Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Training
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
The Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Training course provides foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for pre-hospital emergency care. Students will learn to assess patients, manage respiratory, trauma, and cardiac emergencies, perform basic life support, and use essential medical equipment. Emphasis is placed on rapid patient assessment, proper communication, and teamwork within emergency medical services (EMS). The course combines classroom instruction, hands-on laboratory practice, and clinical field experience to prepare students for the national EMT certification exam and immediate entry-level roles in emergency healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph J. Mistovich
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48 Chapters
2835 Verified Questions
2835 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public
Health
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been asked to sit on your service's quality improvement (QI) committee. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that you will be involved in projects that serve to:
A) communicate with insurance companies for increased reimbursement.
B) recruit and educate EMTs into the profession of the Emergency Medical Services. C) examine ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved.
D) identify and reeducate EMTs that routinely do not provide proper care.
Answer: C
Q2) An EMT with your service states that he desires to become a paramedic because he wants to provide advanced care. Under the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, which one of the following will he be able to provide as a paramedic that he cannot provide as an EMT?
A) Automated blood pressure monitoring
B) Emergency childbirth
C) Interfacility transports
D) Advanced patient assessment
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the immunizations should the EMT receive annually?
A) Purified protein derivative
B) Measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine
C) Hepatitis-B vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine
Answer: D
Q2) Changes in your lifestyle that may help you manage stress include:
A) eating a high-protein and fatty diet.
B) concentrating on your job 24 hours a day.
C) self-medication with over-the-counter medicines.
D) practicing relaxation techniques such as meditation.
Answer: D
Q3) The EMT is correctly performing routine hand washing when she:
A) uses an alcohol-based hand sanitizer without water.
B) rinses with hot water after using a disinfectant soap.
C) lathers and scrubs with plain soap for 10 to 15 seconds.
D) dries hands thoroughly for 30 seconds with a reusable towel.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old male has been stabbed in the abdomen. Assessment reveals him to be unresponsive with shallow breathing and a low blood pressure. Which of the following instructions will you provide to your new EMT partner given that the patient has been involved in a crime?
A) "I am not worried about potential evidence. I am just worried about the patient."
B) "Do not worry about documenting the crime scene in your report. The police report will reflect that information."
C) "We are not to move the patient to the stretcher until the police are done photographing the scene."
D) "When cutting his shirt off, make sure not to cut through the area where the knife penetrated."
Answer: D
Q2) For negligence to be proven, which of the following must be present?
A) Duty to act, injury, proximate cause
B) Duty to act, breach of duty, battery
C) Assault, breach of duty, damage
D) Harm to the patient, false imprisonment, duty to act
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) You document the following on the prehospital care report: "c/o H/A with associated n/v; pt. denies existing CNS problems or history of the same; states positive history of AAA and ETOH abuse." Regarding this narrative, which of the following is true?
A) The patient has a headache.
B) The patient has a history of drug problems.
C) The patient is nauseated but not vomiting.
D) The patient has a history of migraines.
Q2) An alert and oriented male patient with chest discomfort refuses treatment and transport to the hospital. He is angry with his family for calling 911 and refuses to sign the refusal form despite several requests. Which one of the following is your next best action?
A) Contact the police to place the patient into protective custody.
B) Have a family member sign as a witness to the father's refusal.
C) Call dispatch on a recorded telephone line and notify them of the situation prior to departing the scene.
D) Carefully restrain the patient and place him on the stretcher for transport.
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6
Chapter 5: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your partner accidentally uses a profane word when talking to dispatch. Which agency has the power to fine him and the ambulance service?
A) County Board of Commissioners
B) Department of Homeland Security
C) Local police department's division of communications
D) Federal Communications Commission
Q2) Which one of the following is an effective way to improve communication with most patients?
A) Have the patient look up at you.
B) Speak clearly and loudly.
C) Maintain eye contact.
D) Use medical terminology.
Q3) When using your portable radio, you must push the "press to talk" button and wait one second before speaking. This is essential to effective communication because your EMS system must use:
A) digital equipment.
B) repeaters.
C) portable transmitter/receiver.
D) cellular telephone links.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) You and two other EMTs are preparing to move a patient down several flights of stairs using a stair chair. After assigning one rescuer to hold the chair at the head and another to hold the chair at the foot facing the patient, you should:
A) assist the EMT at the patient's head.
B) direct movement from behind the EMT at the head.
C) assist the EMT at the patient's feet.
D) "spot" by standing behind the EMT at the feet.
Q2) When lifting the stretcher with a patient secured to it, the EMT must avoid which of the following?
A) Maintaining a straight back
B) Bending at the waist
C) Contracting the abdominal muscles
D) Lifting with the thigh muscles
Q3) When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her:
A) legs.
B) hips.
C) back.
D) arms.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient informs you that he must sprinkle artificial digestive enzymes on all of his foods before eating them. Based on this, which one of the following organs should you assume is dysfunctional?
