
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Employment Relations explores the dynamic interactions between employers, employees, and the institutions that regulate their relationships. The course examines the historical development and theoretical foundations of employment relations, including the roles of trade unions, employer associations, and government agencies. Students analyze key topics such as collective bargaining, workplace conflict, labor law, and negotiation processes. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course highlights current trends and challenges in employment relations, offering critical insights into how changes in the global economy, labor markets, and technology impact the world of work.
Recommended Textbook
Managing Human Resources 6th canadian edition by Monica Belcourt
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the competencies of the human resources manager?
A) business mastery, HR mastery, and personal credibility
B) business mastery, HR mastery and executive mastery
C) change mastery, personal credibility, union mastery, and HR mastery
D) business mastery, HR mastery, personal credibility, and change mastery
Answer: D
Q2) In an effort to take advantage of a market opportunity, Apple created the iPhone in open-source format so that anyone can develop and sell an iPhone application. This is an example of which of the following?
A) proactive change
B) reactive change
C) managing change
D) transformational change
Answer: A
Q3) Employee motivation, teamwork, corporate culture, employee education, performance management, and rewards are the six aspects in the quality improvement program known as "Six Sigma."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) In unionized firms, layoffs are typically based on performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A cultural audit asks questions such as "What is the ethnic make-up of my workforce?"
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following should you take into account when forecasting demand?
A) product/service demand
B) the number of part-time employees needed
C) unemployment rate
D) labour mobility
Answer: A
Q4) Benchmarking is the process of comparing the organization's processes and practices with those of other companies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Employers that pay men and women performing the same job a different salary are violating the Pay Equity Act only if the differences are based on which of the following?
A) seniority
B) merit
C) gender
D) incentive plans
Answer: C
Q2) The only difference between federal and provincial human rights laws is that the former cover federally regulated industries and the latter cover provincially regulated industries.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In Canada, the four designated groups that have not received equitable treatment in employment are women, Aboriginal people, people with disabilities, and visible minorities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Human rights legislation requires that the specific performance requirements of a job be based on which of the following?
A) common practices in industry
B) past practices
C) valid job-related criteria
D) the National Occupational Classification
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a job specification?
A) To be a grocery store cashier, you need to know how to work a cash register, know the rules of the store, and know basic math.
B) To be a grocery store cashier, you have to deal with the public and be able to stand on your feet for long hours.
C) A grocery store cashier assists customers in paying for their grocery items and answering questions about products.
D) A grocery store cashier is responsible for making sure items are bagged or tagged, and that all customers pay for their items.
Q3) What is the role of job analysis in HRM, and how does it relate to other HRM functions?
Q4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of flextime or flexible working hours?
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Q1) In many cases, hiring someone from outside is seen as essential for revitalizing the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does the value of a computerized record system (SAP and People Soft) for locating qualified internal job candidates largely depend on?
A) the experience of the employees
B) the extent to which data in the system is kept up-to-date
C) the extent to which the system is "user-friendly"
D) the availability of the system to line personnel
Q3) Which of the following is the term for a tool used to examine current performance data and future potential within an organization?
A) a managerial matrix
B) a potential assessment centre
C) a 9-box grid
D) a performance analysis
Q4) Advertisements can allow selectivity in attracting applicants.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) A comprehensive analysis of honesty tests reveals that they are valid for predicting theft, disciplinary problems, absenteeism, and job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following most accurately represents the typical steps in the selection process?
A) Candidates participate in employment testing before being interviewed.
B) Supervisors interview candidates followed by individual interviews with the HR department.
C) Candidates are interviewed in the initial stages and again the late stages of the process.
D) Background investigations are carried out near the beginning of the process.
Q3) The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure, the greater the chances of hiring individuals who will be the better performers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and explain the five primary types of employment tests.
Q5) Define the concepts of reliability and validity.
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Q1) Adding new members to teams typically results in the team reverting back to an earlier stage of development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although on-the-job training (OJT) is generally regarded as the most effective means of facilitating learning at the workplace, it is often the most poorly implemented.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Behaviour modelling appears to work in helping managers to interact with employees, introduce change, and handle discipline.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Orientation programs stress the "why" rather than the "what," including the philosophy behind the organization's rules.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the systems approach to training.
Q6) Identify and briefly describe the four criteria available to evaluate training.
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Q1) How often should performance feedback be delivered?
A) It should be done at least annually.
B) It depends on the organizational culture, industry, and supervisor's style.
C) It should be done at regular intervals-the more frequent the better.
D) It should be an ongoing, regular part of supervisor-subordinate interactions.
Q2) Which of the following is exemplified by a manager rating an employee higher than he or she deserves in order to look good as a manager in the eyes of the manager's own superiors?
