Course Introduction
Environmental Biology Exam Review
Environmental Biology explores the complex relationships between living organisms and their natural surroundings, emphasizing ecosystem dynamics, biodiversity, and the impact of human activities on the environment. The course covers topics such as energy flow, nutrient cycling, population ecology, and environmental adaptation, along with contemporary issues like pollution, climate change, conservation, and sustainable resource management. Through an integrated approach, students gain an understanding of ecological principles and the scientific basis for evaluating environmental challenges, fostering critical thinking and responsible decision-making for the stewardship of natural resources.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions.One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web.Later that day,a bird eats the spider.How many producers are there is this scenario?-13
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Answer: A
Q2) Domain _______________ includes both unicellular and multicellular organisms.
A) Eukarya
B) Bacteria
C) Protista
D) Fungi
E) Plantae
Answer: A
Q3) The development of new technologies is based upon science.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are caring for the freshwater aquarium of a friend while they are on vacation.You are told to check the pH of the tank and make sure that it stays between 6.5 and 7.0.In order to ensure that you do not have to worry about the pH you
A) treat the fish and the tank with aspirin.
B) add NaOH so that changes in the tank are calculated.
C) add HCl so that you can track the changes in the tank's pH.
D) do nothing since the pH will not change unless you do something wrong and you plan to follow the directions exactly.
E) add a buffer so changes in pH are minimized.
Answer: E
Q2) A covalent bond involves the sharing of A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) pairs of protons.
D) at least 3 electrons.
E) pairs of electrons.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "primary structure" of a protein refers to
A) the interactions among two or more polypeptides.
B) the alpha helix or pleated sheets.
C) the side groups of the amino acids.
D) the number and sequence of amino acids.
E) the DNA nucleotide sequence that coded for it.
Answer: D
Q2) Which one of the following is a function of proteins?
A) energy storage
B) enzymatic activity
C) genetic coding
D) energy source
E) insulation
Answer: B
Q3) A polypeptide forms a pleated sheet or a helix as its tertiary structure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a possible function of the extracellular matrix in animal cells?
A) enables cells to migrate along intracellular fibers
B) permit communication between the extracellular matrix and the cells
C) creates a variety of consistencies for cells to live in from flexible cartilage to solid bone
D) helps cells have flexibility
E) produce numerous channels for continuous flow of water from cells to cells.
Q2) The nucleus is a double membrane that encloses the DNA.Inside the nucleus the DNA acts as the template to produce mRNA and ribosomes; to exit the nucleus these molecules must
A) diffuse through the double membrane into the cytoplasm.
B) pass through carrier proteins which use ATP to transport the molecules.
C) attach to carrier molecules that carry them through the membrane.
D) pass through pores that span both membranes.
E) be transported across the two membranes by means of vesicles.
Q3) The plasma membrane's hydrophilic part faces the outside of the cell and the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes are able to speed up the rate of a reaction by
A) carrying substrates closer together.
B) binding substrates to a membrane.
C) producing more enzymes.
D) lowering the energy needed for the reaction to proceed.
E) producing more substrate.
Q2) The part of the enzyme into which the substrate fits is called the A) feedback site.
B) active site.
C) substrate location.
D) inhibitor.
E) solute.
Q3) Which of the following terms best describes entropy?
A) order
B) disorder
C) potential energy
D) kinetic energy
E) energy conversions
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Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Q1) ATP and NADPH are both used during the Calvin cycle.What is the function of each?
A) ATP supplies energy and NADPH supplies electrons for reducing power.
B) ATP supplies energy and NADPH fixes CO<sub>2</sub> so it can enter the cycle.
C) Both ATP and NADPH supply energy to the Calvin cycle.
D) NADPH supplies energy and ATP supplies electrons for reducing power.
E) ATP and NADPH are joined into the starter molecule, RuBP, to form glucose.
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes CO<sub>2</sub> fixation in a C3 plant?
A) Rubisco combines CO<sub>2</sub> with RuBP to form a 6-carbon compound that then breaks down into two 3-carbon compounds.
B) Rubisco combines CO<sub>2</sub> with a 2-carbon compound to form G3P.
C) Rubisco combines CO<sub>2</sub> with a 2-carbon compound to form 3PG, which is then reduced to G3P.
D) Rubisco combines 6 CO<sub>2</sub> molecules to form RuBP, which breaks down into two 3-carbon compounds.
