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Environmental Biology Review Questions - 1499 Verified Questions

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Environmental Biology Review

Questions

Course Introduction

Environmental Biology explores the complex interactions between living organisms and their environment, emphasizing the impact of human activities on natural ecosystems. The course covers topics such as biodiversity, ecosystem dynamics, population ecology, biogeochemical cycles, and environmental issues like pollution, climate change, and conservation strategies. Students gain an understanding of ecological principles and learn how biological knowledge can be applied to solve environmental problems, promoting sustainable interaction with the natural world.

Recommended Textbook

Sterns Introductory Plant Biology 13th Edition by James Bidlack

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26 Chapters

1499 Verified Questions

1499 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: What Is Plant Biology

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30 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The early scientist who first demonstrated experimentally that plants do not have the same modes of nutrition as animals was

A) Nehemiah Grew.

B) Carl Willdenow.

C) Alexander von Humboldt.

D) Sir J.D.Hooker.

E) J.B.van Helmont.

Answer: E

Q2) When human populations increase, they increase their impact on plants and other living organisms by _______________________________________.

A) using plants as fuel

B) building homes

C) harvesting plants for food for themselves and their animals

D) replacing plant communities with agricultural crops

E) all of the these

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: The Nature of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Laws pertaining to energy are called laws of ___________________.

A) metabolism

B) aerodynamics

C) atomic fusion

D) thermodynamics

E) heredity

Answer: D

Q2) A substance consisting of two or more elements united by chemical bonds in a definite ratio is called a

A) molecule.

B) mixture.

C) compound.

D) base.

E) valence.

Answer: C

Q3) Isotopes of an element have the same chemical characteristics but slightly different atomic mass due to differing number of neutrons.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) The preprophase band, the spindle fibers, and the phragmoplast are involved in cell division and are part of the cytoskeleton.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Pasteur discovered that alcoholic fermentation involved the activity of yeast.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Which of the following are primary constituents of cell membranes?

A) nucleotides

B) phospholipids

C) proteins

D) carbohydrates

E) steroids

Answer: B

Q4) Protein synthesis takes place in the mitochondria.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fatty substance in the walls of cork cells is

A) cutin.

B) latex.

C) suberin.

D) pectin.

E) cellulose.

Q2) Simple tissues such as ____________ are composed of a single type of cell.

A) secretory tissues

B) phloem

C) epidermis

D) cork

E) parenchyma

Q3) The primary activity of cells of meristematic tissues is ______________________.

A) support

B) transport of water

C) photosynthesis

D) cell division

E) defense

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Roots and Soils

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a seed germinates, the part of the embryo that develops into the first root is called a radicle.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The best soil for plant growth is

A) clay.

B) sand.

C) loam.

D) peat.

E) both [clay and sand] are correct

Q3) In dicot roots the xylem is formed in discrete patches.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Branch roots arise from buds initiated on the outer surface of a root.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Grasses generally produce a fibrous root system.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Stems

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Sample Questions

Q1) In woody dicots, which of the following may eventually be crushed as secondary growth occurs?

A) secondary xylem

B) cork

C) cork cambium

D) cortex

E) vascular cambium

Q2) You can determine whether an unknown plant structure that you dig up is a stem or root by ______________.

A) determining whether it is divided into nodes and internodes

B) checking for the presence of a root cap

C) checking for the presence of woody tissue and bark

D) determining if the structure has protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium

E) checking to see if it produces lateral roots with root hairs

Q3) Which function does the stem have in common with the root?

A) synthesis of starch

B) photosynthesis

C) conduction

D) absorption

E) both [photosynthesis and conduction] are correct

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Chapter 7: Leaves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a specialized leaf?

A) Venus flytrap

B) Irish (white) potato

C) pitcher of a pitcher plant

D) tendril of a pea plant

E) sundew "trap"

Q2) The protective layer of an abscission zone serves to prevent water loss after the leaf falls off the plant.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In spines most of the normal leaf tissue is replaced with A) collenchyma.

