Emergency Response and Operations
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Emergency Response and Operations introduces students to the foundational principles, practices, and protocols used in managing emergency situations across various contexts, including natural disasters, hazardous materials incidents, and public health emergencies. The course covers topics such as incident command systems, resource coordination, risk assessment, communication strategies, and interagency collaboration. Students will gain insights into planning, preparedness, response, and recovery phases, emphasizing both theoretical frameworks and practical applications through case studies and scenario-based exercises. By completing this course, students will be equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to effectively contribute to emergency response operations in both public and private sector settings.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
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48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
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Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42686
Sample Questions
Q1) A reference tool that should be placed in every emergency vehicle for use when responding to a possible "hazmat" incident is:
A) The Emergency Response Guidebook.
B) The Physician's Desk Reference.
C) The Merck Manual.
D) List of chemicals processed by local industry.
Answer: A
Q2) Regarding "burnout" and the Emergency Medical Services, which statement is most accurate?
A) Employers are required to have a written plan addressing EMT burnout.
B) Burnout can diminish an EMT's ability to provide competent care.
C) Research indicates that burnout affects all EMS personnel within a five-year period.
D) Burnout often tends to resolve on its own over time.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT recognizes that the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) limits the EMT's ability to:
A) exchange medical information regarding the patient.
B) bill for services provided by the Emergency Medical Services.
C) obtain refusals on patients who do not have medical insurance.
D) transport a patient to a hospital of his or her choice.
Answer: A
Q2) A young male patient has suffered a gunshot wound to the head. Realizing that there is little chance for survival, the EMT notes that the patient is a potential organ donor. The patient is unresponsive and breathing four times a minute on scene. You are providing positive pressure ventilation. En route to the hospital, the patient stops breathing and loses a pulse. Since the patient is a potential organ donor, the EMT should:
A) stop any and all resuscitation measures.
B) provide the same resuscitation as for a person who is not an organ donor.
C) ventilate the patient but not provide chest compressions.
D) perform CPR but not use the automated external defibrillator.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 5: Communication
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the radio, medical direction has given the following order for an unstable patient you suspect of having a heart attack: "have the patient chew four baby aspirin, each one at 81 mg, and transport as soon as possible." You would show reception of this order by stating:
A) "copy we will administer the aspirin as ordered and begin immediate transport"
B) "copy we will start transport and administer 324 mg of aspirin enroute"
C) "copy we will have the patient chew four baby aspirin, each one at 81 mg and transport ASAP"
D) "copy Dr. Markowitz we will follow the orders as received and transport to your facility"
Q2) Which one of the following statements is most appropriate when communicating with the medical facility that will receive the patient?
A) "Inbound with a 52-year-old suffering from a myocardial infarction."
B) "En route to your facility with a 73-year-old male complaining of dizziness."
C) "Five minutes out with Mr. John Panzer who called us today for high blood pressure."
D) "En route with a drug addict who has overdosed on an unspecified amount of heroin."
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Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When carrying equipment in the right hand, the EMT would:
A) lean to the left side for compensation.
B) bend backward for counter balance.
C) tilt his body to the right side.
D) keep his or her back straight and locked.
Q2) A small car and tanker truck loaded with gasoline have collided. The car is lodged under the tanker, from which gasoline is leaking from a ruptured valve. The car engine is smoking and the threat of fire and explosion is great. Assessment reveals your patient to be unresponsive with a patent airway, but breathing with difficulty at 8 times a minute. In caring for this patient, your immediate action should be to:
A) promptly open the airway and suction prior to moving the patient.
B) rapidly extricate the patient and provide care away from the wreckage.
C) quickly obtain vital signs and then extricate the patient from the car.
D) immediately start positive pressure ventilation and place a vest immobilization device for extrication.
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8
Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has severe swelling of the leaf-shaped flap that helps to prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system. Knowing that the suffix "itis" refers to inflammation, which one of the following conditions is the patient suffering from?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Tracheitis
C) Pharyngitis
D) Bronchitis
Q2) A patient has suffered a stroke and injury to his brainstem. Which one of the following signs and symptoms might the EMT expect to see as a result of this condition?
A) Confusion
B) Abnormal respirations
C) Blindness
D) Muscle spasms
Q3) Which action produces inhalation?
A) Intercostal muscles relax.
