Environmental Biology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Biology explores the fundamental principles and processes that govern the interactions between living organisms and their environments. This course examines topics such as ecosystem structure and function, energy flow, nutrient cycles, population dynamics, biodiversity, and conservation. It also addresses the impact of human activities on natural systems, including pollution, habitat destruction, and climate change. Students gain a deeper understanding of environmental issues and the biological concepts necessary for developing sustainable solutions to contemporary environmental challenges.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 8th Edition by George B Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) The entire set of DNA instructions that specifies a cell is called its __________.
Answer: genome
Q2) We have all heard that dietary fats are linked to higher incidences of heart disease and cancer in humans.Choose the proper hypothesis that a scientist could test.
A)Eating more meat causes cancer.
B)Eating a diet of lard makes you fat.
C)Dietary fat,heart disease,and cancer are all somehow interrelated.
D)Fat levels above 30% of calories in the diet are correlated with an increase in heart disease.
Answer: D
Q3) The information that determines what an organism will be like is stored in the _____________ molecule.
Answer: DNA
Q4) A collection of related hypotheses that have been shown to be true after extensive testing can be collectively called a _________.
Answer: theory
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atomic mass refers to the numbers of ___________ and __________ of an atom.
Answer: protons,neutrons
Q2) The mass number of an atom is the:
A)number of neutrons only.
B)the number of electrons plus the number of protons.
C)the number of protons only.
D)the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
E)the number of electrons,plus the number of neutrons,plus the number of protons.
Answer: D
Q3) Discuss the difference between covalent,ionic and hydrogen bonds.
Answer: Covalent bonds involve sharing electrons between atoms.Ionic bonds occur when oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other.Hydrogen bonds occur when polar molecules are attracted by opposite partial charges on different molecules.
Q4) The chemical bond within a water molecule is a ______ bond.
Answer: covalent
Q5) Cells contain chemical substances called ____________ that minimize changes in concentrations of H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.
Answer: buffers
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A)covalent
B)ionic
C)hydrogen
D)There are no bonds connecting the chains.
Answer: C
Q2) Making and breaking molecules in the body require the aid of ____________ to help the reactions proceed.
A)heat
B)water
C)blood
D)enzymes
Answer: D
Q3) The final three-dimensional shape of a protein is its ____________ structure.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) Which of the following causes a dividing cell to pinch in two by contracting like a purse string?
A)Microtubles
B)Actin filaments
C)Intermediate filaments
D)Centrioles
E)Pili
Q2) ____________ is the minimum distance two points can be apart and still be distinguished as two separate points.
Q3) The phospholipids of a cell membrane are arranged into a ________________.
Q4) Cilia and flagella differ from each other primarily in:
A)function
B)length
C)internal structure
D)internal chemistry
Q5) Discuss the functions of the cytoskeleton of the cell.
Q6) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q7) Explain an instance when a membrane defect can cause a disease.
Q9) Why are most cells so tiny? Page 6
Q8) In eukaryotic cells,DNA is divided into long segments called
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) Explain the components of an ATP molecule.
Q2) All cells convert the potential energy found in food molecules into ATP through:
A)cellular respiration
B)photosynthesis
C)feedback inhibition
D)entropy
E)catalysis
Q3) Objects that are not actively moving but have the capacity to do so are said to possess:
A)kinetic energy
B)potential energy
C)entropy
D)living energy
Q4) Objects that are moving are said to possess:
A)kinetic energy
B)potential energy
C)entropy
D)living energy
Q5) The study of energy is called _____________.
Q6) Do all cells contain the same enzymes? Support your answer.
Page 8
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Q1) The molecule that supplies energy in the body is ___________.
Q2) After the phosphate bonds are broken in ATP in the Calvin cycle,what happens to the ADP?
A)It evaporates from the cell
B)It is used in cellular respiration
C)It breaks down further into AMP plus phosphate
D)It is recycled back to the light-dependent reactions
E)It is re-used again in the Calvin cycle,losing another phosphate
Q3) When carbon dioxide is low in the leaf,the Calvin cycle cannot proceed efficiently and the result is
A)light-independent reactions.
B)shutting down photosynthesis.
C)photorespiration.
D)cellular respiration.
