Course Introduction
Environmental Biology Review
Questions
Environmental Biology explores the complex interactions between living organisms and their environment, focusing on ecological principles, biodiversity, and the impact of human activity on natural systems. This course examines topics such as ecosystem structure and function, energy flow, population dynamics, conservation biology, and environmental sustainability. Students will develop an understanding of current environmental issues, such as climate change, habitat destruction, pollution, and resource management, while learning about the biological processes that underpin ecosystem resilience and the importance of maintaining ecological balance.
Recommended Textbook
LIFE 1st Edition by John H. Postlethwait
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the units of the hierarchy of life in order from smallest to largest. Answer: biological molecules \(\rarr\) organelles \(\rarr\) cells \(\rarr\) tissues \(\rarr\) organs \(\rarr\)organ systems \(\rarr\) organism
Q2) Many studies of potentially useful new drugs involve the use of two groups of people: One group takes the drug and another group takes a placebo (like a sugar pill). Members of both groups do not know whether they are taking the drug or the placebo. What is the reason for designing these experiments this way?
Answer: The placebo group serves as a control group to account for any factor that might affect the condition of the patient other than the drug.
Q3) If you were studying the ecology of a marsh community, what components would you need to consider?
Answer: A correct answer would include the various components of all living things in that ecosystem, including members of both microscopic and macroscopic organisms, the interactions between these organisms, and the interplay between organisms and the abiotic environment.
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3
Chapter 2: Cells and the Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an atom, the electrons are
A)housed within the nucleus.
B)moving through the nucleus.
C)present in various energy shells.
D)usually at rest, but occasionally move.
E)positively charged.
Answer: C
Q2) Most cells are small. When they reach a certain size, cells typically divide. This has to do with the
A)amount of genetic material.
B)surface-to-volume ratio.
C)inability to produce more components of the cell membrane.
D)fact that they cannot possess sufficient numbers of organelles for normal cell functioning.
E)differences between viral particles and eukaryotic cells.
Answer: B
Q3) Most of a living organism (approximately 98%)is made up of what three elements?
Answer: carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
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4
Chapter 3: How Cells Take in and Use Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human activities are responsible for an increase in the amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Many feel that the buildup of this gas is at least partly responsible for the greenhouse effect and global warming. Increased carbon dioxide may actually be a benefit to some plants since they need carbon dioxide for carbon-fixation. How will the greenhouse effect influence the biosphere? Even though experiments have shown increased carbon dioxide to be a boon for test plants, some scientists are still concerned about this phenomenon. Why?
Answer: The best responses will include discussions of the following ideas:Greenhouse effect and global warming; man's role; loss of biodiversity; increased natural catastrophes, such as floods, famines, storms; changes in habitats. The student response to the second question should include discussion of which plants will be affected; how the increased temperature will affect part of the plants. Thoughtful answers will discuss the ramifications on global food supplies and sustainability.
Q2) For the following chemical equation, label the reactants by placing an R beside them.
carbon dioxide__ + water__ + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen__
Answer: carbon dioxide(R) + water(R) + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen_
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) How does a person with Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome differ genetically from a person who has developed basal cell carcinomas from too much exposure to sunlight?
Q2) Match the following structures with the proper description.
13. __ centromers
14. __chromosomme
15. __ Kinetochore
16. __ chromatid
A. separate, duplicated structures composed of DNA visible under the microscope
B. a duplicated strand of DNA held to ts duplicate by a centromers
C. a proteinaceous bard holding duplicate copies of the genetic material
D. a structure that holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers
Q3) At the end of metaphase I, separate.
A)homologous chromosomes
B)haploid chromatids
C)sister chromatids
D)centrioles
E)germ cells
Q4) List the two major differences between meiosis and mitosis. What is the significance of these events?
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Chapter 5: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Contrast Mendel's model of heredity with the blending model. Which one is a better description of the way traits are passed from one generation to the next?
Q2) Mendel correctly surmised that the 3 dominant:1 recessive phenotypic ratio seen in the F<sub>2</sub> generation pea plants was due to
A)a tendency to have more fertilization events yielding homozygous dominant than homozygous recessive.
B)homozygosity.
C)genotypic selection.
D)random combination of sperm and egg with respect to the allele carried.
E)certain phenotypes having a selective advantage.
Q3) The genetic makeup of a particular trait in an individual is its A)dominance.
B)heterozygosity.
C)genotype.
D)phenotype.
E)filial.
Q4) Compare and contrast the blending and particulate models of heredity.