B) Chest cavity decreases in size.
C) Diaphragm contracts.
D) Pressure in the chest increases.
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Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following measurements indicates a narrowed pulse pressure?
A) 120/76
B) 108/88
C) 210/138
D) 116/82
Q2) A patient has been shot three times in the abdomen and has massive internal hemorrhage and blood loss. What will best give this patient a chance at survival?
A) High-concentration oxygen
B) Stopping the bleeding
C) Positive pressure ventilation
D) Paramedic intervention for pain management
Q3) Which one of the following is the primary stimulus to breathe in normal human beings?
A) Level of CO in the body
B) Amount of oxygen required by the body
C) Level of oxygen in the body
D) Amount of nitrogen in air
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old is very fearful when you listen to his breathing and lungs with the stethoscope. Your best course of action would be to:
A) forego listening to the boy's breath sounds.
B) listen to the breath sounds regardless of the boy's reaction.
C) have the boy watch as you listen to his father's lungs.
D) tell the patient that you must listen to his lungs and then do it.
Q2) A 16-year-old male was killed after driving at excessive speeds and then losing control of his car. He was not wearing a seat belt. In an attempt to understand why such a tragedy would occur, you would recognize that:
A) during this stage of life, the "right versus wrong" part of the brain is not fully developed.
B) adolescent boys have a drive of competitiveness amongst their peers.
C) within the adolescent period, there exists a strong desire to show independence and self sufficiency.
D) common to this age group is a perceived sense of strength and invulnerability.
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11
Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT is properly applying continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) when he:
A) checks and documents the pulse oximetry reading every 15 minutes.
B) places a confused patient receiving CPAP in a lateral recovery position.
C) adjusts the ventilation rate to between 16 and 18breaths per minute.
D) places the mask over the mouth and nose and tightens it to the face.
Q2) A paramedic has asked you to place the patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute. To administer oxygen at this flow rate, you should:
A) attach a high-pressure regulator to the oxygen cylinder.
B) adjust the tank pressure to 15 pounds per square inch (psi).
C) slowly decrease the tank pressure valve until 15 psi is achieved.
D) select 15 on the oxygen therapy regulator.
Q3) Assessment findings on an elderly patient with congestive heart failure indicate that her failing heart is causing fluid to collect and fill her alveoli. Based on this pathophysiology, for which pulmonary complication should the EMT treat the patient?
A) Decreased blood pressure
B) Collapse of the bronchi
C) Swelling of the tongue
D) Decreased gas exchange
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Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old female has called 911 for rectal bleeding. There is a large amount of dark red blood and clots in the toilet and on the patient's clothing. The Emergency Medical Responder reports a blood pressure of 84/68 mmHg with a heart rate of 124 beats per minute. Given this information, the EMT should recognize:
A) narrowed pulse pressure and possible shock.
B) normal blood pressure since the patient is alert and oriented.
C) diastolic hypertension and risk for stroke.
D) normal heart rate given the patient's age.
Q2) You have arrived by the side of a cyanotic patient who is responsive only to painful stimuli and exhibiting stridorous respirations. Which one of the following would be most appropriate?
A) Prepare and apply the pulse oximeter before administering oxygen.
B) Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen.
C) Obtain a full set of vital signs excluding the patient's temperature.
D) Attempt to determine what happened to the patient or any existing medical problems.
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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a scene becomes unsafe after you have entered, you should first:
A) attempt to neutralize the threat.
B) call for assistance on the radio.
C) remove yourself from the scene.
D) notify the EMS supervisor.
Q2) A 67-year-old male, with a history of diabetes and previous heart attack, fell down three stairs. His chief complaint is pain and deformity to his right wrist. The EMT would classify the patient as a:
A) medical patient.
B) trauma patient.
C) medical and trauma patient.
D) special needs patient.
Q3) You are providing care to a patient with altered mental status in the midst of a large crowd gathered for a concert. Which characteristic of the crowd should concern you the most in relation to personal safety?
A) Angry mood growing within the crowd
B) A growing number of people making up the crowd
C) The growing size of the crowd as more people gather to watch you
D) Presence of alcohol and possible drugs in the crowd
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During your primary assessment, you note the patient's skin to be warm, pink, and dry. This should seemingly indicate:
A) possible shock.