Q4) Stoma open at night in plants that use _______ photosynthesis.
Q5) The full range of energy in sunlight can best be described as
A)electromagnetic radiation.
B)visible light.
C)ultraviolet light.
D)infrared radiation.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) Describe how adding a phosphate to ATP or removing a phosphate group from ATP stores or releases energy.
Q2) Cellular respiration
A)oxidizes glucose and reduces oxygen.
B)oxidizes oxygen and reduces glucose.
C)releases energy and reduces water.
D)requires energy and releases NADH.
E)releases energy and oxygen.
Q3) Most of the carbon dioxide that is made during aerobic respiration is from A)glycolysis.
B)the Krebs cycle.
C)the electron transport chain.
D)the Calvin cycle.
E)chemiosmosis.
Q4) How many net ATP are made in glycolysis?
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutated proto-oncogenes become cancer-causing genes called _________.
Q2) Which is incorrect about p53?
A)It is a protein that monitors the integrity of DNA.
B)It can direct a cell to kill itself.
C)It stimulates the activity of DNA repair enzymes.
D)If nonfunctioning,cells become cancerous.
E)It is routinely given as a cancer therapy.
Q3) If cell division is no longer possible,eukaryotes can arrest the cell cycle.During which stage is this decision made?
A)S phase
B)G<sub>2</sub>
C)G<sub>1</sub>
D)Telophase
E)Prophase
Q4) Why is mitosis also referred to as karyokinesis?
Q5) Why do eukaryotic cells have to undergo the individual steps of mitosis while prokaryotic cells can merely pull in half by binary fission?
Q6) Genes known as _________ encode proteins that stimulate cell division.
Q7) Describe what occurs during prophase of mitosis.
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) In humans,gametes are _______,while somatic cells are ________.
A)diploid,diploid
B)haploid,diploid
C)haploid,haploid
D)haploid,triploid
E)triploid,haploid
Q2) The main difference between prophase I and II is that in prophase I:
A)synapsis and crossing over occurs
B)the nucleolus disappears
C)the nuclear membrane disappears
D)chromosomes coil
E)the spindle forms
Q3) Meiosis is also known as reduction division.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After meiosis,the gamete joins with another gamete in all eukaryotic organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) An individual is said to be _____________ if it has two copies of the same factor for a given trait.
Q2) Gregor Mendel's work was different from that of other researchers working on inheritance in his day because he alone:
A)was a religious man
B)worked with pea plants
C)knew how to grow plants
D)actually counted the numbers and types of offspring
Q3) Human height shows a continuous variation from the very short to the very tall.Height is most likely controlled by:
A)epistatic genes
B)sex-linked genes
C)mutations
D)multiple genes
Q4) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?
Q5) When a gene is carried on one of the sex chromosomes,it is said to be
Q6) A dominant human genetic disorder that does not reveal itself until middle age is
13
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Chapter 11: DNA: the Genetic Material
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Q1) Which scientists determined that DNA synthesis is semiconservative?
A)Rosalind Franklin
B)Martha Chase and Frederick Griffith
C)James Watson and Francis Crick
D)Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
E)Rachel Carson and Oswald Avery
Q2) The enzyme that joins the ends of newly synthesized segments of DNA after the primers have been removed is:
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA polymerase
C)helicase
D)primase
E)RNA ligase
Q3) The place where the parent DNA molecule becomes unzipped for replication is called the ___________________.
Q4) Which type of mutation will have the most evolutionary consequence?
A)A mutation in a lung cell
B)A mutation in a kidney cell
C)A mutation in a stomach cell
D)A mutation in a germ-line cell
Page 14
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) When mRNA leaves the cell's nucleus,it next becomes associated with:
A)tRNA
B)endoplasmic reticulum
C)a ribosome
D)proteins
Q2) A(n)____________ is a piece of DNA with a group of genes that are transcribed together as a unit.
A)promoter
B)repressor
C)operator
D)operon
Q3) The genetic code is a ____________ code.
Q4) The three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis are mRNA,_______________,and ________________.
Q5) The primary RNA transcript is:
A)tRNA before it forms its hairpin loops
B)rRNA before it forms the ribosome
C)mRNA after the introns have been removed
D)mRNA before the introns have been removed
E)mRNA before the exons have been removed
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Chapter 13: Genomics and Biotechnology
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Q1) What are some of the benefits of transferring genes from one organism to another?
