Course Introduction
Environmental Biology
Final Test Solutions
Environmental Biology explores the relationships between living organisms and their environments, focusing on how natural systems function and how human activities impact these systems. Students will examine topics such as ecosystem dynamics, biodiversity, population ecology, energy flow, nutrient cycling, and the effects of pollution and climate change. Emphasis is placed on understanding current environmental challenges and exploring sustainable solutions to protect natural resources and maintain ecological balance. Through case studies, laboratory work, and field investigations, students gain practical experience in analyzing environmental issues from both biological and societal perspectives.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus aureus would have which of the following?
A)Nucleus
B)Cell wall and nucleus
C)Cell wall
D)Cell wall and cell membrane
E)Cell membrane and nucleus
Answer: D
Q2) Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that:
A)Asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring
B)Asexual reproduction uses DNA to code for traits in offspring
C)Asexual reproduction occurs only in bacteria
D)Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are virtually identical
E)Asexual reproduction does not occur in animals
Answer: D
Q3) A theory is an advanced hypothesis that has been proven to be true.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the example of ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine,which of the following is not a true statement?
A)Na is the chemical symbol for sodium
B)Chlorine donates an electron
C)Sodium donates an electron
D)Sodium becomes positively charged
E)The bond that is formed is a strong bond
Answer: B
Q2) In making beer,barley is partially fermented to produce malt.Barley is not sweet,but the malt is.What is the best explanation for this observation?
A)Fermentation allows the barley to make simple sugars from sunlight and carbon dioxide
B)Fermentation releases sugars stored in organelles in the barley
C)Fermentation causes the starch in the barley to taste sweet
D)The fermentation breaks starch in the barley down into simple sugars in the malt
E)Fermentation breaks down the simple sugars in the barley
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Members of Archaea are often referred to as extremeophils because they live in conditions of extreme:
A)Temperature
B)Salinity
C)Heat
D)All are correct
Answer: D
Q2) The smallest certifiable living organism is:
A)A bacterium called Mycoplasma
B)A virus
C)A nanobe
D)A protozoan called Giardia
E)All are correct
Answer: A
Q3) Most living cells are small in size because they need a large ratio of surface area to volume.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first and second laws of thermodynamics apply to nonliving systems like gasoline engines but do not apply to reactions in living cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Active transport is different from simple diffusion in that active transport:
A)Requires energy
B)Moves molecules against a concentration gradient
C)Requires proteins embedded within the cell membrane
D)Moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration
E)All are correct
Q3) The energy source that powers the process of photosynthesis is:
A)Water
B)Glucose
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Sunlight
E)Oxygen
Q4) Reduction is the loss of electrons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a plant becomes dried out:
A)stomata close, decreasing gas exchange.
B)stomata open, decreasing gas exchange.
C)stomata close, increasing gas exchange.
D)stomata open, increasing gas exchange.
Q2) The main product of the carbon reactions is:
A)oxygen.
B)NADPH.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)glucose.
E)ATP.
Q3) Tiny openings in the epidermis of the leaf that allow air to enter into the leaf are called:
A)thylakoids.
B)stroma.
C)stomata.
D)grana.
E)thylakoid spaces.
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person is burning only glucose what will be the ratio of oxygen consumed to carbon dioxide produced?
A)1:1
B)1:2
C)2:1
D)6:1
E)1:6
Q2) The enzyme that forms a channel in the inner membrane of the mitochondria and phosphorylates ADP is:
A)ATP Synthase
B)NADH Synthase
C)FADH<sub>2</sub> Synthase
D)ADP Synthase
E)None of these are correct
Q3) Alcoholic fermentation:
A)Is carried out by yeasts
B)Produces far less ATP than aerobic respiration
C)Produces ethanol
D)All are correct
E)Produces carbon dioxide
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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a "nonsense" mutation:
A)The codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B)The codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid specified
C)The codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D)The mutation does not occur in a codon
E)The mutation is not in DNA
Q2) Which of the following is not a common cause of mutation?
A)Errors in replication
B)Events of meiosis
C)Exposure to radiation
D)Exposure to chemical substances
E)Obesity
Q3) FOXP2 sequences were the most different between mice and _____.