B) possible fever.
C) poor oxygenation.
D) normal circulation.
Q2) Which of the following statements made by the EMT indicates that he has appropriately initiated the first phase of the patient assessment?
A) "I have placed an oral airway in the patient."
B) "The scene appears to be free of hazards."
C) "Blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg."
D) "Can you tell me why you called the ambulance?"
Q3) When you assess the lower back of an elderly patient who fell, he grimaces and tells you that it hurts when you palpate the injury site. You should recognize which one of the following conditions?
A) Pain
B) Tenderness
C) Crepitus
D) Ecchymosis
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Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42698
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT shows she understands the difference between a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) and a small-volume nebulizer (SVN) when she states:
A) "The MDI uses oxygen to administer the medication; the small-volume nebulizer does not."
B) "The MDI provides medication with one or two of the patient's breaths; the SVN provides a continuous flow of medication until gone."
C) "The MDI uses a mask to administer the medication; the SVN merely requires the patient to hold the device in his mouth and inhale."
D) "The MDI requires the EMT to set up and prepare the medication for administration; the SVN does not."
Q2) Atrovent, if prescribed to the patient, is indicated for what condition?
A) Headache
B) Chest discomfort
C) Nausea or vomiting
D) Difficulty breathing
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Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is appropriate when two EMTs are performing CPR on an adult patient?
A) Compressions of at least 100 per minute
B) Airway reassessment after every 30 compressions
C) Compression to ventilation rate of 15:2
D) Delivery of ventilations while compressions are being provided
Q2) You are assessing an elderly patient with a decreased level of consciousness. Your assessment reveals the patient to have a patent airway, labored respirations, and weak, rapid pulses. The skin is pale, cool, and cyanotic in the extremities. You also observe diaphoresis and a delayed capillary refill. Vital signs for this patient are: HR 136 bpm, BP 66/40 mmHg, and respirations 40 and shallow. Auscultation of the lungs reveals profound rales located throughout each lung. His temperature is 99 F and there is obvious JVD and pedal edema. Additionally, family states that the patient has an extensive cardiac and diabetic history. Based on this information you should suspect what kind of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Hypotensive
D) Distributive
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to gauge the effectiveness of oxygen therapy would be to monitor the: A) pulse oximetry.
B) respiratory rate.
C) heart rate.
D) mental status.
Q2) A 67-year-old male patient is complaining of shortness of breath. The patient cannot remember how many times he used his inhaler prior to your arrival. Which of the following should be your next action?
A) Call medical direction for advisement.
B) Assist the patient in the self-administration of his inhaler.
C) Transport the patient to the hospital.
D) Auscultate the lung sounds and administer the inhaler if you hear wheezing.
Q3) When assessing a 3-year-old male in respiratory distress, the EMT should recognize "see-saw" breathing when he observes:
A) alternate breathing through the nose and mouth.
B) movement of the chest and abdomen in opposite directions.
C) retraction of the muscles between the ribs.
D) up-and-down motion of the head as the patient breathes.
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Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sympathetic nervous system will cause the heart to:
A) increase in size.
B) increase the heart rate.
C) decrease automaticity.
D) decrease in rate.
Q2) You have been called to a residence for a 52-year-old male complaining of chest pain. When obtaining a history from the patient, what statement, made by the patient, would you find most concerning?
A) "I started taking an antianxiety medication last week."
B) "The pain came on suddenly when I was reading the paper."
C) "I have had chest pain on and off for years now."
D) "I occasionally feel that my heart seems to skip a beat."
Q3) The EMT understands diastolic blood pressure when he states which of the following?
A) "The pressure in the arteries after cardiac contraction"
B) "The pressure in the arterial system when the heart contracts"
C) "The pressure needed to move blood through the cardiovascular system"
D) "The pressure in the venous system when the heart is at rest"
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Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a patient who suddenly became confused. What assessment finding should concern you most?
A) Blood pressure of 110/72 mmHg
B) Pupils dilated but reactive
C) Heart rate of 180 but regular
D) Blood glucose level of 72 mg/dL
Q2) Assessment reveals a drooling 48-year-old male to have gurgling speech and left-arm paralysis. The EMT's immediate priority is to:
A) suction the airway.
B) protect the left arm.
C) determine risk factors for stroke.
D) determine the time of onset.