Q2) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
Q3) In gene transfer procedures,why is it necessary to use processed mRNA molecules to make DNA to transfer to another organism?
Q4) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q5) What is the correct order of events for sequencing DNA?
Q6) When the method is perfected,it will be possible to transfer "healthy" genes into cystic fibrosis patients via aerosol inhalants to "cure" this genetic disease.Is this type of gene transfer an actual cure or is it a treatment? In other words,could this person still pass along cystic fibrosis genes?
Q7) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?
Q8) How do you feel about cloning? Explain your position in the light of science.
Q9) Explain how genomic imprinting works.
Q10) Do you feel there is any harm in cloning mammals? Why? Why not?
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) Choose the phrase that best represents macroevolutionary change.
A)Darker skin after hours spent in a tanning booth
B)Changes in allele frequency in a population
C)New forms of animals replacing older ones
D)Major episodes of extinction
Q2) The notion that organisms that are more distantly related should have time to accumulate more biochemical differences than those more closely related can best be illustrated using:
A)radioactive isotope dating
B)gel electrophoresis
C)a geologic time scale
D)a molecular clock
Q3) New gene variations are constantly being introduced into populations through random mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p<sup>2</sup> +2pq + q<sup>2</sup>,describe what each genotype is represented by each member of the equation.
Q5) What is the process of natural selection?
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Q1) The person responsible for the current scheme for grouping organisms is:
A)Aristotle
B)Linnaeus
C)Darwin
D)Malthus
Q2) The highest,most inclusive level of our current classification scheme is
Q3) Mitochondria are present in organisms in the following kingdoms except:
A)Plantae
B)Fungi
C)Protista
D)Archaea
E)Animalia
Q4) _______________ is the study of the evolutionary relationships among a group of organisms.
A)Logistics
B)Statistics
C)Clastistics
D)Systematics
Q5) Of all the hundreds of varieties of dogs,all belong to the same __________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: the First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) Vibrio cholerae usually exists in a harmless form until:
A)a bacteriophage introduces a gene that codes for the cholera toxin
B)mutations cause the normal proteins to form a toxin causing cholera
C)the lytic cycle destroys the host cells
D)a bacteriophage introduces a gene that codes for the botulism toxin
Q2) ______________ consist of a core of segments of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat.
A)Viruses
B)Protists
C)Bacteria
D)Archaea
Q3) All of the following are correct about biofilms except:
A)They are found on teeth.
B)They can form on contact lenses.
C)They are an association of bacterial cells that form on a substrate.
D)They are not associated with disease.
E)They can protect the bacteria from disinfectants and drugs.
Q4) ____________________ is a disease of the respiratory tract caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Q5) Are viruses living or nonliving? Explain.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) The majority of protists reproduce ________ most of the time.
A)sexually
B)asexually
C)by parthenogenesis
D)by self-fertilization
E)by making eggs
Q2) Related to the amoebas,these usually unicellular creatures are able to aggregate under times of stress.
A)Ciliates
B)Cellular slime molds
C)Plasmodial slime molds
D)Water molds
Q3) Unicellular,photosynthetic protists with two flagella of unequal length belong to this group.
A)Foraminifera
B)Dinoflagellates
C)Choanoflagellates
D)Euglenoids
Q4) A(n)__________ is a transient collection of individuals that come together for a time.
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) The fungus from which penicillin is derived belongs to the _____________.
Q2) The morels and truffles belong to which group?
A)ascomycetes
B)basidiomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)imperfect fungi
Q3) Which of the following important characteristics distinguish simple multicellular organisms from complex multicellular ones?
A)Cell membrane transport proteins
B)Cell specialization
C)Ability of individual cells to divide by mitosis
D)Ability of part of the organism to do meiosis
E)Having a cell wall
Q4) A fungal filament in which all the nuclei are genetically similar is said to be a
Q5) The symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi is called
Q6) How are fungi used by humans?
Q7) Why might multicellularity be advantageous to an organism?
Q8) The slender filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) Heartworm infection in dogs and cats are caused by a parasitic _____ that infests the heart of the animal.