A) Small intestine
B) Adrenal glands
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
Q2) What is the major artery of the thigh called?
A) Carotid artery
B) Femoral artery
C) Radial artery
D) Brachial artery
Q3) You are assessing a patient who informs you that her body abnormally forms blood clots, even when they are not needed to stop bleeding. Which one of the following conditions should you expect the patient to have?
A) Low red blood cell numbers
B) High white blood cell counts
C) Decreased clotting factors
D) Elevated number of platelets
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Chapter 8: Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with asthma is extremely short of breath and hypoxic. Related to the ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q), the EMT would recognize the problem lying in:
A) inadequate oxygen in the alveoli.
B) decreased cardiac output to circulate oxygen.
C) inadequate oxygen in the ambient air.
D) decreased blood volume to carry oxygen.
Q2) What happens after a cell in anaerobic metabolism breaks down glucose and creates energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A) Oxygen and water are created.
B) Lactic acid is formed.
C) Carbon dioxide and water are formed.
D) Electrolytes in the cell become balanced.
Q3) A chronically elevated afterload increases the patient's chance for developing which one of the following conditions?
A) Liver disease
B) Hypotension
C) Diabetes
D) Heart failure
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Chapter 9: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The systolic blood pressure of a 4-year-old female is 86 mmHg. Her mother is concerned because last year at the pediatrician's office the systolic blood pressure was 72 mmHg and now it is higher. How would you respond?
A) "Her blood pressure is most likely increased because she is sick."
B) "This is normal, not only will the blood pressure increase, but so will her heart rate."
C) "Her blood pressure will increase naturally. This is normal and healthy."
D) "I agree; that is a little bit of a jump in blood pressure. It very well could be the reason she is not feeling well."
Q2) A 7-year-old has fallen and exhibits deformity of his left wrist. He will not cooperate with you as you attempt a closer examination of the wrist. Which of the following statements would be appropriate given the patient's age and behavior?
A) "This will not hurt you at all. Please let me see your wrist."
B) "I know that you are scared, but I need to see your hand."
C) "The doctor is going to get upset with me if you do not let me see what is wrong."
D) "You can trust me. If I can see your wrist, I will get you kid's stickers at the hospital."
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Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation
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120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition would the EMT associate with a hypoxic respiratory drive?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Pneumonia
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Diabetes
Q2) When using a nonrebreather face mask, the EMT recognizes which one of the following?
A) The air exhaled by the patient will be recycled with oxygen.
B) The mask is comfortable and well tolerated by all patients when properly applied.
C) Approximately 90% of the patient's tidal volume will be oxygen.
D) Oxygen is delivered into the lungs even when the patient is not inhaling.
Q3) You are caring for a 46-year-old male patient who is unresponsive. Which one of the following statements made by your partner indicates the need to immediately stop suctioning the patient's airway and resume positive pressure ventilation?
A) "He is starting to have gurgling respirations."
B) "His heart rate is 48 beats per minute."
C) "You have been suctioning now for 10 seconds."
D) "He is biting down on the rigid-tip catheter."
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Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Correctly assessing orthostatic vital signs involves:
A) taking the blood pressure and heart rate three times, 2 minutes apart.
B) determining if the patient's pulse disappears during deep inspiration.
C) taking the blood pressure in the supine, seated, and standing positions.
D) determining if the patient's respirations and heart rate are within normal limits.
Q2) An EMT is correctly assessing a patient's radial pulse when he:
A) uses the palm of his hand to feel the pulse on the upper arm.
B) simultaneously checks for a heart rate on both sides of the neck.
C) uses his thumb to feel for the pulse on the patient's lower arm.
D) uses his fingertips to feel for a pulse at the patient's wrist.
Q3) Which one of the pulses listed below is palpated in the groin area?
A) Carotid
B) Inguinal
C) Pedal
D) Femoral
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13
Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dispatch has sent you to the scene of a fight at a local sporting event. Since the EMS system is busy and there are very few ambulances available, dispatch has instructed you to call for additional units after arrival on scene. On scene you find that the police are present and have what appear to be 10 people seated or lying on the ground, many with blood on their faces and clothing. When would you call for additional ambulances?
A) Once all patients have been triaged
B) After assessing and treating life-threatening injuries
C) Once the exact number of patients has been determined
D) Before getting out of the ambulance
Q2) You are providing care to a patient with altered mental status in the midst of a large crowd gathered for a concert. Which characteristic of the crowd should concern you the most in relation to personal safety?
A) Angry mood growing within the crowd
B) A growing number of people making up the crowd
C) The growing size of the crowd as more people gather to watch you
D) Presence of alcohol and possible drugs in the crowd
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14
Chapter 13: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) During your primary assessment, you note the patient's skin to be warm, pink, and dry. This should seemingly indicate:
A) possible shock.
B) possible fever.
C) poor oxygenation.
D) normal circulation.
Q2) A male patient was found in cardiac arrest by coworkers. On arrival you determined him to be in cardiac arrest and you started CPR. The AED was quickly placed and you shocked him once, restoring a heartbeat. During transport, the patient remains unresponsive, but is breathing and has a pulse. When conducting the reassessment phase on this patient, you should do which one of the following?
