Environmental Biology Question
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Course Introduction
Environmental Biology explores the complex interactions between living organisms and their environments, focusing on the biological principles underpinning ecosystem dynamics, biodiversity, and conservation. The course examines topics such as energy flow, nutrient cycling, population ecology, habitat degradation, and the impacts of human activities on natural systems. Through analysis of real-world case studies and current environmental issues, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how biological processes contribute to environmental sustainability and the challenges faced in preserving our planets health.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists employ __________________ reasoning when performing the scientific process.
A) inductive
B) deductive
C) reductive
D) adductive
Answer: A
Q2) The information that determines what an organism will be like is stored in the _____________ molecule.
Answer: DNA
Q3) Who is credited for discovering cells?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C) Robert Hooke
D) Francis Crick
E) Joseph Farman
Answer: C
Q4) The process where organisms act to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is __________.
Answer: homeostasis
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) A solution with a pH of 4 has _________ the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> present compared to a solution with a pH of 5.
A) 10 times
B) 100 times
C) 2 times
D) 1000 times
Answer: A
Q2) The atomic number of an atom is the:
A) number of neutrons only
B) number of electrons plus the number of protons
C) number of protons only
D) number of protons plus the number of neutrons
E) number of electrons,plus the number of neutrons,plus the number of protons
Answer: C
Q3) A solution of pH 3 is 100 times more acidic than a solution of pH 5.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A solution with a pH of 3 is said to be highly ____________.
Answer: acidic
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one strand is CCAATTG on DNA,then the complementary chain is:
A) CCAATTG
B) AAGGUUC
C) GGUUAAC
D) GGTTAAC
E) It is impossible to determine.
Answer: D
Q2) The building blocks of carbohydrates are:
A) amino acids
B) polypeptides
C) monosaccharides
D) nucleotides
Answer: C
Q3) When a protein is denatured,which level of protein structure is unaffected?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) The phospholipids of a cell membrane are arranged into a ________________.
Q2) The simplest cells are the:
A) eukaryotic bacteria
B) prokaryotic bacteria
C) animal cells
D) cells of fungi
Q3) An extracellular matrix is produced by glycoprotein secretion by:
A) fungal cells
B) bacterial cells
C) plant cells
D) animal cells
Q4) Which is incorrect about the plasma membrane?
A) It has a hydrophobic interior and hydrophilic region that faces water.
B) Cholesterol affects the fluid nature of the membrane.
C) Proteins embedded in the lipid bilayer do not move.
D) Transmembrane proteins span the membrane.
E) It surrounds all living cells.
Q5) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q6) Discuss the functions of the cytoskeleton of the cell.
Q7) Cells engulfing large particles is called __________________.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) The First Law of Thermodynamics states:
A) that energy can be changed from one form to another,but cannot be created or destroyed
B) that energy is constantly being created by entropy events
C) that energy can be used and then destroyed because of entropy's actions on it
D) that energy can be destroyed while it is producing entropy
Q2) Which of the following factors do NOT influence the action of enzymes?
A) Temperature of the cytoplasm
B) The amount of reactant in the cell
C) pH of the cytoplasm
D) Relative humidity
E) Presence of a repressor
Q3) The site where a signal molecule binds to the surface of an enzyme is the ______________ site.
Q4) List and explain four uses for ATP in a cell.
Q5) The First Law of Thermodynamics states that ________________
Q6) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.
Q7) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.
Page 7
Q8) Do all cells contain the same enzymes? Support your answer.
Q9) Explain how enzymes are regulated by feedback inhibition.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall purpose of the Calvin cycle is to:
A) generate molecules of ATP
B) generate NADP
C) give off oxygen for animal use
D) build organic (carbon)molecules
Q2) C<sub>4</sub> photosynthesis is an adaptation to hot,dry conditions in which:
A) CO<sub>2</sub> is fixed and stored in the leaf
B) water is stored in the stem
C) oxygen is stored in the root
D) light energy is stored in chloroplasts
Q3) During photosynthesis,ATP molecules are generated by:
A) the Calvin cycle
B) chemiosmosis
C) the splitting of water
D) light striking the chlorophyll molecules
Q4) Light energy arrives at earth in little packets called:
A) rays
B) photons
C) light waves
D) wavelengths
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) When an atom gains an electron,it is said to be __________.