A)flatworm
B)rotifer
C)roundworm
D)segmented worm
E)echinoderm
Q2) The first animal group to show extracellular digestion was the: A)sponges
B)cnidarians
C)flatworms
D)roundworms
Q3) The three distinct cell layers that form in an embryo are the ectoderm,_____________________ and ___________________.
Q4) Chordates can be characterized as having:
A)a notochord
B)a nerve cord
C)bilateral symmetry
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Evolution of a body cavity is important for several reasons.List three.
Page 23
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) What was the climate like during the Cenozoic era after dinosaurs went extinct and mammals began to diversify?
A)Becoming warmer and subtropically moist
B)Stayed the same as in the Paleozoic era
C)Becoming hot and dry,with great desert expansion
D)Cooling off,with glaciers forming
Q2) The ___________________ were the flying reptiles of dinosaur times.
Q3) Bony fish have a sensory system located along the sides of their bodies called the ___________________________.
Q4) Amphibians gave rise to the successful land dwellers,the _____________,about 300 million years ago.
Q5) What feature allows mammals to have a high metabolic rate,enabling them to be active day and night?
A)Four-chambered heart
B)Diaphragm
C)Hair for insulation
D)All of these are correct.
Q6) The sixth mass extinction event is due to the activity of ____.
Q7) The largest living reptiles ever on earth were the _____________.
Page 24
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) The hallmark characteristic of the hominids leading to humans was the development of:
A)a varied diet
B)bipedalism
C)the ability to care for young
D)an opposable thumb
Q2) The continent of origin for Homo habilis is believed to be ______________.
Q3) The ____________________ made diverse tools,including spearheads and hand axes,and lived in huts or caves.
Q4) Which is incorrect about Neanderthals?
A)They made diverse tools.
B)They were named after the Neander Valley of Germany.
C)They abruptly disappeared from the fossil record about 34,000 years ago.
D)They interbred with the modern humans that replaced them.
E)They were replaced by Cro-Magnons.
Q5) Modern Homo sapiens arose in:
A)Europe,the Neander Valley
B)Asia
C)North America
D)Africa
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) The outer layer of bone,referred to as _______________,is dense and strong.
A)cortex
B)medulla
C)compact bone
D)spongy bone
Q2) Groups of cells of the same structure and function are organized into __________.
Q3) Which of the following is not a class of tissue?
A)Epithelial
B)Connective
C)Spongy
D)Muscle
E)Nerve
Q4) A type of connective tissue,called __________________,stores fat.
A)adipose tissue
B)blood
C)plasma
D)cartilage
Q5) Describe the nature and function of connective tissues.
Q6) Explain how calcium is needed for muscle contraction.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) Mollusks and arthropods have closed circulatory systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these is not a characteristic of an open circulatory system?
A)Found in mollusks and arthropods.
B)Contains hemolymph.
C)There is no distinction between blood and interstitial fluid or lymph.
D)Blood is enclosed within blood vessels.
Q3) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
Q4) Generally speaking,gills are never complex structures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Megakaryocytes:
A)are important in the immune response
B)produce fibrin for blood clotting
C)give rise to platelets
D)carry carbon dioxide in the blood
Q6) Describe how arteries are adapted to carry high pressure blood.
Q7) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
Page 27
Q8) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) On a statistical basis,smoking a single cigarette lowers your life expectancy:
A)5 minutes
B)10.7 minutes
C)35 minutes
D)2 hours
E)24 hours
Q2) Which mineral in hemoglobin combines with oxygen in a reversible way?
A)Nitrogen
B)Calcium
C)Iron
D)Zinc
E)Sodium
Q3) Which of the following possess gills?
A)Snails
B)Sea cucumber
C)Sea star
D)Guppies
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The __________,which acts as a brake on cell division,was discovered in studying the eye cancer retinoblastoma.
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Humans excrete their excess nitrogenous wastes as:
A)uric acid crystals
B)compounds containing protein
C)very toxic ammonia
D)relatively nontoxic urea
Q2) The hormone ________ regulates the synthesis of HCl by parietal cells.