E) Rubisco combines 3 CO<sub>2</sub> molecules to form 3PG, which is then reduced to G3P.
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Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Q1) Your friend has been on a diet and loses 15 pounds of fat.After studying cellular respiration how can you explain the weight loss,where did the weight go (how was it lost)?
A) It was released as carbon dioxide and water.
B) It was converted to ATP which weighs much less than fat.
C) It was broken down into amino acids and eliminated from the body.
D) It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body.
E) It was released as oxygen and water.
Q2) When you exhale what two stages of cellular respiration produce the carbon dioxide you are breathing out?
A) preparatory reaction and citric acid cycle
B) preparatory reaction and electron transport chain
C) citric acid cycle and electron transport chain
D) glycolysis and preparatory reaction
E) glycolysis and citric acid cycle
Q3) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
A) cytoplasm
B) mitochondrion
C) matrix of mitochondrion
D) cristae of mitochondrion
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many growth factors are classified as which of the following?
A) oncogenes
B) proto-oncogenes
C) tumor suppressors
D) mutant tumor suppressors
E) signal transduction pathway proteins
Q3) Which cancer therapy can lead to side effects such as nausea and hair loss?
A) chemotherapy
B) surgery
C) hormonal therapy
D) drug therapy
E) All of these can lead to nausea and hair loss.
Q4) Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual
Reproduction
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Q1) Which statement best describes how the members of a tetrad are separated during meiosis I?
A) The two homologous chromosomes of a tetrad separate into different daughter nuclei.
B) The sister chromatids of each chromosome separate into different daughter nuclei.
C) The nonsister chromatids of each tetrad separate into different daughter nuclei.
D) The two homologous chromosomes of a tetrad separate into one of two daughter nuclei.
E) The two homologous chromosomes of a tetrad are duplicated and separate into each daughter nucleus.
Q2) Down syndrome is associated with which of the following karyotypes?
A) 47, XXY
B) 47, XXX
C) 46, XY
D) 47, XY, trisomy 21
E) 45, XO
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A homozygous red-eyed female Drosophila mates with a red-eyed male Drosophila.What proportion of the female offspring will have white eyes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) Which genetic disorder is associated with an irregular shape of the red blood cells?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Marfan syndrome
C) Huntington disease
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
E) Cystic fibrosis (CF)
Q3) Alleles that are linked on the same chromosome will assort independently during Meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology
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Q1) The central dogma of molecular biology states that the information contained within genes flows in which direction?
A) DNA to DNA to protein
B) mRNA to DNA to protein
C) DNA to mRNA to protein
D) DNA to tRNA to mRNA to protein
E) DNA to rRNA to protein
Q2) Using three bases to represent each amino acid in a polypeptide
A) ensures that all amino acids are represented at least once by the code.
B) ensures that other organisms can read the code too.
C) ensures that DNA can replicate properly.
D) prevents the wrong amino acid from being incorporated into a protein.
E) prevents early termination of transcription.
Q3) The information contained within a gene is not directly copied into which of the following chemical forms?
A) tRNA, rRNA
B) mRNA, tRNA
C) rRNA, protein
D) mRNA, protein
E) tRNA, protein
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sequences of events in the production of recombinant DNA are in the correct order?
A) cut DNA with restriction enzymes, mix DNA with plasmid DNA, add DNA ligase
B) mix DNA with plasmid DNA, cut with restriction enzymes, add DNA ligase
C) add DNA ligase, cut DNA with restriction enzymes, mix DNA with plasmid DNA
D) mix DNA with plasmid DNA, add DNA ligase, cut with restriction enzymes
E) cut with restriction enzymes, add DNA ligase, mix DNA with plasmid DNA
Q2) How can comparative genomics assist in the treatment of HIV?
A) The genome of HIV can now be compared to the human genome to find similarities between the two.
B) Knowing the genome of HIV allows for the manufacture of designer drugs to treat specific strains.
C) Understanding the genetic code of HIV allows scientists to replicate it in the laboratory.
D) Understanding the evolution of HIV in an individual will help scientists understand how the virus responds to different drug regimes and will lead to better treatments.
E) Knowing the proteins produced by HIV will allow the development of drugs to mimic those proteins.
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are a genetic counselor,and a man with the translocation shown in the figure is your client.He and his partner (who has a normal karyotype)wish to have children.You explain to him that the probability of having a child with the same translocation as the father is
A) 0%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 75%.