Q2) The internal compartment of the mitochondria is the _______.
Q3) Oxidation and reduction reactions always take place together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During fermentation in yeast,acetaldehyde accepts a hydrogen atom from NADH and is converted to _______________.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a catabolic reaction that cells use to get energy from nutrients?
A) Cellular respiration
B) Fermentation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Anaerobic respiration
E) Digestion
Q6) What is needed for the end product of glycolysis,pyruvate,to enter the Krebs cycle?
A) More glucose for energy
B) ATP
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Oxygen
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spindle is:
A) the new cell membrane as it reforms across the cytoplasm during cytokinesis
B) the protein that connects the duplicated chromosomes
C) the network of protein cables that will pull the chromatids to opposite ends of the cell
D) the protein that DNA winds itself around
Q2) What causes cancer in cells?
A) Damage to genes failing to stop cell division
B) Chemical damage to cell membranes
C) UV damage to transport proteins
D) A disconnect between the two G phases
E) Skipping the S phase in the cell cycle
Q3) The G<sub>1</sub>,S,and G<sub>2</sub> phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as:
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) mitosis
D) meiosis
E) metaphase
Q4) How are cancer cells different from normal cells?
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.
Q2) Reproduction by mitosis only is asexual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are sources of genetic variety except:
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment
C) crossing over
D) synapsis
Q4) When does separation of homologous chromosomes occur?
A) Prophase I
B) Anaphase I
C) Interphase
D) Anaphase II
Q5) What is Muller's Ratchet theory?
Q6) During metaphase I of meiosis,homologous chromosomes can orient themselves such that one or the other will by chance go to a particular daughter cell in a process known as ________________________________.
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Q7) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is called ___________.
Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment states that genes located on different chromosomes are inherited independently of one another.If this is the case,what happens when two genes are located on the same chromosome,are they inherited together,do they separate,or both?
Q2) Two true-breeding pea plants are crossed,one with purple flowers and the other with white.Their offspring are:
A) heterozygous with the dominant phenotype
B) homozygous with the recessive phenotype
C) a mixture of purple and white flowers with varying genotypes
D) still true-breeding,with the same parental genotypes
Q3) Which procedure is the least-invasive method of assessing fetal health while development is still occurring?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Chorionic villus sampling
C) Ultrasound
D) Karyotyping
Q4) ______________ is the interaction between the products of two genes in which one of the genes modifies the phenotypic expression produced by the other.
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scientists determined that DNA synthesis is semiconservative?
A) Rosalind Franklin
B) Martha Chase and Frederick Griffith
C) James Watson and Francis Crick
D) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
E) Rachel Carson and Oswald Avery
Q2) Each strand in the double helix is identical to the opposite strand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which London surgeon noted in 1775 that chimney sweeps exhibited frequent cancer of the scrotum?
A) Katsusaburo Yamagiwa
B) John Hill
C) Sir Percivall Pott
D) Ernst Winder
E) Richard Doll
Q4) In DNA,the amount of adenine always equals the amount of thymine,and the amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a gene to be transcribed,the RNA polymerase has to bind to a(n)_____ sequence of nucleotides on the DNA.
A) repressor
B) operon
C) promotor
D) initiator
E) elongation
Q2) A type of DNA sequence that expands access to a gene to promote its expression is a(n)_______________.
Q3) Which of the following is correct about the genetic code?
A) All prokaryotes use one code and all eukaryotes use another.
B) All living things use the same genetic code.
C) Protists use a different code than other kingdoms.
D) Fungi and animals use the same code,but plants use another.
E) Archaea and bacteria use one code and eukarya use another.
Q4) The three nucleotide sequence on mRNA is called an anticodon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis are mRNA,_______________,and ________________.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Q1) One disease in which gene therapy was used,but not successfully yet is:
A) the common cold
B) cystic fibrosis
C) tuberculosis
D) anthrax
Q2) Embryonic stem cells come from embryos specifically made for research.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Transposable elements make up ________ of the human genome.