A)Rhesus monkeys
B)Gorillas
C)Chimpanzees
D)Humans
E)All had the same number of changes from the mouse sequence
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Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA nitrogen bases that are purines are:
A)Adenine and thymine
B)Adenine and uracil
C)Guanine and thymine
D)Guanine and cytosine
E)Adenine and guanine
Q2) The scientist (scientists)that showed that DNA contained equal amounts of certain nitrogen bases is (are):
A)Chargaff
B)Griffith
C)Hershey and Chase
D)Avery and Macleod
E)Wilkins and Franklin
Q3) The building block of nucleic acids is a(an):
A)Nucleotide
B)Amino acid
C)Glucose molecule
D)Glycerol molecule
E)None of the above are correct
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diploid means having:
A)One complete set of chromosomes
B)Three complete sets of chromosomes
C)Two complete sets of chromosomes
D)Two chromosomes in each somatic cell
E)Two chromosomes in each gamete
Q2) The human chromosomes that do not determine whether an individual is male or female are:
A)Not found in pairs
B)The "X" and "Y" chromosomes
C)Autosomes
D)Called sex chromosomes
E)None of these are correct
Q3) Mitosis occurs in germ cells throughout life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A female missing an X chromosome (XO)would have Turner syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pea plant with (Tt)as its genotype should be referred to as:
A)The wild type
B)Homozygous short
C)Heterozygous tall
D)Homozygous tall
E)Heterozygous short
Q2) If you cross two heterozygous Yy pea plants,what fraction of the offspring will be heterozygous?
A)25%
B)75%
C)50%
D)0%
E)100%
Q3) When Mendel crossed short (tt)pea plants with short pea plants the offspring:
A)Were all tall
B)Were a mix of tall and short
C)Were nonexistent
D)None of these are correct
E)Were all short
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations,this principle has no importance in population studies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females.While the tail feathers are an advantage in mating,what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male?
A)The feathers require a lot of energy to produce
B)Bright feathers make males less susceptible to predation
C)The feathers make the male more attractive to other males
D)There are no disadvantages to having large tail feathers
E)The large tail feathers would make it easier to fly
Q3) "Balanced polymorphism" means that:
A)Many genes that affect the same trait persist indefinitely in a population
B)Multiple alleles of a gene persist indefinitely in a population
C)Only a dominant and recessive allele exist for each trait in a population
D)Many traits persist in a population that are controlled by only a single allele
E)None of the above are correct
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Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) A polyphyletic group is a group of species that exclude the most recent common ancestor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A group consisting of a common ancestor and all of its descendants is a:
A)Species
B)Genus
C)Clade
D)Phylum
E)Order
Q3) A fossil is defined as any evidence of an organism from:
A)At least 500 years ago
B)At least 1000 years ago
C)At least 25,000 years ago
D)At least 10,000 years ago
E)At least 100,000 years ago
Q4) The hypothesis that birds are closely related to small dinosaurs called theropods began with the discovery of the fossilized skeleton of Archaeopteryx.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the definition of a biological species,M.lewisii and M.cardinalis are different species for which reason?
A)If they breed they do not form viable offspring
B)If they breed they do not form fertile offspring
C)They live on different continents
D)They do not breed in the wild
E)They don't look alike
Q2) If a sheep and goat are mated,their offspring dies as an embryo.This is an example of ____ reproductive isolation.
A)prezygotic
B)allopatric
C)sympatric
D)postzygotic
E)parapatric
Q3) Polyploidy is:
A)Common in plant species
B)Common in fungal species
C)Common in animal species
D)Common in bacterial species
E)All are correct
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Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life
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Q1) The "Age of Dinosaurs" lasted about 120 million years and included the:
A)Cambrian and Ordovician periods
B)Jurassic and Cretaceous periods
C)Carboniferous and Permian periods
D)Triassic and Jurassic periods
E)Cretaceous and Tertiary periods
Q2) It is thought that the first multicellular organisms arose about:
A)1.2 billion years ago
B)500 million years ago
C)Two billion years ago
D)3.5 billion years ago
E)Six billion years ago
Q3) During the first 5-600 million years on Earth the atmosphere was primarily methane,ammonia,and hydrogen,much like other planets in our solar system.How would these conditions favor the formation of biological molecules?