Q3) For the stroke patient to be eligible for a fibrinolytic, the patient must be brought to the hospital emergency department within how many hours of the onset of stroke symptoms?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 24
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Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of seizure occurs in children and is caused by a fever?
A) Idiopathic
B) Hypoglycemic
C) Febrile
D) Eclamptic
Q2) An 86-year-old male has had a sudden change in mental status and is repeatedly striking a fist against his leg. When you question him, he does not respond. This presentation is most consistent with what condition?
A) Seizure
B) Dementia
C) Stroke
D) Delirium
Q3) Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by the:
A) duration of the seizure.
B) length of the postictal period.
C) presence of an aura prior to seizing.
D) preexisting seizure history.
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Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diabetic patient is alert but confused. You have decided to administer oral glucose. Which one of the following describes how to administer the glucose properly?
A) Squeeze the glucose under the patient's tongue.
B) Place the glucose between the patient's cheek and gum.
C) Use a tongue depressor to place the glucose on the back of the tongue.
D) Have the patient slowly swallow the glucose.
Q2) You have been called for a 33-year-old male complaining of weakness and dizziness. When getting the history, which one of the following statements would make you suspicious that the patient is an undiagnosed diabetic?
A) "I feel the need to eat sugar throughout the day."
B) "I get very weak just after eating a meal."
C) "I feel very weak in the morning after getting up."
D) "I find myself urinating all of the time."
Q3) The EMT would describe diabetes as a disease state in which:
A) not enough sugar is provided to the body.
B) there is a problem with the metabolism of carbohydrates and other foods.
C) there is a contusion in which too much insulin is produced by the pancreas.
D) the body cannot store and maintain sugar reserves.
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Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have assisted an adult patient with his epinephrine auto-injector. When giving a report to the emergency department nurse, you should inform her that ________ mg of epinephrine was administered.
A) 0.15
B) 0.25
C) 0.30
D) 1
Q2) You are providing bag-valve-mask ventilations to a patient in anaphylactic shock. There is increasing resistance to ventilation, despite using proper technique. Which of the following is the best way to address this situation?
A) Stop ventilations and administer an albuterol metered-dose inhaler.
B) Occlude the pop-off valve on the bag-valve mask and continue ventilations.
C) Increase both the ventilatory rate and force of ventilation.
D) Turn the patient to her side and apply manual pressure over the epigastrium.
Q3) Within the body, the release of histamine would cause dilation of the:
A) blood vessels.
B) small airways.
C) upper airway.
D) salivary glands.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 53-year-old female has intentionally ingested a large amount of Valium. The EMT would recognize that the medication is being absorbed into the body through what structure?
A) Stomach
B) Esophagus
C) Large intestine
D) Small intestine
Q2) You are suspicious of food poisoning in a 51-year-old male with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. He is alert and oriented with no life threats to his airway, breathing, or circulation. His vital signs are: pulse 124, respirations 20, blood pressure 198/98, and SpO 93% on room air. He states a history of COPD and hypertension, for which he did not take his medications today. In this situation, which of the following would be appropriate?
A) Oxygen at 2 lpm through a nasal cannula
B) Encourage water by mouth for rehydration
C) Take the blood pressure pill that he missed earlier
D) Follow up with his family doctor
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT recognizes that the most common complaint(s) associated with a gynecologic emergency is:
A) vaginal discharge.
B) upper abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
C) lower abdominal pain.
D) nausea and vaginal discharge.
Q2) The EMT has an accurate understanding of the solid organs contained within the abdomen when she states:
A) "Solid organs contain less blood than hollow organs, but will still bleed if injured."
B) "Solid organs like the gallbladder are covered by a thick fibrous capsule."
C) "Solid organs describe structures in the abdomen that breakdown and absorb nutrients into the blood."
D) "Solid organs are very vascular and may bleed excessively if injured."
Q3) Which of the following best describes the structure and function of the stomach?
A) A vascular abdominal organ that filters nutrients from the blood
B) A hollow organ that allows the absorption of nutrients
C) A vascular organ that regulates the balance of water in the body
D) A hollow organ that secretes digestive enzymes and fluids
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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bystanders have called 911 for a female who lives on the street because she has been outside in the cold all night and is muttering incomprehensible words. Her airway is open and her breathing is adequate. Her skin is cold and a radial pulse is present but weak.