B) chlorenchyma.

C) sclerenchyma.

D) ray cells.

E) cortex.

Q4) Few, if any, drugs are obtained from leaves.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Flowers, Fruits, and Seeds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The floral parts are attached to an apical portion of the flowering stem called the A) carpel.

B) receptacle.

C) stamen.

D) corolla.

E) inflorescence.

Q2) Which of the following is usually missing in wind-pollinated plants?

A) calyx

B) corolla

C) stamens

D) pistil

E) leaves

Q3) The life cycle of flowering plants begins with seed germination and ends with a mature plant producing new seeds.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Accessory fruits are little fruits that develop around a larger fruit.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Water in Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) At present the most widely accepted theory for movement of sugars in the phloem is called the

A) pressure-flow hypothesis.

B) cohesion-tension-transpiration theory.

C) translocation theory.

D) water-potential theory.

E) imbibition-guttation hypothesis.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT involved in guard cell regulation of stomata opening?

A) Photosynthesis

B) Active transport

C) Osmosis

D) Imbibition

E) Accumulation of potassium ions

Q3) When humidity is high

A) transpiration rates increase.

B) transpiration rates decrease.

C) transpiration ceases altogether.

D) leaves absorb moisture from the air.

E) stomata open wider.

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Chapter 10: Plant Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT produced during fermentation?

A) lactic acid

B) ethyl alcohol

C) CO<sub>2</sub>

D) acetylCoA

E) ATP

Q2) Photosynthetic light independent reactions can take place in the light.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Energy conversion in plants takes place with 100% efficiency unlike energy conversion in machines.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Photophosphorylation refers to _______________________.

A) removal of a proton from a phosphate group

B) use of light energy to directly add a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP

C) use of light energy to create a proton gradient which, in turn, is used to add a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP

D) removal of a phosphate group from ATP to form ADP

E) the light independent reactions of photosynthesis

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Chapter 11: Growth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Auxins promote the growth of the stem by

A) promoting cell division.in the apical meristem.

B) by promoting cell elongation.

C) by promoting stomatal opening for greater photosynthesis.

D) by inhibiting flowering.

E) by inhibiting bud dormancy.

Q2) Naturally occurring and synthetic __________ such as 2,4-D, are the basis of many 'weed killers', especially for broad leaf weeds in lawns.

A) abscicic acid

B) auxins

C) cytokinins

D) ethylene

E) gibberellins

Q3) Circadian rhythms are found in both plants and animals.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Variation in day and night temperatures may influence a species growth rate.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Alternation of Generation

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Sample Questions

Q1) At the end of Meiosis I, the total number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is

A) the same as the mother cell

B) doubled (2x the mother cell)

C) four times the number of the mother cell

D) reduced by ½ from the number of the mother cell

E) none of these

Q2) Haploid cells have how many sets of chromosomes?

A) ½

B) 1

C) 2

D) More than 3

E) Variable sets of chromosomes

Q3) In which phase of meiosis does crossing-over occur?

A) Prophase I

B) Prophase II

C) Metaphase I

D) Metaphase II

E) Anaphase II

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) If all cells of a plant have identical DNA, then why are there different cell types and tissues within a plant?

A) Different subsets of the information are used in each type of cell.

B) Internal environmental conditions may determine which subset of the genome is expressed.

C) Hormones and other growth regulators may control gene expression.

D) External environmental conditions such as light or dark may alter gene expression.

E) All of the above may influence the expression of different subsets of genetic information from the genome, resulting in differentiation and development.

Q2) If the nucleotide sequence of DNA is T C C G A A, then the corresponding on mRNA is

A)A G G C T T.

B)C T A A G G.

C)A G G C U U.

D)U U C G G A.

E)A C C G T T.

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15

Chapter 14: Plant Breeding and Propagation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Methods to insert desirable genes into a target cell in the production of a transgenic plant includes the use a crown gall bacterium or ______________.