A)Many chemical reactions are favored by high temperature and pressure
B)Many chemical reactions are inhibited by high temperature and pressure
C)Oxygen will break down many organic molecules by reduction
D)Oxygen will break down many organic molecules by oxidation
E)Oxygen is necessary to produce many organic molecules
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Chapter 15: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reason or reasons given by scientists as to why viruses are not considered living organisms include:
A)Viruses do not contain genetic information
B)Viruses do not reproduce on their own
C)Viruses are all smaller than the smallest known cells
D)Viruses do not contain a nucleus
E)Viruses can be frozen and still survive
Q2) Viruses always lack which of the following?
A)A plasma membrane
B)Genetic material
C)A protein coat
D)Organelles
Q3) HIV:
A)Is a retrovirus
B)Infects most mammals
C)Can be killed with antibiotics
D)Causes liver cancer
E)Can be transmitted through the skin
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Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rigid barrier that surrounds most prokaryotes is the:
A)Cell membrane
B)Flagellum
C)Glycocalyx
D)Cell wall
E)Cytoplasm
Q2) A prokaryote that occupies a habitat that is extremely salty is a(an):
A)Thermophile
B)Acidophile
C)Halophile
D)Basophile
E)Hydrophile
Q3) As a budding basic scientist you work in a research laboratory and discover a chemical that removes the cell wall from bacteria but leaves the organism undamaged otherwise.Things that the bacteria will lose because of this include:
A)The ability to move
B)The ability to attach to other cells
C)The ability to metabolize
D)The ability to use oxygen
E)The ability to have a gram stain result
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Chapter 17: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason that malaria continues to be the world's most significant infectious disease is because Plasmodium falciparum continues to develop resistance to the drugs that have been used to treat malaria.This is due to which of the following?
A)Some Plasmodium falciparum have pre-existing mutations that make them resistant to antimalarial drugs
B)Some mosquitoes have pre-existing mutations that make them resistant to antimalarial drugs
C)Some people have pre-existing mutations that make them resistant to antimalarial drugs
D)The antimalarial drugs cause mutations to occur in Plasmodium falciparum
E)The antimalarial drugs cause mutations to occur in the mosquito
Q2) The largest algae are:
A)Kelp
B)Diatoms
C)Red algae
D)Golden algae
E)Green algae
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19
Chapter 18: Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The longest wavelength of visible sunlight is:
A)Blue
B)Violet
C)Red
D)Yellow
Q2) In dry weather plants reduce water loss by closing their:
A)Stomata
B)Cuticle
C)Cell membranes
D)Vascular tissues
E)None of the above are correct
Q3) Mosses are an example of which of the following?
A)Autotrophs
B)Primary consumers
C)Detritovores
D)Decomposers
E)Heterotrophs
Q4) In bryophytes the sporophyte is conspicuous or dominant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Fungi
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Q1) The fungus Arthrobotrys anchonia,a carnivorous fungus that forms sacs containing eight spores,belongs to the:
A)Basidiomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Deuteromycota
D)Chytridiomycota
E)Zygomycota
Q2) Ascomycetes are fungi that cause disease and are not beneficial to humans in any way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A mushroom is a structure that is attached to a much larger organism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A)Plants and fungi both carry out photosynthesis
B)Plants and fungi both have cellulose as the main component of their cell walls
C)Glycogen is the main storage carbohydrate in both fungi and plants
D)All are correct
E)Fungi are heterotrophs, but plants are essentially autotrophs
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Animals
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Q1) Earthworms have multiple hearts that pump blood throughout the body in vessels.They also ingest soil,digest the organic matter,and eliminate the indigestible particles as castings.Earthworms have which of the following?
A)An incomplete digestive tract and closed circulatory system
B)A complete digestive tract and open circulatory system
C)A complete digestive tract and closed circulatory system
D)An incomplete digestive tract and open circulatory system
Q2) The free-swimming tunicate larva resembles a tadpole.Once it settles headfirst onto a solid surface the tail and notochord disappear,and the nerve cord shrinks to nearly nothing.The adults,which are usually sessile,retain only the pharyngeal slits.Neither adult nor larva is segmented.Tunicates have which of the following traits?