Oxygen has been applied. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Perform a secondary assessment.
B) Obtain a blood pressure.
C) Assess breath sounds.
D) Transfer her into the ambulance.
Q2) After ensuring that there are no life-threatening conditions to the airway, breathing, and circulation, the priority in caring for the hypothermic patient is:
A) providing passive rewarming.
B) assessing for complications.
C) preventing additional heat loss.
D) starting active rewarming measures.
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are on a scene with a patient who up until a few seconds ago was calm and compliant. Now he is brandishing a knife and threatening to kill you and your partner if you do not immediately leave. The man is intoxicated and police have been notified but have not yet arrived. Which one of the following is your best course of action?
A) Immediately physically restrain the patient.
B) Encourage the man's wife to calm him down.
C) Attempt to "talk down" the patient.
D) Remove yourself, your partner, and family from the house.
Q2) When on the scene of a patient who has attempted suicide, which of the following is the most immediate priority?
A) Preserving evidence
B) Crew safety
C) Assessing life-threatening conditions
D) Patient safety and well-being
Q3) A patient experiencing command hallucinations would most likely tell you:
A) his arm is stiff and cannot be bent.
B) his arm is infected with worms and parasites.
C) his arm smells like rotten meat and is dead.
D) his arm must be amputated so he will not die.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the
Trauma System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the man's pancreas, stomach, and gallbladder were also injured, even though not in direct contact with the bullet. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that which of the following is responsible for injury to these additional organs?
A) Cavitation
B) Drag force
C) Profile impact
D) Blunt injury
Q2) Which of the following injuries is most serious, warranting immediate and rapid transport to the hospital?
A) Instability and crepitus to the left lateral chest wall
B) Deformity to the right ankle with pain rated as a 10/10
C) Open fracture to the left lower leg
D) Large, deep laceration to the arm with bone visible
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29
Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have arrived on a scene where a young girl has pushed her arms through a plate glass window. She is responsive to painful stimuli and has blood spurting from a large laceration on her right upper arm. Your paramedic partner yells for you to immediately apply direct pressure to the laceration to prevent further blood loss, while he works to control the airway. You have yet to apply latex gloves, but are wearing goggles and a gown. What would you do next?
A) Place a tourniquet above the laceration, careful not to get blood on your hands.
B) Apply gloves prior to applying direct pressure over the injury site.
C) Control bleeding by pushing the skin of the laceration together until you can apply gloves.
D) Apply direct pressure to the site with your hands until someone with gloves can take over.
Q2) Your patient is confused and anxious after falling 20 feet from a ladder onto the grass below. What sign is most suggestive of shock?
A) Heart rate of 112
B) Deformity to the left arm
C) Large hematoma to the head
D) Constricted pupils
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Chapter 29: Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intoxicated 28-year-old female has suffered burns to both legs after passing out next to a space heater, which ignited her pants. Emergency Medical Responders have removed her clothing and cooled the burns. Which action is most appropriate in the continued care of this patient?
A) Carefully wrap the burn with a sterile wet burn sheet.
B) Cover the burns with a clean, white, dry sheet.
C) Place ice packs to the burn to continue cooling.
D) Clean the burn with sterile saline and cover gauze.
Q2) A patient was trapped in a burning apartment before being rescued by firefighters. As you approach him, you note that his legs and arms are burned. He is screaming in pain and coughing, but no longer actively burning. Given this information, what intervention would you perform first?
A) Perform a secondary assessment to determine if non-burn injuries are present.
B) Estimate the percentage of the patient's body that has been burned.
C) Determine if the patient has suffered partial- or deep partial-thickness burns.
D) Decide whether to administer oxygen with a nonrebreather face mask or with a bag-valve mask.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding, on a 32-year-old female involved in an MVC, should the EMT recognize as potentially life threatening?
A) Deformity of the left femur
B) Open fracture to the right forearm
C) Dislocation of two fingers on the left hand
D) Crepitus palpated to the right humerus
Q2) Which of the following bodily activities is a function of a voluntary muscle?
A) Contraction of the heart
B) Movement of food through the intestines
C) Blinking of the eyes
D) Protection of the abdominal organs
Q3) Which type of muscle tissue is found in the forearm?