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Chapter 6: DNA: The Thread of Life
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Q1) Normal human body cells contain how many chromosomes?
A)22
B)23
C)46
D)44
E)42
Q2) DNA replication involves all of the following steps except A)separation.
B)joining.
C)production of single-stranded DNA molecules.
D)complementary base pairing.
E)polymerization.
Q3) Frederick Griffith conducted experiments where nonlethal bacteria acquired the ability to cause lethal pneumonia due to the presence of an unknown chemical. This chemical was later found to be A)RNA.
B)a protein.
C)DNA.
D)nonhereditary material. E)phosphorus.
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Chapter 7: Genes, Proteins, and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can lead to cancer except A)mutagens.
B)Bacteria.
C)mutations.
D)UV radiation.
E)carcinogens.
Q2) Explain the concept "the genetic code is almost universal." Why is it important?
Q3) We refer to the DNA code as being redundant or repetitive. This means that
A)each triplet codes for one amino acid.
B)some codons code for the same amino acid.
C)one codon codes for one amino acid.
D)each triplet codes for a different amino acid.
E)a single triplet may code for more than one amino acid.
Q4) Promoters
A)determine the start of DNA strand separation.
B)are required to end transcription.
C)are a sequence of RNA nucleotides.
D)are involved in determining the start of translation.
E)aid in complementary base pairing.
Q5) What types of mutations are the most harmful, and why?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) What is a negative feedback loop? How does this apply to sperm production?
Q2) Describe the primary membranes surrounding the human fetus.
Q3) As opposed to external fertilization, internal fertilization ensures that
A)sperm and egg will be released simultaneously.
B)only the fittest of sperm and egg combinations will survive.
C)sperm will be protected until they can unite with the eggs.
D)all of the sperm will fertilize eggs.
E)the number of sperm and eggs produced will be equal.
Q4) Pregnancy begins with A)implantation.
B)blastocyst formation.
C)gastrulation.
D)conception.
E)formation of the amnion.
Q5) Embryonic development includes all of the following except A)cleavage.
B)fertilization.
C)gastrulation.
D)organogenesis.
E)growth.
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Chapter 9: The Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Vestigial organs
A)did not have a function when they first developed, but do so today.
B)are similar in many organisms.
C)must have evolved individually in different organisms.
D)are not found in present-day organisms.
E)include the human appendix and wisdom teeth and a snake's hipbones.
Q2) There are two types of genetic drift. Describe and give an example of the founder effect.
Q3) This type of selection favors both extremes of the phenotype spectrum within a population.
A)directional
B)stabilizing
C)disruptive
D)natural
E)neutral
Q4) What is genetic diversity? Why is it important to maintain genetic diversity?
Q5) Which of the three modes of selection would be most likely to result in speciation? Why?
Q6) Why would the evolution of a better eye be a disadvantage for a mole?
Q7) Although Lamarck's hypothesis was wrong, it is significant. Why?
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Chapter 10: Lifes Origins and Biodiversity
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Q1) Evidence from Stanley Miller's experiments and evidence from carbonaceous chondrites collected from meteorites, taken together, most directly support the contention that
A)life can arise under conditions of extreme heat or cold.
B)organic molecules can be synthesized by natural chemical processes.
C)life did not arise on earth, but rather arrived from another planet by meteorite.
D)living organisms are required to produce complex organic compounds.
E)organic compounds require gravity for their formation.
Q2) When taxonomists classify organisms using a phylogenetic approach, they are most concerned with
A)derived traits.
B)ancestral traits.
C)cladists.
D)outgroups.
E)ingroups.
Q3) Scientists think that the first eukaryotic cells did not have a cell wall. Indicate a disadvantage to this, and tell how cells might have compensated for it. Give an advantage to this, and tell how cells might have exploited it.
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Chapter 11: Single-Celled Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prions are composed of A)DNA.
B)RNA.
C)protein.
D)DNA and protein.
E)DNA, RNA, and protein.
Q2) In viruses, the capsid
A)is composed of DNA or RNA.
B)destroys the viral DNA or RNA.
C)is never present.
D)consists of many genes.
E)may be involved in attachment of the virus.
Q3) According to the old Linnaean scheme of classifying the living world into either animals or plants, any organism that could photosynthesize was considered a plant. What kingdoms in the new system contain photosynthetic organisms and what criteria are now used to group them?
Q4) Why are infections caused by viruses so much more difficult to treat or cure than those caused by bacteria?
Q5) What benefits do plant-eating animals receive from the bacteria that live in their guts?