A) explant

B) producing a somatic hybrid cell

C) using a particle gun that fires very small DNA-covered gold pellets into the target cell

D) cross pollination

E) grafting

Q2) Cuttings can be made from stems, roots, or leaves.

A)True

B)False

Q3) People began to domesticate plants in the Near East approximately ______ years ago.

A) 5,000

B) 10,000

C) 2,500

D) 20,000

E) 25,000

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Chapter 15: Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two contemporary biologists, raised and educated in Victorian England, both arrived at the same conclusions about evolution at the same time.One of these men was Charles Darwin and the other one was ___________________.

A) John Henslow

B) Alfred Russell Wallace

C) Thomas Malthus

D) Robert Fitzroy

E) Charles Lyell

Q2) Charles Darwin's book On the Origin of Species was first published in A) 1921.

B) 1859.

C) 1837.

D) 1799.

E) 1886.

Q3) Lamarck is best known for his theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics.

A)True

B)False

Q4) New species cannot develop without geographical isolation.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Plant Names and Classification

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following signifies the classification rank of the scientific name Allium cepa?

A) Division

B) Family

C) Order

D) Genus

E) Species

Q2) Whittaker's system of classification is based partly on three basic forms of nutrition.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Bacteria are separated from protists on the basis of size; protists being larger than bacteria.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Naming of a newly discovered species is done according to the Binomial System of Nomenclature.

A)True

B)False

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Domain Kingdombacteria, Domain

King-Domarchaea, and Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are features of the blue-green bacteria EXCEPT

A) ability to both fix nitrogen and produce oxygen.

B) are autotrophs that produce both sugars and oxygen using light energy.

C) contain chlorophyll a and the phycobilins (phycocyanin and phycoerythrin).

D) produce a nitrogenous food reserve called cyanophycin.

E) have chloroplasts similar to those of plants for photosynthesis.

Q2) Temperatures in a compost pile can become high enough to kill weed seeds.

A)True

B)False

Q3) There are no known useful viruses.

A)True

B)False

Q4) "Will-o'-the wisps" (ignis fatuus)are associated with A) purple sulphur bacteria.

B) green sulphur bacteria.

C) sulpholobus bacteria.

D) methane bacteria.

E) purple nonsulphur bacteria.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Kingdom Protista

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most phyla of algae have carbohydrate reserves that are unique to the phylum.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A slime mold with individual amoebalike cells that never are in true plasmodia belongs to a small group known as ___________________.

A) coenocytic slime molds

B) amoeboid slime molds

C) chytridian slime molds

D) cellular slime molds

E) capillitial slime molds

Q3) Filamentous algae increase in length through cell division.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The brown algae include the largest known seaweeds.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Spirogyra was so-named because of the spiral shape of its chloroplasts.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 19: Kingdom Fungi

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Sample Questions

Q1) In mushrooms, meiosis takes place in this structure.

A) ascus

B) basidium

C) sporangium

D) hyphae

E) underground mycelium

Q2) In fungi, mitosis takes place in__________

A) the ascus.

B) the basidium.

C) the sporangium.

D) the hyphae.

E) all of these structures.

Q3) Stinkhorns and puffballs are examples of cup (sac)fungi.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Bread molds absorb most of their food in solution.

A)True

B)False

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Introduction to the Plant Kingdom: Bryophytes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The mother cells within the sporangia on the sporophyte plant undergo _________________ to produce spores.

A) fertilization

B) meiosis

C) mitosis

D) cell division

E) sexual reproduction

Q2) Chloroplast number and the presence of pyrenoids in each chloroplast indicate that _______ are only distantly related to the other bryophyte groups.

A) leafy liverworts

B) hornworts

C) peat mosses

D) thalloid liverworts

E) bog mosses

Q3) Hornworts reproduce asexually as a result of lobes of the thallus becoming separated.