A) Voluntary
B) Involuntary
C) Integumentary
D) Contraction
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32
Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) You are transporting a patient with a right-sided head injury after a large refrigerator fell and pinned his head between the appliance and the floor. On scene, the patient was responsive to verbal stimuli with the following vital signs: pulse 96, respirations 16, blood pressure 134/66, and SpO 95%. During transport, as you reassess the patient, what would be the most indicative sign that the head injury is worsening?
A) Increasing edema to right side of head
B) Current blood pressure 108/68 mmHg
C) Responding to painful stimuli
D) Heart rate of 112 beats per minute
Q2) Your patient is a young adult female who was struck by a vehicle while she was riding her bicycle. She was not wearing a helmet. She is unresponsive and has a deformity with a deep depression to the temporal area of the head. You note no bleeding and the scalp is intact. Which one of the following is the greatest threat associated with this injury?
A) Fracture of the temporal bone
B) Damage to the brain
C) Potential for infection
D) Loss of cerebrospinal fluid
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a public building for a 32-year-old male patient who fell down a flight of stairs. As you pull up, he walks to the ambulance and states that he would like to be looked at because his shoulder and lower back hurt. You immediately take in-line manual spinal stabilization and examine his back, which reveals no sign of injury. How should you immobilize this patient?
A) Place a long board behind the patient and immobilize in a standing position.
B) Have the patient lie on the ground and immobilize in the usual fashion.
C) Place the long board on the stretcher and carefully assist the patient onto the long board.
D) Place a cervical collar on the patient and transfer him to the stretcher.
Q2) Which one of the following shows that the EMT is correctly assessing motor function in the arms of a patient with potential spine injuries?
A) "Can you tell me what finger I am touching?"
B) "I need you to flex both arms across your chest."
C) "I am going to move your arm; tell me if it hurts."
D) "I am going to feel for a pulse in your wrist."
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34
Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) An industrial worker has sustained a laceration to his abdomen. On closer inspection, you note what appears to be fat tissue and a portion of intestine protruding through the wound. Which one of the following is most appropriate for treating this injury?
A) One attempt at replacement using sterile gloves
B) Dry sterile dressing applied over the wound
C) Direct pressure using gloved palms to the injury
D) Occlusive dressing applied over saline-soaked gauze
Q2) You have just arrived on the scene of a very serious motor vehicle collision. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) have rapidly extricated an unresponsive female from the driver's seat. The EMRs report that she was unrestrained and struck the steering wheel with her chest and abdomen. As you start the primary assessment, you note that she has snoring respirations and is breathing shallowly at a rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Obtain her vital signs.
B) Immobilize her to the backboard.
C) Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver.
D) Start positive pressure ventilation.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT is correctly assessing a 2-year-old male who is unresponsive after being assaulted by the mother's live-in boyfriend when he:
A) checks the patient's brachial pulse.
B) recognizes a respiratory rate of 30 per minute as abnormal.
C) takes the time to get a blood pressure.
D) checks capillary refill time to help determine perfusion.
Q2) An 83-year-old female has fallen down the basement stairs. Once at her side, she tells you that her left hip hurts and rates it 10/10. Since the patient is downstairs, you recognize the need for assistance in extricating from the residence. As you start the primary assessment, you note a dog at the top of the stairs growling. At this time, what is your primary concern?
A) Airway
B) Pain
C) Need for additional help
D) Dog
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Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 27-year-old female who is 32 weeks pregnant. She states that she is experiencing uterine contractions but feels no pain with them, just a tightening in her abdomen. She states that these began three days ago and seem to be increasing in frequency today. She denies discharge or rupture of her membranes. Given this presentation, you should recognize:
A) probable false labor, and should have the patient follow up with her obstetrician.
B) probable false labor, but have the patient transported to the hospital for evaluation. C) true labor, so you should assess the vaginal canal for possible crowning.
D) possible placental abruption, and immediately must transport with lights and sirens.
Q2) Assessment of a newborn indicates that she has slow and irregular respirations with a weak cry. You should award her how many points according to the APGAR scoring system?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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Chapter 38: Pediatrics
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) You are suspicious that a child is being physically abused and neglected. Which of the following best describes your best course of action in such a situation?