A)Radial symmetry
B)Asymmetry
C)Cephalization
D)Endothermic
E)Incomplete digestive tract
Q3) Mollusks that have two-part hinged shells are called bivalves.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tissue that produces cells to thicken a root or stem is the:
A)Apical meristem
B)Intercalary meristem
C)Tracheid
D)Vascular bundle
E)Lateral meristem
Q2) On a hot sunny day,which of the following would help protect a plant from water loss?
A)Cuticle and stomata
B)Cuticle
C)Stomata
D)Cuticle and phloem
E)Phloem and stomata
Q3) A potato stores a lot of starch.Which of the following tissues would you expect to be most abundant in a potato?
A)Dermal tissue
B)Vascular tissue
C)Ground tissue
D)Equal amounts of ground and dermal tissue
E)Equal amounts of dermal and vascular tissue
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Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Scientists measured the pressure in the xylem of redwood trees at different heights and found that the higher they made their measurements,the lower the pressure.They extrapolated this to a pressure of zero,and concluded that the tallest a tree could grow is 122-130 meters.The tallest known tree on Earth is 112.7 meters.What assumption were the scientists making to conclude that when pressure was zero the plant could grow no further?
A)Any leaves above that point would not receive any sunlight
B)Any leaves above that point would not receive any water
C)Stems above that point could not transport sugars in their xylem
D)Transpiration would be less than uptake of water from the xylem
E)The turgor pressure would be greater than gravity
Q2) The carnivorous plant that has two-sided leaves,each with highly sensitive trigger hairs that is native to North and South Carolina is:
A)The sundew plant
B)The pitcher plant
C)The Venus flytrap
D)The horsetail
E)The club moss
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) Double fertilization reduces the energetic cost of reproduction.In gymnosperms,the female gametophyte stockpiles food for the embryo in advance of fertilization.The investment is wasted if no zygote ever forms.In contrast,double fertilization ensures that an angiosperm devotes energy to the zygote only if sperm fertilizes egg.What do the sperm fertilize in a double fertilization?
A)The egg
B)Two polar nuclei
C)The egg and two polar nuclei
D)The egg and zygote
E)The zygote
Q2) Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen,seeds and flowers.Why is the production of seeds an advantage?
A)It allows fertilization in the absence of water
B)It protects and nourishes the embryo
C)It is necessary for sexual reproduction
D)It allows fertilization in moist areas
E)It promotes pollination
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Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis
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Q1) The primary function of muscle tissue is:
A)Contraction
B)Absorption
C)Secretion
D)Impulse transmission
E)Compression
Q2) When a blood clot begins to form,the enzyme thrombin is formed.Thrombin then activates the enzymes that produce more thrombin.This is an example of which of the following?
A)Negative feedback
B)Positive feedback
C)Endocrine feedback
D)Nervous feedback
E)Hormonal feedback
Q3) The tissue type that functions in providing support,transport,and insulation is:
A)Epithelial
B)Connective
C)Nervous
D)Muscle
E)All are correct
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) A sleep disorder in which the brain's breathing center briefly quits working is:
A)Insomnia
B)Sleep apnea
C)Narcolepsy
D)Sleeping sickness
E)Stroke
Q2) The division of the nervous system that integrates sensory information and coordinates the body's response is the:
A)Peripheral nervous system
B)Central nervous system
C)Somatic nervous system
D)Autonomic nervous system
E)Sympathetic nervous system
Q3) Why would this lead to paralysis and death?
A)Neurons run out of energy
B)Neurons swell because of increased osmosis
C)Neurons can't recharge
D)Neurons can't fire without a voltage change
E)Neurons cannot release neurotransmitters
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Chapter 26: The Senses Content
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Q1) When you feel the sun on your skin,which of the following is being activated?
A)Mechanoreceptor
B)Photoreceptor
C)Proprioreceptor
D)Thermoreceptor
E)Chemoreceptor
Q2) Based on figure 26.17,changes occurred in ____ to transform invertebrate ____ cells into photoreceptors.
A)r-opsin, ciliary
B)c-opsin, rhabdomeric
C)c-opsin, ciliary
D)r-opsin, rhabdomeric
Q3) In conductive deafness,the middle ear fails to move sound to the inner ear.By amplifying sounds in the auditory canal,the hearing aid moves the _______ more than normal,helping the person hear more clearly.