A)gastrin
B)insulin
C)pepsin
D)glucagons
Q3) One main reason kidneys filter the blood is to dispose of:
A)toxic nitrogen-containing by-products of protein metabolism
B)excessive calories in the body
C)toxic levels of glucose
D)excess water
Q4) It is possible to determine the nature of an animal diet just by looking at the teeth of the animal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
Page 30
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) All of the following are endothermic except:
A)fish
B)rabbits
C)pigeon
D)mice
E)turkey
Q2) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called __________________.
Q3) Mammals and amphibians are the only vertebrates that produce urine that is hypertonic to their body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood flows into the ______________ and components of plasma are forced through the walls of this specialized capillary into the nephron.
A)Bowman's capsule
B)glomerulus
C)loop of Henle
D)collecting duct
Q5) In flatworms,protonephridia branch throughout the body into bulblike
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) The two major phagocytic cells of the body are:
A)macrophages and neutrophils
B)B cells and T cells
C)mast cells and natural killer cells
D)B cells and neutrophils
E)plasma cells and monocytes
Q2) Why has finding an effective AIDS vaccine been so difficult?
A)Because it is caused by a virus.
B)Because they have not yet isolated the virus that causes AIDS.
C)Because the virus constantly mutates and so vaccines need to be made for all types.
D)The body does not make antibodies against the virus.
E)It is a sexually transmitted virus.
Q3) __________ is a type of an allergic response in which the release of histamines triggers breathing passages to become narrow.
Q4) The type of cells that target body cells infected by viruses are:
A)macrophages
B)natural killer cells
C)monocytes
D)eosinophils
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) The part of the brain that integrates internal activities is the:
A)thalamus
B)hypothalamus
C)cerebellum
D)pituitary gland
Q2) Which part of the brain regulates body temperature,blood pressure,respiration and heartbeat?
A)Medulla oblongata
B)Hypothalamus
C)Amygdala
D)Occipital lobe
E)Cerebellum
Q3) Drug addiction occurs when the central nervous system:
A)adjusts to the increased firing of neurons by reducing the number of membrane receptors in postsynaptic membranes
B)initiates new cell growth that depends on continual input of the drug
C)uses the drug as its sole neurotransmitter
D)stores the drug between neurons in the cerebral cortex for later use
Q4) Instead of having synapses between two nerves cells,why not just "wire" the two cells together somehow?
33
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The light that passes through the pupil is focused by the lens on the:
A)iris
B)sclera
C)retina
D)lens
E)choroids
Q2) Two senses that detect changes in chemical concentration are:
A)touch and pressure
B)sight and smell
C)hearing and balance
D)taste and smell
Q3) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the ___________.
Q4) The sensory receptors that sense changes in the body's internal environment are called _______________.
Q5) There are _____ kinds of cone cells that allow us to see colors.
A)3
B)10
C)200
D)600
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive alcohol and caffeine consumption stimulate antidiuretic hormone and promote water retention.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The adrenal glands are located:
A)at the base of the neck
B)on the kidneys
C)in the brain
D)in the testes
E)attached to the thyroid gland
Q3) _______________ hormone stimulates the male gonads to produce testosterone and triggers ovulation in females.
A)Adrenocorticotropic
B)Follicle-stimulating
C)Luteinizing
D)Growth
Q4) Explain how blood glucose is kept constant through the actions of hormones.
Q5) Tumors of the pituitary gland can produce giants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) __________________ is the male sex hormone,responsible for secondary sexual characteristics.
Q2) Sperm,together with the secretions from several other glands,is referred to as _____________.
Q3) In humans,how many ova are produced from one primary oocyte?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)8
Q4) The muscular ring at the base of the uterus is the ___________.
Q5) What stage of embryonic development implants in the lining of the uterus?
A)Blastocyst
B)Morula
C)Zygote
D)After the development of a coelom
Q6) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?
Q7) Sequential hermaphroditism among coral reef fish in which an individual is first female,then male is called _______________.
Q9) What are the advantages of internal fertilization? Page 36
Q8) Why are the testes suspended outside the body in humans?
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) Which phyla lacks a vascular system?
A)Pterophyta
B)Gnetophyta
C)Ginkgophyta
D)Hepaticophyta
E)Arthophyta
Q2) A common name for secondary plant growth in stems is ________.