A) criterion deficiency
B) organizational politics
C) criterion contamination
D) administrative appraisal purpose
Q3) A team appraisal approach is well suited for a company advocating a total-quality management philosophy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Depending on the industry, managers should provide performance feedback on an annual basis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Pay-for-performance programs have little if any effect on employee productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wage-rate compression refers to the situation where employees perceive that there is too large a difference between their compensation and that of colleagues in higher-rated jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pay equity is covered only under federal jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Managers will group similar jobs into a pay grade in order to help with the setting of wages for all jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An advantage of published wage surveys is compatibility with the organization's jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly explain the different job evaluation systems.
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Q1) Merit pay plans have been criticized because the merit increase may not be sufficient to raise the employee's base pay.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important lesson learned from Scanlon and Improshare plans is that if management wants to gain the cooperation of its employees in improving efficiency, they must permit the employees to become involved psychologically as well as financially in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are performance measures vital in incentive plans?
A) because they communicate the importance of the organizational goals
B) because they ensure fair pay for women
C) because they drive profitability
D) because they are fair and equitable
Q4) Which of the following would NOT be a problem with merit raises?
A) if they are based upon objective, measurable criteria
B) if they are based upon the rise in the cost of living
C) if they are based on subjective performance appraisals
D) if they are tied to the length of service of the employee
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Q1) Great Parcel Inc. has numerous office locations across Canada, including isolated areas with no access to the Internet. Which of the following would be the most efficient way to communicate a new benefit to all its employees?
A) online modules
B) a meeting in a central location
C) trips by the organization's top executive team to all the locations
D) payroll inserts
Q2) Benefit packages of any kind still help employers attract and retain quality employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At the present time, employers are required to provide pension plans to all full-time employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People who have been resident in a Canadian province for three months are eligible to receive health care benefits.
A)True B)False
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Q1) What do joint health and safety committees consist of?
A) management representatives
B) employee (union) representatives
C) both employee (union) and management representatives
D) health and safety officers
Q2) Compare and contrast the two general types of stress. Include an example of each.
Q3) Health and safety procedures should be an important part of new employee orientation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Robin Hood recently started working in a modern office in the financial district in Toronto. Which of the following health and safety issues is he LEAST likely to face in the workplace?
A) sick building syndrome
B) distress
C) lung cancer
D) muscular aches and pains
Q5) List and describe techniques for coping with stress.
Q6) Occupational health and safety are regulated solely by the federal government.
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Q1) One of the goals of discipline is that it should be seen as training that moulds and strengthens the desirable conduct-or corrects undesirable conduct-and develops self-control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assume that Rajas Cable Inc. uses a positive discipline system to correct undesirable employee conduct. In this system, which of the following actions will the firm take to deal with unacceptable performance?
A) warnings
B) reminders
C) reprimands
D) legal challenges
Q3) Positive discipline relies on encouragement given to employees as a way to improve performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organizations are required by law to comply with ethical guidelines.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Unionization may restrict the freedom of management in many areas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compulsory binding arbitration is often available in the public sector as an acceptable way to settle collective bargaining deadlocks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the United States, the key central federation of unions is called the AFL-CIO. In Canada, what is the name of the organization that does similar work?
A) the Canadian Auto Workers Union
B) the Canadian Labour Congress
C) the Labour Organization
D) the Trades Union Congress
Q4) Grievance handling is more successful when supervisors are trained formally in resolving grievances.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the six steps in the organizing process.
Q6) How do unions and management employ bargaining power in negotiations?
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Q1) When a Canadian multinational corporation hires an employee from Australia to work in its office in Sydney, this employee referred to as which of the following?
A) an expatriate
B) a host-country national
C) a third-country national
D) an international manager
Q2) Compared to North American managers, European managers-especially those in France, Germany, and Italy-tend use which of the following decision-making styles?
A) a more autocratic style
B) about the same style
C) a more participatory style
D) a solitary style
Q3) An advantage of home country nationals is that they have intimate knowledge of the environment and culture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the primary differences among international, multinational, global, and transnational corporations?
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Q1) While increasing or improving collaboration and teamwork, egalitarian work environments reduce or eliminate which of the following?
A) the need for shared information
B) the need for skill-based pay systems
C) status and power differences
D) pay-scale differences
Q2) Employee development goes hand-in-hand with information sharing in high-performance work systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the elements of the work system complement and reinforce one another, internal fit is achieved.
A)True
B)False
Q4) HR managers should take a systems approach to HR practices and policies to maximize the value and output of the firm's human resources in conjunction with organizational strategy.
A)True
B)False
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