A)Cochlea
B)Eardrum
C)Oval window
D)Auditory canal
E)Auditory nerve
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Chapter 27: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Prednisone would be most similar to which of the following?
A)Cortisol
B)Insulin
C)TRH
D)Oxytocin
E)Glucagon
Q2) Which of the following could occur in Type 1 diabetes?
A)A decrease in insulin receptors on muscle cells
B)A decrease in blood glucose
C)A decrease in insulin levels inside muscle cells
D)A decrease in insulin secreted by the pancreas
E)A decrease in glucose secreted by muscle cells
Q3) The release of which of the following hormones is usually controlled by positive feedback?
A)Insulin
B)TRH
C)Oxytocin
D)Glucagon
E)None of these are controlled by positive feedback
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Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Bones regulate calcium homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Functions of the vertebrate endoskeleton include:
A)Production of blood cells
B)Production of nerve cells and storage of calcium
C)Storage of calcium
D)Production of blood cells and storage of calcium
E)Production of nerve cells
Q3) Where are blood cells produced?
A)In red marrow inside of bones
B)In yellow marrow inside of bones
C)In joints by chondrocytes
D)In the liver
E)In the spleen
Q4) The process by which an arthropod sheds its exoskeleton in order to grow is called molting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System
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Q1) Blood pressure that is significantly lower than normal is referred to as hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why would exercise help your blood circulation in your legs?
A)As muscles contract they squeeze blood through the veins and increased heart rate pushes more blood into the legs
B)Increased heart rate pushes more blood into the legs
C)As muscles contract they squeeze blood through the veins
D)Exercise increases the amount of red blood cells
E)Exercise increases the amount of red blood cells and increased heart rate pushes more blood into the legs
Q3) A defibrillator contains two paddles that are placed on the chest of a person and an electrical shock is administered.What is this procedure treating?
A)Aneurysm
B)Heart attack due to atherosclerosis
C)Anemia
D)Tachycardia
E)Arrhythmia
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Chapter 30: The Respiratory System
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Q1) The hormone erythropoietin (EPO)stimulates the production of red blood cells.What effect would this have on transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
A)Oxygen transport would increase, carbon dioxide transport would not be affected much
B)Oxygen transport would decrease, carbon dioxide transport would not be affected much
C)Oxygen and carbon dioxide transport would both increase
D)Oxygen transport would decrease, carbon dioxide transport would increase
E)Oxygen transport would increase, carbon dioxide transport would decrease
Q2) Asthma attacks can be treated with bronchodilators.Which of the following would happen in a person using such an inhaler?
A)Smooth muscle cells would contract
B)Smooth muscle cells would relax
C)The diaphragm would relax
D)The diaphragm would contract
E)The alveoli would relax
Q3) A human baby is considered premature if it is born at 37 weeks or earlier.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition
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Q1) If a person has their gall bladder removed they are typically put on a low fat diet.Which of the following would explain this recommendation?
A)Bile acids cannot be produced
B)Bile acids cannot be removed from the intestines
C)Bile acids cannot be released following a meal
D)Lipase cannot be released following a meal
E)Lipase cannot be produced
Q2) Soap is made by oxidizing fats.Bile acids are produced in the body by oxidizing cholesterol.Which of the following is a role of bile acids?
A)Oxidation of fats
B)Enzymatic digestion of proteins
C)Emulsifying fats
D)Neutralizing bases in the intestines
E)Producing acid for the stomach
Q3) The lining of both the stomach and small intestines is protected from digestive enzymes by a mucus secretion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Q1) In humans the muscular tube into which urine from the kidney first drains is the:
A)Urethra
B)Uvula
C)Ureter
D)Urinary bladder
E)Nephron
Q2) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The outer main section of the kidney is the:
A)Renal periphery
B)Renal medulla
C)Renal cortex
D)Glomerulus
E)Collecting duct
Q4) The primary functional unit of a kidney is the glomerulus.
A)True
B)False
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Page 34
Chapter 33: The Immune System
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Q1) The innate chemical defense substance that activates T cells and B cells is:
A)Histamine
B)Complement
C)Interleukin
D)Interferon
E)Epinephrine
Q2) Rh incompatibility is due to an immune reaction to which of the following by a pregnant woman?
