E)carbon;ATP
Q2) Crosscurrent flow is more efficient than countercurrent flow of air. A)True
B)False
Q3) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
Q4) Fish move water in only one direction over their gills,permitting countercurrent flow. A)True
B)False
Q5) The _________________ is a tumor suppressor,inspecting DNA and stopping cell division when it detects damage.
Q6) Lungs are a more efficient method of respiration than gills. A)True
B)False

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Q7) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
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Q1) The __________ secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate solution into the small intestine to aid digestion.
A)liver
B)gallbladder
C)spleen
D)pancreas
Q2) All blood leaving the stomach and intestine goes to the ________.
A)heart
B)kidneys
C)liver
D)gallbladder
E)pancreas
Q3) Within the stomach lining,special cells secrete substances to aid digestion.Which type of cells secretes hydrochloric acid?
A)Parietal cells
B)Chief cells
C)Enteroendocrine cells
D)Mucous cells
Q4) The digestive tube leading from the mouth to the stomach is the ________________.
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Q1) Reptiles,birds,and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of:
A)urea
B)ammonia
C)uric acid
D)urine
Q2) Which part of the brain detects thirst and produces antidiuretic hormone?
A)Cerebrum
B)Corpus callosum
C)Cerebellum
D)Hypothalamus
Q3) Bony fish have body fluids that are ___ to seawater,so they continuously drink seawater and actively pump out _____.
A)hypertonic;iron
B)hypotonic;ions
C)isotonic;glucose
D)isotonic;ions
Q4) In a homeostatic system,the integrating system executes changes to compensate for deviances from the set point.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following are autoimmune diseases except:
A)rheumatoid arthritis
B)lupus
C)Graves' disease
D)type I diabetes
E)polio
Q2) Which immunoglobulin is found in saliva,mucus,and mother's milk?
A)IgM
B)IgG
C)IgD
D)IgA
E)IgE
Q3) The ________________ activate the remainder of the immune system responses.
A)B cells
B)T cells
C)Helper T cells
D)Natural killer cells
Q4) The types of cells that release histamines in an allergic response are
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Q5) Describe the role of macrophages in protecting the body against disease.
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Q1) The left and right hemispheres of the brain are linked by tracts that cross in the area called the:
A)thalamus
B)corpus striatum
C)medulla oblongata
D)corpus callosum
Q2) The interaction of excitatory and inhibitory effects at the cell body of a neuron is known as:
A)autonomic control
B)integration
C)sensory control
D)interpretation
Q3) The _________________ is a network of nerves running through several areas of the brain,and is responsible for sleep and wakefulness.
A)limbic system
B)brain stem
C)medulla oblongata
D)reticular formation
Q4) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
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Q1) All sensory receptors are able to initiate nerve impulses by opening or closing:
A)voltage-gated channels
B)exteroreceptors
C)interoreceptors
D)stimulus-gated channels
Q2) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.
Q3) The sensory receptors that sense changes in the body's internal environment are called _______________.
Q4) List the types of information animals can sense about their internal environments.
Q5) There are _____ kinds of cone cells that allow us to see colors.
A)3
B)10
C)200
D)600
Q6) Animals such as bats use a type of sonar called ______________ to locate objects.
Q7) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the
Q8) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
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Q1) _______________ hormone stimulates the male gonads to produce testosterone and triggers ovulation in females.
A)Adrenocorticotropic
B)Follicle-stimulating
C)Luteinizing
D)Growth
Q2) One of the two hormones the body cannot survive without is:
A)parathyroid hormone
B)growth hormone
C)follicle-stimulating hormone
D)norepinephrine
Q3) _______________ hormone stimulates the adrenal gland to produce several steroid hormones.
A)Adrenocorticotropic
B)Follicle-stimulating
C)Luteinizing
D)Growth
Q4) The anterior pituitary hormone,__________,stimulates the breasts to produce milk.
Q5) Why are anabolic steroid hormones so dangerous?
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Q1) All of the following methods of birth control prevent fertilization of the ovum by sperm except:
A)intrauterine devices (IUDs)
B)condoms
C)birth control pills
D)diaphragm
E)spermicidal foams or jellies
Q2) What stage of embryonic development implants in the lining of the uterus?
A)Blastocyst
B)Morula
C)Zygote
D)After the development of a coelom
Q3) The portion of the body that ultimately controls the female menstrual cycle is the: A)hypothalamus
B)anterior pituitary
C)ovaries
D)uterus
Q4) Sequential hermaphroditism among coral reef fish in which an individual is first female,then male is called _______________.
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Q1) In order to disperse water throughout themselves more effectively,plants evolved:
A)pores
B)vascular systems
C)circulatory systems
D)high pressure in their roots
Q2) The symbiotic relationship with fungi called mycorrhizae:
A)allow plants to take up minerals such as phosphorus
B)cause disease in the infected plant
C)only benefit the fungus
D)existed only millions of years ago
Q3) _____________ are plants with primitive conducting systems.