E) 100%.
Q2) Mutant gene alleles associated with known genetic disorders can be detected using DNA microarray analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A known abnormality in a gene's sequence that can be linked to a genetic disease is called a(n)
A) genetic profile.
B) enzyme.
C) genetic marker.
D) DNA microarray.
E) genomic DNA.
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) Tortoises in the Galapagos possessed neck lengths unique to each island.Neck lengths appear to be an adaptation to which selective agent?
A) ease in finding pools of drinking water
B) type of vegetation available to eat
C) reproductive barriers used to produce offspring
D) defense against predators
E) male competition for females
Q2) The presence of vestigial organs supports evidence of evolution because
A) the vestigial organ is unique to one species.
B) the vestigial organ is similar to a functional organ in a related species, having been passed down from a common ancestor.
C) both the vestigial organ and the functional organ perform the same function.
D) the vestigial organ could not have been passed down from an ancestor.
E) the vestigial organs represent variation in a species.
Q3) The artificial selection of different breeds of dogs is an example of speciation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) If the survivors of an original population survived due to specific phenotypes that they possessed,then this event is an example of
A) natural selection.
B) genetic drift.
C) founder effect.
D) industrial melanism.
Q2) Which of the following does not result in a decrease of genetic variation?
A) natural selection
B) genetic drift
C) bottleneck effect
D) founder effect
E) mutation
Q3) Microevolution is the term that applies to which of the following?
A) Any evolution at any scale is considered microevolution.
B) Large-scale changes over a long period of time.
C) Small-scale changes over a long period of time.
D) Small-scale changes over a short period of time.
E) Changes of any scale within microorganisms.
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17
Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) A zygote fails to undergo mitosis because of a mismatched numbers of chromosomes.This is an example of
A) hybrid sterility.
B) zygote mortality.
C) prezygotic isolation.
D) temporal isolation.
E) allopatric speciation.
Q2) Which geological timescale will contain the greatest number of years?
A) eras
B) periods
C) epochs
D) centuries
E) decades
Q3) Evolutionary relationships between organisms are determined by A) molecular evidence and anatomical homologies.
B) molecular evidence, anatomical homologies, and fossil records.
C) molecular evidence, anatomical analogies, and fossil records.
D) molecular evidence and fossil records.
E) molecular evidence, anatomical homologies, anatomical analogies, and fossil records.
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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Paramecium?
A) macronucleus produce mRNA and directs metabolic functions
B) motile with cilia
C) micronucleus functions in reproduction
D) engulfs prey with pseudopods
E) chemoheterotrophic
Q2) Which archaea use a pigment related to the rhodopsin in our eyes to absorb solar energy and pump chloride ions?
A) methanogens
B) halophiles
C) thermoacidophiles
D) alkaliphiles
E) psychrophiles
Q3) Pathogens are disease-causing
A) bacteria only.
B) viruses only.
C) protists only.
D) viroids only.
E) microbes.
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which structure is the anther?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Which part of the figure represents the sporophyte?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) If you are studying a eukaryotic,multicellular,non-photosynthetic organism,what piece of information would be least useful it determining if it is a fungus or an animal?
A) It is motile.
B) It has cell walls.
C) It ingests or absorbs its food.
D) It has specialized tissues and organs.
E) All of the choices would be equally useful.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) The closest living relatives of modern humans are
A) prosimians.
B) African apes.
C) New World monkeys.
D) Asian apes.
E) Old World monkeys.
Q2) What feature is used to classify a sponge as a Parazoan?
A) molecular data
B) reproductive abilities
C) environment they live in
D) feeding mechanism
E) number of different species known to science
Q3) Why are developmental biologists so interested in studying echinoderm embryos?
A) Echinoderms are primitive chordates.
B) Echinoderms are the closest living relatives of chordates.
C) Echinoderms are the only animals with three embryonic germ layers.
D) Echinoderms, unlike most invertebrates, retain their notochords as adults.
E) Echinoderms, like chordates, are protostomes.
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21
Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Refer to the figure shown here.Which structure(s)of a eudicot root is/are responsible for regulating the entry of minerals into the xylem?
A) 1
B) 1 and 6
C) 6
D) 2 and 3
E) 2
Q2) In the pressure-flow model,what two phenomena starts the flow of phloem contents?