Q3) The first seed plants were the:
A)ferns
B)gymnosperms
C)angiosperms
D)monocots
Q4) The symbiotic relationship with fungi called mycorrhizae:
A)allow plants to take up minerals such as phosphorus
B)cause disease in the infected plant
C)only benefit the fungus
D)existed only millions of years ago
Q5) The ______________________________ occurs when a gametophyte generation alternates with a sporophyte generation.
Page 38
Q6) Why is the evolution of secondary growth important for plants?
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Of the nutrients needed for plant growth,active uptake of __________ regulates turgor pressure within cells of leaves.
A)carbon dioxide
B)oxygen
C)ions
D)nitrogen
Q2) ________________ occur on root cells near root tips to help take up water and nutrients from the soil.
Q3) Describe the mechanism in which stomata open and close.
Q4) The growing center that gives rise to thick accumulations of secondary xylem and phloem is the:
A)vascular cambium
B)cork cambium
C)lateral meristem
D)apical meristem
Q5) Leaf blades grow larger as a result of cell division in the:
A)apical meristems
B)marginal meristems
C)lateral meristems
D)All of these are correct.
39
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) P<sub>r</sub> changes to P<sub>fr</sub> after absorbing ____________ nm wavelength of light.
Q2) The house plant Kalanchoe daigremontiana produces ____________ to reproduce asexually.
A)runners
B)adventitious plantlets
C)suckers
D)rhizomes
Q3) The plant response in which stems grow upward and roots grow downward is called:
A)phototropism
B)gravitropism
C)thigmotropism
D)photoperiodism
Q4) Give an example of a wind-pollinated plant._____________________
Q5) It is now thought that __________ causes _____________ synthesis and this latter hormone is responsible for causing leaves to fall from trees.
A)auxin;cytokinin
B)cytokinin;gibberellin
C)abscisic acid;ethylene
D)gibberellin;ethylene
Page 40
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) The principle of competitive exclusion states that no two species with the same niche can coexist indefinitely when resources are limiting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A tropical forest and desert would be examples of:
A)communities
B)biomes
C)biospheres
D)populations
E)ecosystem
Q3) If you remove mountain lions from their habitat and the diversity of other species decreases,the mountain lion was likely a:
A)carnivore
B)producer
C)predator
D)commensal species
E)prey
Q4) ______________ are the fundamental units of ecology.
Q5) ______________ occurs when one organism physically resembles another.
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) Why would few reptiles be found in the tundra?
Q2) Biological magnification can lead to high levels of mercury and lead in organisms higher in the food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four links?
Q4) All of the following are correct about oligotrophic lakes except:
A)they have an abundance of minerals and organic material
B)they are often deeper than eutrophic lakes
C)their deep water is rich in oxygen
D)they are highly susceptible to pollution from fertilizer runoff
E)they are highly susceptible to detergent and sewage contamination
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical habitat in which organisms live?
A)Rocks
B)Water
C)Wind
D)Bacteria
Q6) A _________________ in a community is made up of the organisms feeding at the same number of steps away from the Sun.
Page 42
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Q2) Discuss the benefits of mate choice.
Q3) This behavioral ecologist pioneered study of seagull nesting behavior.
A)Lorenz
B)Tinbergen
C)Wilson
D)von Frisch
Q4) Animals navigate by using two senses.One is called map sense and the other is called compass sense.Map sense is ____________;compass sense is
A)the learned ability to move in a particular direction;an innate ability to adjust a bearing depending on the animal's location
B)the learned ability to adjust a bearing depending on the animal's location;an innate ability to move in a particular direction
Q5) ________ is altering behavior as a result of previous experience.
Q6) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Q7) Behavior can be defined as the way an animal responds to a ________ in its environment.
Q8) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) Among the non-renewable resources we must protect is:
A)topsoil
B)rainfall
C)trees
D)lichens
Q2) The pH of rain and snow in the eastern United States is now:
A)10
B)7
C)2
D)4.2
Q3) The wealthiest 20% of the world's population consumes _________% of its resources.
Q4) As an alternative to fossil fuels,many countries (aside from the United States)are turning to ________________ as a way to provide energy.
Q5) The greenhouse effect is due to high levels of which gas in the environment?
A)Nitrogen
B)Ammonia
C)Carbon monoxide
D)Carbon dioxide
E)Oxygen
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