A) Confrontation of the alleged abuser
B) Documentation of the situation
C) Notification of other family members
D) Placement of the child in a safe home
Q2) When assessing a 3-year-old who is in respiratory distress, which assessment finding would be most concerning?
A) Retraction of the muscle between the ribs
B) Abdominal rise and fall during breathing
C) Retractions observed above the clavicles
D) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
Q3) When you are assessing a 9-month-old boy who had a fever for the past two days, which of the following assessment findings would most strongly suggest that the fever has caused dehydration?
A) Palpation of the anterior fontanelle reveals it to be bulging.
B) The heart rate is at the high end of the normal range.
C) Respirations are labored and rapid.
D) The mother informs you that the baby is wetting very few diapers.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Geriatrics
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 77-year-old male with chest pain. On scene the patient denies ever having chest pain and requests to sign a refusal. Before having the refusal signed, the EMT must consider that many geriatric patients may deny symptoms because of:
A) fear of losing independence and dignity.
B) apprehension about having to take medications.
C) confusion chest pain often creates in geriatric patients.
D) acute onset of dementia and other neurological diseases.
Q2) Family members tell you that 3 hours ago, their 76-year-old mother suddenly became confused and had great difficulty speaking. However, within 15 minutes she returned to normal. Based on this description, the EMT should be suspicious of:
A) stroke.
B) dementia.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) transient ischemic attack.
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Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) The high pressure alarm is sounding on a home ventilator. As your partner prepares the bag-valve mask, you quickly determine that no problem exists with the machine itself. As positive pressure ventilation is initiated, you note high resistance to the ventilations and have a difficult time adequately squeezing the bag. Your next action would be to:
A) reapply the ventilator and transport.
B) continue care and transport.
C) check the patient's breath sounds.
D) suction the tracheostomy tube.
Q2) A patient has an intraventricular shunt. As such, you recognize that there is a problem with what system in the body?
A) Genitourinary
B) Central nervous
C) Digestive
D) Cardiovascular
Q3) An intraventricular shunt benefits a patient by:
A) providing a route to eliminate urine from the bladder.
B) draining fluid from around the heart.
C) allowing medication to be given to the patient.
D) draining cerebrospinal fluid from the brain.
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Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a 34-year-old male with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following instructions to your crew would be most appropriate?
A) "We must remove family members from around him."
B) "We need to determine if he feels suicidal or homicidal."
C) "We need to determine if he has ever killed anyone."
D) "We need to determine if he remembers the event that caused the PTSD."
Q2) The EMT would suspect that a patient suffers from a traumatic brain injury (TBI), as opposed to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) when he observes:
A) relationship problems.
B) confusion and disorientation.
C) anxiety and anger.
D) left arm amputation.
Q3) In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the EMT would recognize that a patient is reliving an event when he states:
A) "I do not like the smell of diesel fuel because of the airplane crash."
B) "I feel so guilty that there was nothing I could do to save them."
C) "I notice that my heart rate will sometimes increase for no reason."
D) "I cannot sleep well because of nightmares that I am back in the desert."
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Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) An ambulance, responding to a call using lights and sirens, is involved in a collision at an intersection. Witnesses state that the ambulance slowly went through the red light without first stopping, resulting in a collision with a car. No one is injured, and the driver of the car is insured. Based on the witnesses' account of the collision, which one of the following may occur?
A) The driver of the car is liable for the collision.
B) The EMT is immune from liability for the collision.
C) Liability for the collision cannot be assigned since no one was injured.
D) The EMT driving the ambulance may be liable for the collision.
Q2) Which action would reduce the chance of being involved in a response-related collision?
A) Unless it is dark out, the headlights should be left off when the red lights and sirens are being used.
B) During a nonemergency transport, it is important to use the red lights without a siren to make other motorists aware of your presence.
C) Sirens should only be used when approaching an intersection to warn drivers to stop.
D) White strobe lights should be used in conjunction with the red flashing lights.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) You are on scene of a serious motor vehicle collision. As the officer in charge, which one of the following instructions for other rescuers is most appropriate?
A) "Let's make sure to put cones around the cars."
B) "We need to route passing traffic no more than 20 feet around the scene."
C) "Park the ambulance downhill to make movement of the patient easier."
D) "Let's stop all traffic and reroute it to alternative roadways."
Q2) You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a car rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The car is on its wheels with the restrained driver still in his seat. After ensuring that the scene is safe and gaining access to the patient, which of the following should you do immediately?