Q4) When the method is perfected,it will be possible to transfer "healthy" genes into cystic fibrosis patients via aerosol inhalants to "cure" this genetic disease.Is this type of gene transfer an actual cure or is it a treatment? In other words,could this person still pass along cystic fibrosis genes?
Q5) All of the genes and other DNA of an organism constitute its:
A) genome
B) introns
C) multigene family
D) polygenic makeup
Q6) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
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Q7) The percentage of the human genome made up of structural DNA is _________.
Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) Most types of organisms evolve at about the same rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a few survivors of an original population give rise to the next generation of individuals,the genetic sample is small,a phenomenon called a ________________.
Q3) Bees may pick up pollen of one species on a certain place on their bodies;if this area does not come into contact with the receptive structures of the flowers of another plant species,the pollen is not transferred.This is an example of:
A) temporal isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) ecological isolation
D) geographical isolation
Q4) All of the following are examples of vestigial structures except:
A) human gall bladder
B) pelvis in a whale
C) appendix in humans
D) All of these are vestigial.
Q5) What does the fossil record tell us?
Q6) Bats,pterosaurs,and birds are examples of _________ evolution.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of a member of Archaea?
A) Purple bacteria
B) Methanogens
C) Thermophiles
D) Halophiles
Q2) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.
Q3) Cladograms will group birds with reptiles because these groups share:
A) derived characteristics
B) a common ancestor
C) many similar characteristics
D) All of these
Q4) A group of organisms at a particular level in a system of classification is called a(n):
A) taxon
B) ingroup
C) outgroup
D) category
Q5) A _________ is a group of organisms related by their ancestry.
Q6) What does it mean to have a hierarchical system of classification?
Q7) Biologists currently recognize ______ different kingdoms.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) Which of the following is endemic in wild rodents populations of the western United States?
A) Plague
B) Tuberculosis
C) Diphtheria
D) Anthrax
E) Pneumonia
Q2) Lysogenic conversion is responsible for all the following diseases except:
A) scarlet fever
B) plague
C) botulism
D) cholera
E) diphtheria
Q3) Prokaryotes that obtain their energy by oxidizing inorganic substances,such as prokaryotes that oxidize hydrogen sulfide in volcanic vents,are the:
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) photoheterotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
Q4) Are viruses living or nonliving? Explain.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) Protists move by:
A) cilia
B) flagella
C) pseudopods
D) gliding mechanisms
E) all of these.
Q2) Although __________________ evolved many times in different lines of the protists,most protists are single-celled.
Q3) Downy mildews such as Phytophthora infestans belong to this group.
A) Ciliates
B) Cellular slime molds
C) Plasmodial slime molds
D) Water molds
Q4) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is a form of asexual reproduction known as _______________.
Q5) The euglenozoan known as Trypanosoma causes _________ in humans.
A) schistosomiasis
B) malaria
C) tuberculosis
D) sleeping sickness
20
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) When the basidiomycetes undergo sexual reproduction,the product is always a _____,unlike what is found in the other two groups.
A) gamete
B) ascus
C) dikaryotic hypha
D) mycelium
Q2) The fungi that cause athlete's foot and ringworm are members of which group?
A) Ascomycetes
B) Basidiomycetes
C) Zygomycetes
D) Imperfect fungi
Q3) Fungi obtain nutrients by _______________ digestion.
Q4) The _________________ are fungi that have lost the ability to reproduce sexually.
A) ascomycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) zygomycetes
D) imperfect fungi
Q5) A fungal filament in which all the nuclei are genetically similar is said to be a
21
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) Animals in which the anus develops before the mouth in the embryo are:
A) coelomic
B) protostomes
C) deuterostomes
D) coelenterates
Q2) In all coelomates,the coelom originates from _________.
A) endoderm
B) mesoderm
C) ectoderm
D) mesoglea
Q3) Put the following terms in order from first to last in development.
A) morula blastula gastrula zygote
B) zygote morula gastrula blastula
C) zygote morula blastula gastrula
D) blastula zygote gastrula morula
Q4) We see that in the Eumetazoa,one of the advances is toward bilateral symmetry.What kinds of things does bilateral symmetry enable an organism to do?