A)Mosses
B)Coniferous trees
C)Liverworts and hornworts
D)Ferns
Q4) _______________________ are symbiotic associations between fungi and plant roots.
Q5) Gametophyte generations produce ____________.
Q6) Flower parts are connected to a base called a _____________________.
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Q1) Leaflets are part of a more complex leaf called a __________ leaf.
Q2) ___________ is accumulated secondary xylem.
Q3) Which of the following form the gritty texture you feel in the flesh of pears?
A)Collenchyma cells
B)Fibers
C)Tracheids
D)Sclereids
Q4) In plants with _______________,root hairs are less abundant because these fungal filaments take over their function for the plant.
A)lichens
B)branch roots
C)mycorrhizae
D)two pericycles
Q5) In a mature tree,the point where the bark can be peeled off the wood is where the ________________ lies.
A)secondary xylem
B)periderm
C)cork cambium
D)vascular cambium
Q6) Describe the mechanism in which stomata open and close.
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Q1) Explain the significance of the 1950s experiments of F.C.Steward was able to induce differentiated carrot cells to form an entire carrot plant.This was evidence that even differentiated cells still possessed all of the genetic material needed for the differentiation of entire plants.F.C.Steward.
Q2) The response of plants to touch is known as:
A)phototropism
B)gravitropism
C)thigmotropism
D)photoperiodism
Q3) Early in the development of an angiosperm embryo,the embryo becomes dormant.This dormancy occurs:
A)after the seed coat is fully formed.
B)once the root and shoot have penetrated the seed coat.
C)after apical meristems and the cotyledons are differentiated.
D)after the seed coat is fully formed and after apical meristems and the cotyledons are differentiateD.
E)All of these are correct.
Q4) When pollen from a flower's anther pollinates the same flower's stigma,the process is called _____________________.
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Q1) A community and the nonliving factors with which it interacts is called a(n):
A)biome
B)biosphere
C)ecosystem
D)community
E)population
Q2) The ________________ of a habitat is the number of individuals the habitat has the resources to support indefinitely.
Q3) ______________ occurs when one organism physically resembles another.
Q4) Cattle egrets have a ________ relationship with African Cape Buffaloes.
A)parasitic
B)commensalistic
C)competitive
D)predator-prey
Q5) Why don't many successions reach the climax community status?
A)Because animals always die.
B)Because species go extinct.
C)Because the species within the system don't interact constantly.
D)Because the local climate keeps changing and human activities have an impact.
Q6) In what manner does predation reduce competition?
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Q1) All of the different kinds of interacting organisms living within a certain area make up a:
A)population
B)ecosystem
C)community
D)species
Q2) The total amount of energy fixed by photosynthetic organisms minus the energy used in their own metabolic activities is:
A)primary productivity
B)secondary productivity
C)net primary productivity
D)net secondary productivity
Q3) The British Isles experience warmer weather than other areas of the same latitude because of:
A)the vast forests that shelter the islands from winds
B)the warm,moist Gulf Stream
C)mountain ranges protecting the islands
D)industry causing a localized greenhouse effect
Q4) Microscopic organisms floating on the surface of the ocean make up the
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Q1) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Q2) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Q3) The appearance of an egg outside of a goose's nest is called:
A)an innate releasing mechanism
B)a fixed action pattern
C)imprinting
D)a sign stimulus
Q4) Animals defend their territory,which is called territoriality.Territoriality means an animal defends:
A)its entire home range
B)a portion of its home range
C)only the overlapping components of its home range
D)all of its home range except the overlapped areas
Q5) Trial-and-error learning where an animal learns to associate its behavioral response with a reward or punishment is known as:
A)operant conditioning
B)classical conditioning
C)nonassociative learning
D)habituation
Q6) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
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Q1) A lack of ozone is dangerous because ozone:
A)is a reserve for oxygen that we breathe
B)cools the Earth
C)filters out dangerous ultraviolet rays
D)triggers the development of clouds
Q2) What alternatives can you think of to lessen the need for agricultural chemicals?
Q3) Which factor is contributing to the worldwide decline in amphibians?
A)Habitat deterioration
B)Fatal infections
C)Introduction of exotic species
D)Chemical pollutants that are toxic
E)All of these are contributing factors.
Q4) Choose the one environmental problem that you feel is in need of our most immediate attention.Describe the problem and explain why you feel it is the one that is most urgent.
Q5) Widespread effects on the worldwide ecosystem are called
Q6) How do you think our overpopulation problem will be solved? Support your answer with specific examples or ideas.
Q7) Our country has lost ____________ of its topsoil since 1950.
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