A) active transport of sugar into sieve tubes, water follows by osmosis
B) water leaving sieve tubes by osmosis, followed by active transport of sugar into sieve tubes
C) active transport of water into sieve tubes, water entering companion cells by osmosis
D) water enters companion cells by osmosis, followed by active transport of sugar into sieve tubes
E) active transport of sugar into companion cells, water follows by osmosis
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22
Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction
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Q1) A nursery wishes to produce a large number of carrot plants for sale in the spring.The nursery will most likely use which technique?
A) tissue culture
B) hybridization
C) cuttings
D) anther culture
E) meristem culture
Q2) A fleshy fruit is more likely to use which of the following methods of seed dispersal?
A) eaten by animals and seeds passed through feces
B) blown by wind
C) stuck to fur of mammal and carried
D) fruit bursts when mature, spreading seeds outward
E) drop and remain near parent plant
Q3) Plant hormones
A) are receptor proteins.
B) are chemical signaling molecules.
C) are produced only in the apical meristem.
D) are produced both in the apical meristem and the vascular cambium.
E) are proteins.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) The liver is epithelial in origin as shown by what characteristic?
A) its ability to regenerate
B) the matrix formed outside the cells
C) the fibrous tissue which stores glycogen
D) its ability to stretch
E) its ability to generate electrical impulses
Q2) If damaged,which tissue type will not be able to conduct an impulse?
A) nervous
B) epithelial
C) connective
D) muscular
E) columnar
Q3) The medulla oblongata acts as the ___________ in this example of negative feedback.
A) sensor
B) stimulus
C) control center
D) effect
E) response to the stimulus
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) Taking up fat from digested foods along with excess tissue fluid and returning it to cardiovascular veins is a function of the
A) circulatory system.
B) systemic circuit.
C) lymphatic system.
D) pulmonary circuit.
E) cardiovascular arteries.
Q2) The presence of salts and plasma proteins in capillaries causes
A) a greater osmotic pressure than blood pressure at the arterial end.
B) diffusion of water into the body tissues.
C) greater osmotic pressure in the blood than in body tissues.
D) slower flow of blood through capillaries.
E) water to move out of the blood capillary at the venous end.
Q3) The two large lymphatic ducts deliver lymph to the subclavian veins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the functions of blood is to help regulate body temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to edema?
A) It can lead to heart failure.
B) It is the retention of water and salts.
C) It is an imbalance in the ionic composition of body fluids.
D) It can result from kidney failure.
E) It results in kidney stones if uncorrected.
Q2) In the figure shown here,the area represented by letter "D"
A) is where blood is filtered to form urine.
B) is the area where urine formed by nephrons is collected.
C) is where arterial blood is brought into the kidneys.
D) is the renal cortex.
E) is the renal medulla.
Q3) Which of the following events will cause problems with the body's ability to exchange gasses between the blood and tissue fluid?
A) an increase in the blood pH due to smoking
B) getting into a car accident and bruising your ribs on the steering wheel
C) getting a piece of meat lodged within your windpipe and not being able to breathe
D) being congested due to a sinus infection
E) playing football and getting the wind knocked out of you
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) If egg yolks are a source of cholesterol,why doesn't eating a few eggs a week raise blood cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol from eggs does not affect HDL-cholesterol levels.
B) The impact on LDL-cholesterol levels is greater from dietary saturated and trans fats than from cholesterol.
C) Cholesterol from eggs naturally lowers LDL-cholesterol levels.
D) The human body produces more cholesterol than is in the two eggs.
E) Cholesterol from eggs naturally raises LDL-cholesterol levels.
Q2) Which source of protein does not contain the nine essential amino acids?
A) nuts
B) eggs
C) milk
D) chicken
E) beef
Q3) Proteins must be ingested in order to obtain
A)necessary trans fats.
B)essential amino acids.
C)essential cholesterol.
D)needed minerals such as potassium and magnesium.
E)needed vitamins such as vitamin C.
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) Antibodies are ___ proteins while antigens are ___ proteins.
A) bacterial; self-produced
B) self-produced; foreign
C) self-produced; also self-produced
D) cancer; bacterial
E) viral; self-produced
Q2) Which autoimmune disorder is a breakdown of the myelin sheaths on the nerve cells?
A) multiple sclerosis (MS)
B) myasthenia gravis
C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) rheumatoid arthritis
E) leukemia
Q3) What is the effect of T cells not undergoing apoptosis after the defeat of an infection?
A) An HIV infection may result.