Q5) What is the advantage to an animal of having extracellular digestion within a gut cavity rather than intracellular digestion?
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) All of the following are correct about birds except:
A) they have a low body temperature
B) they have thin,hollow bones
C) they have large breast muscles
D) they have a fused collarbone
E) their feathers are derived from reptilian scales
Q2) Bony fishes possess a swim bladder to:
A) regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood
B) cleanse the blood from toxins
C) detect changes in water pressure
D) store urine until excreted
E) regulate their buoyancy
Q3) Amniotic eggs evolved as a means to:
A) protect the embryo while the parent sits on the egg
B) protect the embryo from predators
C) allow the parent to gather food,not sit on the nest
D) prevent the embryo from drying out
Q4) The sixth mass extinction event is due to the activity of ____.
Q5) The largest living reptiles ever on earth were the _____________.
Q6) The ___________________ were the flying reptiles of dinosaur times.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) Which is incorrect about anthropoids?
A) They evolved after the prosimians.
B) They were active during the night.
C) They lived in groups.
D) Their direct descendents are the monkeys.
Q2) Homo rudolfensis's brain volume is:
A) 400-550 cm<sup>3</sup>
B) 680 cm<sup>3</sup>
C) 750 cm<sup>3</sup>
D) 1000 cm<sup>3</sup>
Q3) ________________________ is the scientific name of modern man.
Q4) The evolution of __________________ marks the beginning of the hominids.
Q5) What happened between 10 and 5 million years ago that favored the evolution of primates that were bipedal and no longer tree-dwellers?
Q6) Prosimians look like gorillas.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Humans and their direct ancestors,as well as the apes,all make up a group called the ____________________.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Choose the bone or set of bones that belong to the appendicular portion of the human skeleton.
A) Skull
B) Pelvic girdle
C) Vertebral column
D) Ribs
Q2) ___________________ surround the body as a rigid,exterior case,and are exhibited in arthropods.
Q3) The type of cleavage seen in deuterostomes is called _____________ cleavage.
Q4) Groups of cells of the same structure and function are organized into __________.
Q5) Walking and lifting objects all require this type of muscle.
A) Smooth
B) Cardiac
C) Skeletal
Q6) An advantage that deuterostomes have over protostomes is that each embryonic cell retains the capacity to develop into a complete individual.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) In a ___________ circulatory system,blood is pumped by a heart through blood vessels.
Q2) Exchange of nutrients and gases between tissue cells and the blood takes place through the walls of:
A) veins
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
Q3) The fraction of the total volume of the blood that is occupied by red blood cells is called the blood's hematocrit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of the lymphatic system?
A) To return protein to the circulation
B) To transport fats absorbed from the intestine
C) To aid in the body's defenses
D) To carry bacteria and dead blood cells to the lymph nodes and spleen
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Once inside the lymphatic system,tissue fluid is called ______________.
Page 26
Q6) Describe how arteries are adapted to carry high pressure blood.
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) Crosscurrent flow is more efficient than countercurrent flow of air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to the same sites on the hemoglobin molecule at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
Q4) In the presence of carbon dioxide:
A) the formation of bicarbonate causes oxygen to bind more tightly to hemoglobin
B) hemoglobin changes shape,giving up oxygen more readily
C) hemoglobin is not able to bind with bicarbonate
D) hemoglobin dissociates
Q5) The air remaining in the lung after a maximal expiration is the:
A) residual volume
B) vital capacity
C) tidal volume
D) tidal wave
E) vital volume
Q6) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) The first site of protein digestion in the digestive system is:
A) in the small intestines
B) in the stomach
C) the mouth
D) the esophagus
Q2) One main reason kidneys filter the blood is to dispose of:
A) toxic nitrogen-containing by-products of protein metabolism
B) excessive calories in the body
C) toxic levels of glucose
D) excess water
Q3) An example of a trace element in the diet is:
A) cobalt
B) carbohydrates
C) protein
D) calcium
Q4) The optimal diet contains:
A) more carbohydrates than fats
B) the right amount of essential nutrients
C) sufficient calories to supply the body's energy needs
D) All of these
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) One major function of the kidneys is water conservation.What portion of the nephrons is responsible for that function when water is lacking in the diet?