A)A self antigen on red blood cells
B)A foreign antibody on red blood cells
C)A foreign antigen on red blood cells
D)A self antibody on red blood cells
Q3) If a child was allergic to a substance scratched onto their skin,the area turned red and swollen within about 10 minutes.Which of the following would cause these symptoms?
A)Release of interleukin-10
B)Recruitment of B cells
C)Release of histamine
D)The presence of flatworms
E)The presence of dust mites
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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) In the male,the tube that extends the length of the penis and carries semen out of the body is the:
A)Ejaculatory duct
B)Ureter
C)Urethra
D)Seminiferous tubule
E)Vas deferens
Q2) The surge of the hormone _______________ in the bloodstream of the female triggers ovulation.
A)FSH
B)LH
C)Estrogen
D)Progesterone
E)GnRH
Q3) The hormone that is the basis of most pregnancy tests is:
A)Follicle stimulating hormone
B)Luteinizing hormone
C)Human chorionic gonadotropin
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
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Chapter 35: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of behavior that cause babies of many animals to back away from a visual cliff is a(an):
A)Learned behavior
B)Innate behavior
C)Observational learning
D)Habituation
E)Both A and D are correct
Q2) Imprinting is a type of innate behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In optimizing foraging,birds must always balance which two variables?
A)Energy taken in per unit time versus the chance of finding a mate
B)Chance of finding a mate versus risk of being eaten by a predator
C)Risk of being eaten by a predator versus the energy density of food
D)Energy taken in per unit time versus risk of being eaten by a predator
E)Chance of finding a mate versus the energy density of food
Q4) Reproducing is a type of innate behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male firefly uses flashes of light to attract mates.A female picking her mate based on these flashes leads to _________.
A)Natural selection
B)Artificial selection
C)Disruptive selection
D)Sexual selection
E)Random selection
Q2) The physical location where an organism lives is termed its:
A)Home boundary
B)Range
C)Habitat
D)Community
E)Ecosystem
Q3) What hypothesis did the scientists test?
A)That the frequency of a male's flashes indicated how healthy he was
B)That a male's flashes may correlate with the number of sperm he produces
C)That females reject males who present them small spermatophores
D)That females cannot determine the size of a male's spermatophore before mating
E)That a male's flashes may correlate with the size of his spermatophore
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Biomagnification usually happens for chemicals that:
A)Dissolve in fat
B)Dissolve in water
C)Are not readily degraded and dissolve in fat
D)Are not readily degraded and dissolve in water
E)Are not readily degraded
Q2) Lichens and mosses that can grow on and erode rock would be considered pioneer species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term abiotic means "nonliving".
A)True
B)False
Q4) In biosphere II,the system did not remain totally self-contained because soil bacteria produced more CO<sub>2</sub> than anticipated requiring oxygen to be pumped in from outside.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: The Biosphere
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Q1) What conclusion was drawn from figure 38.24 a and b?
A)That photosynthesis decreased in all strains of algae at higher temperatures
B)That corals switch from type C to type D symbiotic algae after an El Nino
C)That corals bleach and die after an El Nino
D)That photosynthesis in strain D of algae was not decreased at higher temperatures
E)That El Nino events do not affect corals
Q2) Trees that usually lose only a few leaves at a time are:
A)Deciduous trees
B)Carnivorous trees
C)Maple trees
D)Hickory trees
E)Coniferous trees
Q3) An El Nino brings warm water to the coasts of:
A)Brazil and Argentina
B)Peru and Ecuador
C)Brazil and Chile
D)Ecuador and Brazil
E)Chile and Argentina
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Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity
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Q1) The Montreal Protocol,an international treaty,banned the use of:
A)DDT
B)Steroid hormones
C)ICBMs
D)Ethylene glycol
E)CFCs
Q2) Since the settling of North America by Europeans,only about ___________ percent of the original temperate forest area survives.
A)1
B)5
C)10
D)20
E)25
Q3) The lowest part of Earth's atmosphere is the:
A)Ozone layer
B)Stratosphere
C)Troposphere
D)Ionosphere
E)Limnetic zone
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