A) Establish a plan to extricate the patient.
B) Remove pieces of broken glass from around the patient.
C) Cover the patient and force the door open.
D) Provide manual in-line spinal stabilization.
Q3) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?
A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver
B) Forcing entry into a house
C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch
D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been trained to the level of OSHA "First Responder Awareness." Regarding this level of training, which of the following activities are you qualified to perform?
A) Stop and patch a leak in a broken valve emitting an unknown gas.
B) Recognize a potential hazardous materials emergency and call for the appropriate resources.
C) Provide detailed instructions on how to contain a spill of an unknown liquid.
D) Direct the operations at a hazardous materials emergency until the chemical is identified.
Q2) The driver of a truck carrying a radioactive substance has accidentally come into contact with the material. You are first on the scene and a quick observation indicates that he still has the powder on his arm. Your immediate action would be to:
A) provide basic care, but avoid touching the patient's arm.
B) place the patient in the ambulance, but avoid touching him en route to the hospital.
C) instruct the patient to remain still and wait for the radiation safety officer.
D) rinse the powder off the arm and wrap with a sterile dressing and roller gauze.
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patient triage tags indicates the lowest priority for care and transport on the scene of a multiple-casualty incident?
A) Yellow
B) Red
C) Black
D) Green
Q2) A bleacher at a college has collapsed, and you are the first EMS unit to arrive on the scene. As you enter the gym, several patients are walking around with various injuries. What instruction is most appropriate for these ambulatory patients?
A) "Go outside and wait by the red fire truck in the parking lot and stay there."
B) "Sit down here so that I can do a quick assessment on you."
C) "Put this yellow tag on your wrist and go outside to the red fire truck in the parking lot."
D) "Leave this gym and wait outside. I will be out in a few minutes after I check others who cannot walk."
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) You are participating in a training exercise for an attack by a weapon of mass destruction involving the release of a nerve agent. In the triage area, you are presented with a patient who responds to painful stimuli and has an open airway. He is breathing 8 times a minute and has a weak radial pulse. He is wheezing and has pinpoint pupils. In his pocket is located a metered-dose inhaler containing albuterol. When caring for this patient, you should first:
A) administer positive pressure ventilation.
B) obtain vital signs, including the temperature.
C) administer albuterol with the metered-dose inhaler.
D) look for an injury causing shock.
Q2) A patient has inhaled cyanide gas. He is alert and complaining of shortness of breath. His airway is patent, his breathing is adequate, and his radial pulse is strong. His skin is warm and dry, and his breath sounds are clear. Given these assessment findings, what should the EMT do first?
A) Administer the antidote for cyanide.
B) Monitor the patient and transport.
C) Obtain vital signs with the patient in a supine position.
D) Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
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Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the flow regulator?
A) Increases or decreases the flow rate of IV fluid
B) Attaches the IV tubing to the IV catheter
C) Increases or decreases the drop size of the IV fluid infusing
D) Connects the IV bag to the patient
Q2) You are preparing an IV for your paramedic partner, and have just inserted the administration tubing into the IV solution bag. Your next step is to:
A) check the expiration date on the solution.
B) close the flow regulator.
C) attach the administration set to the IV catheter.
D) squeeze fluid into the drip chamber.
Q3) For the acquisition of a 4-lead tracing, why is the skin cleansed, dried, and shaved of hair (if necessary) prior to applying the ECG electrodes?
A) Because ECG monitoring is a sterile procedure
B) To decrease the amount of energy needed should the patient need to be defibrillated
C) To enhance the conductivity between the electrode and the skin
D) Because it makes the heart more responsive to defibrillatory shocks
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) Each and every time a patient is intubated, it is imperative that the EMT visualizes what structure?
A) Glottic opening
B) Vallecula
C) Carina
D) Alveoli
Q2) An endotracheal tube is properly placed when the distal end lies in the:
A) esophagus.
B) bronchus.
C) trachea.
D) lungs.
Q3) Which one of the following conditions causes the greatest immediate threat to life when you are attempting an intubation of a patient?
A) Trauma to the airway while you are inserting the tube
B) Increase in the patient's heart rate
C) Placement of the tube into the trachea
D) Placement of the tube in the esophagus
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