13
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Chapter 12: Fungi and Plants: Decomposers and Producers
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Q1) Lichens are
A)parasitic interactions between a fungus and an alga.
B)only found growing on living matter.
C)symbiotic associations between a fungus and an alga.
D)capable of causing some obscure diseases.
E)insensitive to changes in the environment.
Q2) Why is pollen considered an important adaptation to land?
Q3) What are some of the characteristics of flowering plants that have allowed them to flourish?
Q4) In gymnosperms, the formation of the female gametophyte takes place in the A)microspores.
B)megaspores.
C)macrospores.
D)ovule.
E)rhizomes.
Q5) How does a fungus receive nourishment from its environment?
Q6) Is a fungal mycelium made up of uninucleate, binucleate, or multinucleate cells?
Defend your answer.
Q7) Explain why fungal life cycles are not considered an example of "alternation of generations."
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Chapter 13: The Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) Of the following, which is likely the most direct ancestor of modern humans?
A)Homo habilis
B)Australopithecus garhi
C)Homo erectus
D)Australopithecus afarensis
E)Homo neanderthalis
Q2) The process seen in many insects involving the pupa completely changing form into an adult is called
A)cephalization.
B)coelom formation.
C)skeletonization.
D)molting.
E)metamorphosis.
Q3) Which of the following adaptations to life on land is found in both insects and modern reptiles?
A)ability to fly
B)tracheae to distribute oxygen
C)two pairs of walking legs
D)metamorphosis from a larval form
E)body surfaces that resist evaporation
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Chapter 14: Ecology of Populations and Communities
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Q1) A survivorship curve similar in shape to that seen in humans might be expected to be seen in
A)elephants.
B)domestic cows.
C)whales.
D)a rhinoceros.
E)any of the above.
Q2) Several species of mice occupy the same meadow. One species remains near the stream; one is found almost exclusively among the dense undergrowth; and a third species is mainly seen in the open parts of the meadow. Since these three species of mice can coexist, they are probably demonstrating
A)competitive exclusion.
B)competitive inclusion.
C)symbiosis.
D)resource partitioning.
E)habitat division.
Q3) Do predators control prey? Or do prey control predator populations? Explain your answer.
Q4) Explain the concept of a keystone species.
Q5) Describe the second phase of the growth of the human population.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Ecosystems and the Biosphere
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Q1) Climate
A)changes with the seasons.
B)refers to the atmospheric conditions at a particular place at a particular time.
C)is determined by temperature and availability of water.
D)is determined by the organisms living in a particular area.
E)is the same throughout the globe.
Q2) The polar ice caps are not considered biomes because they
A)lack any major plant communities.
B)do not sustain animals and bacteria.
C)are located outside of areas that can be considered as biomes.
D)are too cold for any life.
E)melt and refreeze on a regular basis.
Q3) Weather and climate differ from each other because
A)the effect of weather is temporary whereas the effect of climate is not.
B)weather determines the diversity of organisms in an area.
C)weather is local and climate is global.
D)weather determines climate.
E)man can affect weather but not climate.
Q4) Why are food chains limited to a small number of links?
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Chapter 16: Body Function, Survival, and the Steady State
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Q1) Describe how fluids and some dissolved materials move from the blood in the glomerulus into the nephron.
Q2) Astronauts who spend significant time at zero gravity often become somewhat anemic upon return to Earth. One way to compensate for the process that leads to this anemia might be to supply the astronauts with ________ during the mission in space.
A)a diet higher in protein and iron
B)a diuretic, which will cause them to excrete more fluid
C)a growth factor that leads to increased red blood cell production
D)higher levels of oxygen in the shuttle atmosphere
E)more opportunities to rest or sleep
Q3) List several functions of epithelial tissues.
Q4) Describe the macroscopic anatomy of the human excretory system.
Q5) Which of the following are not types of connective tissue?
A)blood
B)bone
C)cartilage
D)tendons
E)the upper layers of the skin
Q6) List as many types of connective tissue as possible, and give their functions.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) What is the hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, as in the case of a hemorrhage?
A)ANH
B)TSH
C)BSH
D)erythropoietin
E)renin
Q2) The most important function of the globin (protein)portion of a hemoglobin molecule is to
A)directly bind oxygen.
B)promote binding of oxygen to the heme group.
C)allow release of oxygen from the heme group.
D)facilitate the reaction of CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
E)cause constriction of the capillaries.
Q3) Bird respiration is extremely efficient because birds possess
A)a very long trachea.
B)lungs.
C)nares.
D)air sacs.
E)air bladders.
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