A) Bowman's capsule
B) Glomerulus
C) Loop of Henle
D) Collecting duct
Q2) Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas to lower high blood glucose levels?
A) Insulin
B) Glycogen
C) Glucagon
D) Adrenaline
E) Antidiruetic hormone
Q3) Freshwater fish drink water all the time to compensate for their tendency to lose water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _____________ is the functional unit within the kidney.
Q5) The process of removing and ridding the body of toxic nitrogenous wastes from the blood is called ______________.
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) The ________________ activate the remainder of the immune system responses.
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Natural killer cells
Q2) The main target of the HIV virus is:
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) memory T cells
C) helper T cells
D) B cells
E) red blood cells
Q3) The __________________ involves proteins in the plasma that are activated when bacteria or fungi are present.These puncture holes in the cell walls of invaders.
A) natural killer cell
B) complement system
C) inflammatory response
D) macrophagic defense system
Q4) The ________________ is the outermost layer of skin,consisting of dying,waterproof cells.
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) The left and right hemispheres of the brain are linked by tracts that cross in the area called the:
A) thalamus
B) corpus striatum
C) medulla oblongata
D) corpus callosum
Q2) The simplest nervous system occurs among:
A) cnidarians
B) nematodes
C) platyhelminthes
D) mollusks
E) sponges
Q3) Drug addiction occurs when the central nervous system:
A) adjusts to the increased firing of neurons by reducing the number of membrane receptors in postsynaptic membranes
B) initiates new cell growth that depends on continual input of the drug
C) uses the drug as its sole neurotransmitter
D) stores the drug between neurons in the cerebral cortex for later use
Q4) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q5) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Q1) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the
Q2) Cilia from sensory cells that detect motion are located within the:
A) interior eye
B) semicircular canals
C) upper nasal cavity
D) cochlea
Q3) A lateral line system supplements the _______ sense of hearing.
A) fish's
B) bird's
C) snake's
D) whale's
E) shrew's
Q4) Two senses that detect changes in chemical concentration are:
A) touch and pressure
B) sight and smell
C) hearing and balance
D) taste and smell
Q5) Many fish have a ________________ system with hair cells that sense pressure waves.
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) The adrenal ___________ releases adrenaline and norepinephrine.
Q2) _______________ hormone stimulates the adrenal gland to produce several steroid hormones.
A) Adrenocorticotropic
B) Follicle-stimulating
C) Luteinizing
D) Growth
Q3) _______________ hormone is produced by the four little parathyroid glands.
Q4) ______________ stimulates carbohydrate metabolism and reduces inflammation,and synthetic forms of this hormone have been used as anti-inflammatory agents.
A) ACTH
B) Epinephrine
C) Aldosterone
D) Cortisol
Q5) Tumors of the pituitary gland can produce giants.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is it so important to have several controls over the amount of calcium in the blood?
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The secondary oocyte does not complete the second meiotic division until:
A) ovulation
B) puberty
C) fertilization
D) birth
Q2) Which hormone,secreted by the embryo,is tested for in all pregnancy tests?
A) Luteinizing hormone
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogen
E) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q3) The lining of the uterus builds up,ready for the implantation of a zygote,when?
A) During the follicular phase
B) During ovulation
C) During the luteal phase
D) At any time
Q4) Most mammals,most cartilaginous fish,some amphibians,and a few reptiles have young developing within the female and obtaining nutrients from her blood,a relationship known as ________________.
Q5) What are the advantages of internal fertilization?
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) A ___________ is an opening into the outermost layer of a leaf.
Q2) Why is the evolution of secondary growth important for plants?
Q3) The process by which flowers evolved brighter colors,nectar rewards,and fragrances to attract pollinators that themselves became adapted to certain types of flowers is called:
A) nutrient cycling
B) narrowing niche breadth
C) artificial selection
D) coevolution
Q4) Of what advantage might it be for a plant to produce a seed rather than to be seedless?