A)True

B)False

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22

Chapter 21: The Seedless Vascular Plants: Ferns and Their Relatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) Primitive plants, which are believed to be the ancestors of present-day ferns, appeared during which of the following geological periods?

A) Devonian

B) Carboniferous

C) Ordovician

D) Permian

E) Cretaceous

Q2) The spores of which of the following were used at one time for flashlight powder in photography and the theater?

A) ferns

B) club mosses

C) true mosses

D) quillworts

E) horsetails

Q3) Ferns are distinguished from their relatives by having megaphylls.

A)True

B)False

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Introduction to Seed Plants: Gymnosperms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a gnetophyte?

A) Ephedra

B) Podocarpus

C) Welwitschia

D) Gnetum

E) joint fir

Q2) Western North America contains populations of the tallest, most massive and oldest of the gymnosperms living.They are: _________________.

A) california gum tree, elephant tree and creosote

B) coastal redwood, giant redwood and bristlecone pine

C) bald cypress, red pine and jack pine

D) zamia, red cedar and dawn redwood

E) none of these

Q3) Joint firs (Ephedra), which superficially resemble horsetails,

A) are somewhat shrubby inhabitants of drier regions.

B) are confined to temperate deserts in southwestern Africa.

C) have photosynthetic leaves.

D) are in the same division as cycads.

E) produce male and female reproductive structures in the same strobili.

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Seed Plants: Angiosperms

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Sample Questions

Q1) An ovary usually becomes a seed.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Each herbarium sheet consists of a pressed and dried plant of a given species mounted on good quality paper.The scientific name and common name are the only information that appear in the lower right corner.

A)True

B)False

Q3) These flower parts are generally green and leaflike.

A) petals

B) sepals

C) stamens

D) carpels

E) stigmas

Q4) Flowers that are pollinated by beetles tend to

A) have yeasty, spicy, or fruity odors.

B) have foul, rotten meat odors.

C) have delicate, sweet odors.

D) be bright blue or bright yellow in color.

E) be bright red in color.

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants and Civilization

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53 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following "survival" materials could you use for food?

A) cedar bark

B) chia seeds

C) California bay fruits

D) soaproot leaves

E) jimson weeds

Q2) Many commercially important stone fruits and berries are members of the Spurge Family.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Potatoes, tomatoes, and eggplants all belong to the A) Rose Family.

B) Buttercup Family.

C) Poppy Family.

D) Nightshade Family.

E) Pumpkin Family.

Q4) The mustard family contains members which have flowers with four petals arranged to form a cross.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Trophic efficiency

A) is the percentage of available energy actually transferred from one trophic level to the next.

B) is relatively high in aquatic ecosystem averaging about 10% from one trophic level to the next.

C) is lower in terrestrial ecosystems when compared with aquatic ecosystems.

D) tells us that secondary consumers get far less energy than if they were a primary consumer.

E) all of these are correct statements about trophic efficiency.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

A) Reforestation after a fire.

B) Successive development of vegetation on a lava flow after it has cooled.

C) Successive development of vegetation in a pond created by a beaver dam.

D) Successive development of vegetation on a rock pile after an avalanche.

E) None of these answers are correct.

Q3) Succession after a disturbance produces exactly the same plant communities as had existed before the disturbance.

A)True

B)False

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Biomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Biomes are characterized by _______________ adapted to the regional climate including temperature, rainfall, elevation, seasonality, etc.

A) communities of plants and animals

B) ecosystems

C) abiotic elements

D) human dwellings

E) all of these

Q2) Average precipitation of 50-165 cm/year is scattered throughout the year with warm summers and cool to cold winter.The forest leaf canopy is not intact year round.Identify this biome.

A) grasslands

B) temperate deciduous forest

C) coniferous forest

D) savannas

E) both [temperate deciduous forest and coniferous forest] are correct

Q3) Broadleaf deciduous trees are characteristic of the taiga.

A)True

B)False

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