B) Leukemia or lymphoma may result.
C) The future immunity is that much stronger.
D) An autoimmune disease may result.
E) An allergy may result.
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Chapter 27: The Control Systems
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Q1) There is a hormone that helps to maintain your blood glucose level between breakfast and lunch.What is it?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D) thyroxine
E) epinephrine
Q2) The spinal cord's gray matter is located
A) on the outside, surrounding a central core of white matter.
B) on the inside, surrounding the central canal.
C) on both the inside and the outside.
D) neither inside nor outside-the spinal cord is entirely white matter.
E) scattered among a collection of ganglia.
Q3) Which action is not part of how drugs can affect the nervous system?
A) All of these actions are part of how drugs can affect the nervous system.
B) Drugs can enhance the release of a neurotransmitter.
C) Drugs can block the release of a neurotransmitter.
D) Drugs can block the receptor for a neurotransmitter.
E) Drugs can mimic the actions of a neurotransmitter.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) Which is not a type of taste?
A) umami
B) sweet
C) sour
D) bitter
E) hot
Q2) If a drug prevents calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum,it would likely be used as a(n)
A) treatment for osteoarthritis.
B) treatment for osteoporosis.
C) muscle relaxant.
D) stimulant for blood cell production.
E) promoter of muscle contraction.
Q3) In order to lift a book from a table,your _____ must contract; to put the book back down,the _____ must contract.
A) meniscus; bursa
B) biceps; triceps
C) actin filament; myosin filament
D) bursa; meniscus
E) triceps; biceps
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) If a woman has been diagnosed with genital warts,she should be examined regularly for
A) cervical cancer.
B) liver cancer.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
D) gummas.
E) skin cancer.
Q2) Ovulation usually occurs on day _____ of a woman's cycle.
A) 0
B) 7
C) 14
D) 21
E) 28
Q3) What structure allows for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between mother and fetus?
A) Chorionic villi
B) Umbilical cord
C) Placenta
D) Chorion
E) Amnion
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following impact biotic potential EXCEPT
A) resource abundance.
B) the number of offspring produced each reproductive cycle.
C) chances of survivorship until sexual maturity.
D) how frequently each individual in the population reproduces.
E) the age at which reproduction ends.
Q2) The birthrate in a small town is 14 per 1,000 per year and the death rate is 5 per 1,000 per year.What is the annual growth rate for this town?
A) 9%
B) 0.9%
C) 19%
D) 1.9%
E) 0.19%
Q3) Which of the following is an example of exponential growth?
A) 2000\(\rarr\)2000\(\rarr\)2000
B) 1500\(\rarr\)1600\(\rarr\)1700
C) 1500\(\rarr\)1550\(\rarr\)2010
D) 1000\(\rarr\)1500\(\rarr\)2000
E) 2000\(\rarr\)1500\(\rarr\)1000
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following boxes indicates the process of denitrification?
A) Box A
B) Box B
C) Box C
D) Box D
E) Box E Denitrification converts nitrate to nitrogen gas.
Q2) The aquatic ecosystem with the least amount of inorganic matter is
A) estuaries.
B) coral reefs.
C) open oceans.
D) lakes.
E) swamps. Aquatic systems are limited by the amount of inorganic matter. Thus the aquatic system with the least amount of inorganic matter is the one that has the lowest primary productivity, which is open oceans.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an animal's niche?
A) a small bird living in the dense shrubs at the base of a tree
B) two male lizards fighting over access to a female
C) a grasshopper feeding on leaves
D) an oystercatcher eating bivalves
E) lions and hyenas fighting over access to a zebra carcass
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beach erosion is often caused by structures built to prevent erosion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a way in which rural areas may be sustainable?
A) planting of native grasses to rebuild the soil
B) planting of trees next to land used for agriculture to break the wind and protect the soil from erosion
C) use of cover crops to stabilize the soil between growing seasons
D) restoration and maintenance of wetlands to lessen runoff and alleviate flooding
E) increasing use of extensive irrigation techniques to nurture demanding crops
Q3) A company that owns an office building decides to build a "green roof." Which of the following is least likely to occur as a result?
A) higher water bills because of the need to irrigate vegetation
B) fresh fruits and vegetables for employees to take home to their families
C) additional recreational space for employees to enjoy during work breaks
D) lower electric bills due to the extra insulation the vegetation provides
E) lowered rainwater runoff that may create cracks in the roof of the building
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