Q5) How do the seeds of angiosperms differ from those of gymnosperms?
Q6) A fruit is a mature ripened ______ containing fertilized seeds.
A) ovule
B) cotyledon
C) monocot
D) ovary
Q7) Flower parts are connected to a base called a _____________________.
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Q8) What three features serve to distinguish vascular plants from nonvascular plants?
Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Describe the primary growth of a stem and explain how growth of lateral shoots is suppressed.
Q2) Within the epidermis of leaves are ______________ through which gases,such as carbon dioxide and oxygen,pass.
A) vessel elements
B) trichomes
C) stomata
D) root hairs
Q3) The stalk of a leaf is called the _______________.
Q4) The ______________ of materials moved through the phloem occurs because of water pressure.
A) growth
B) mass flow
C) stoppage
D) inhibition
Q5) Leaflets are part of a more complex leaf called a __________ leaf.
Q6) Explain how scientists believe plants are able to raise water to great heights at the top of the tree.
Q7) ____________ tissue is the outer protective covering of the plant.
Q8) How do plants regulate water loss?
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) The plant response in which stems grow upward and roots grow downward is called:
A) phototropism
B) gravitropism
C) thigmotropism
D) photoperiodism
Q2) Within the embryo sac of the angiosperm,______ nuclei are arranged in precise positions.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Q3) Flowering plants respond to day and night length in part through the pigment ________________,which occurs in two forms.
Q4) The response of plants to touch is known as:
A) phototropism
B) gravitropism
C) thigmotropism
D) photoperiodism
Q5) The first leaves that emerge from a seed are the _________________.
Page 37
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) All of the following are characteristics of an r-selected population except:
A) short life span
B) no parental care
C) extensive homeostatic capacity
D) early age of reproduction
E) many offspring produced
Q2) From the list that follows choose the adaptation characteristic of K-selected populations.
A) Short lifespan
B) High mortality rate
C) Little to no parental care
D) Late age of first reproduction
Q3) The term "ecology" was first used by:
A) Eugene P.Odum
B) Thoreau
C) Charles Darwin
D) Ernst Haeckel
E) Alfred Russell Wallace
Q4) When organisms change their behavior to avoid competition,it is called
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which is incorrect about deep-sea organisms?
A) Some prokaryotes extract energy from hydrogen sulfide.
B) Some prokaryotes are photosynthetic there.
C) Some heterotrophic organisms obtain energy from debris that falls from above.
D) Some prokaryotes live symbiotically within the tissues of heterotrophs that live there.
Q2) When the energy flow through an ecosystem is measured at each trophic level,__________ of the available energy passes from one level to the next.
A) 1% to 2%
B) 5% to 20%
C) 25% to 35%
D) 36% to 45%
E) 46% to 55%
Q3) All of the following are examples of detritivores except:
A) worms
B) vultures
C) fungi
D) arthropods
Q4) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four links?
Q5) Several food chains woven together comprise a ______________.
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) Ample evidence suggests that all animals respond to their environment through instinct and simple innately programmed learning and do not display cognitive behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When Pavlov's dog salivated after hearing a bell,this is called:
A) operant conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) nonassociative learning
D) habituation
Q3) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Q4) A type of selection that favors altruism directed toward relatives is called:
A) kin selection
B) sexual selection
C) group selection
D) mate selection
Q5) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Q6) Discuss the benefits of mate choice.
Q7) Long range two-way movement behavior in animals is termed ___________.
Q8) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) Agricultural chemicals include such things as _________________.
Q2) Which factor is contributing to the worldwide decline in amphibians?
A) Habitat deterioration
B) Fatal infections
C) Introduction of exotic species
D) Chemical pollutants that are toxic
E) All of these are contributing factors.
Q3) Acid precipitation is so deadly because it:
A) changes the pH of the ecosystems it falls into
B) blinds animals
C) increases rates of cancer
D) adheres to breathing passages
Q4) Choose the one environmental problem that you feel is in need of our most immediate attention.Describe the problem and explain why you feel it is the one that is most urgent.
Q5) Our environmental problems can be solved by:
A) proper assessment of the problem
B) public education
C) follow-through
D) All of these
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