A) Perform a trauma assessment.
B) Recheck vital signs.
C) Remove the oropharyngeal airway.
D) Obtain a blood pressure every 20 minutes.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following best describes why the EMT administers or assists with the administration of medications?
A) To stabilize a patient's medical condition
B) To prevent illness and injury
C) To justify a lights-and-siren transport
D) To expand the scope of the EMT's practice
Q2) The route by which the EMT would administer epinephrine would be:
A) oral.
B) intramuscular.
C) sublingual.
D) topical.
Q3) A 66-year-old male is complaining of chest pain. The EMT is considering assisting with the patient's prescribed nitroglycerin. Which one of the following patient statements is most relevant to the EMT at this time?
A) "I forgot to take my high blood pressure medication this morning."
B) "I accidentally took five baby aspirins when the chest pain first started."
C) "I took a nitroglycerin yesterday for the pain and it didn't do anything."
D) "My urologist just started treating me for problems I am having with sex."
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding care for the adult patient in cardiac arrest is true?
A) "It is important to always check for a pulse immediately after the AED has delivered a shock."
B) "When using an AED, the machine should be turned on before applying the electrodes."
C) "When checking for a patient's pulse, the EMT should take no more than 5 seconds."
D) "If two EMTs are performing CPR, a ratio of 30 compressions to two ventilations can be used."
Q2) You are by the side of an unresponsive 6-month-old with a history of congenital heart disease. The patient's airway is patent, but he is not breathing. A heart rate of 24 beats per minute is noted. At this time, it is essential that you:
A) apply the AED with pediatric pads.
B) start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
C) start positive pressure ventilation with high-concentration oxygen.
D) place the patient on the stretcher for immediate and emergent transport.
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17
Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called for a 6-year-old male with shortness of breath. On scene you find the patient with a runny nose and mucus coming from the right nare. Breath sounds are clear and his SpO is 99% on room air. When asked, he states that his throat is very sore. His vital signs are: pulse 124, respirations 20, and temperature 98.9 F. There is no medical history, according to the mother. Which one of the following statements or instructions would be most appropriate for this situation?
A) "Why don't we give him an aspirin for his fever and then you can follow up at your pediatrician's office."
B) "I am very concerned he may have epiglottitis, so we are going to take him to the hospital with lights and siren."
C) "Let's give him some oxygen since the heart rate is most likely elevated because his oxygen is low."
D) "He is very stable, but we will take him to the hospital. The danger lies in the infection spreading to the lungs."
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Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient with a history of an unstable abdominal aortic aneurysm, the EMT should recognize and prepare for:
A) vomiting and airway occlusion.
B) hypoxia caused by lung compression.
C) massive internal bleeding.
D) decreased perfusion to the upper extremities.
Q2) You are treating a patient complaining of altered mental status, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A paramedic has just administered a medication that causes the sympathetic nervous system to increase its influence in the body. Which one of the following actions should you anticipate?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased blood pressure
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
Q3) Regarding arteries, the EMT should recognize that all arteries:
A) carry blood away from the heart.
B) have lower pressure than veins.
C) carry oxygen-rich blood.
D) are located in the torso of the body.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have just arrived by the side of a 46-year-old male dialysis patient with end-stage renal failure. He is positioned in his living room recliner, unresponsive with snoring respirations. Which of the following should you do first?
A) Administer high-concentration oxygen.
B) Perform a head-tilt, chin-lift.
C) Find out when he last received dialysis.
D) Inquire what time the symptoms started.
Q2) When attempting to distinguish a spinal injury from a stroke, the EMT should remember that:
A) spinal injuries always result in weakness to one side of the body.
B) stroke typically results in weakness or paralysis to one side of the body.
C) stroke does not cause paralysis, while spinal injuries typically do.
D) stroke usually causes weakness to all extremities; spinal injuries do not.
Q3) For altered mental status to occur, what body system must be affected?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Respiratory
C) Central nervous
D) Endocrine
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Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been actively seizing for 17 minutes. He is cyanotic with shallow respirations. What immediate care should you provide to this patient?
A) Determine if he has a history of seizures.
B) Place him in the lateral recumbent position.
C) Apply the automated external defibrillator.
D) Open the airway and begin positive pressure ventilation.
Q2) The initial part of a generalized seizure experienced by some patients is called the: A) syncopal stage.
B) aura.
C) clonic phase.
D) postictal state.
Q3) The EMT would recognize that a 49-year-old male has suffered a primary seizure when his wife states:
A) "He has never had a seizure before, this is the first seizure."
B) "He had seizures in the past, but they are not sure what causes them."
C) "The doctors said that his seizure come from one spot in his brain."
D) "His arms and legs were jerking and he would not talk to me."
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Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the administration of oral glucose, a patient's blood glucose level was 49 mg/dL. After administering the oral glucose, the patient is alert and oriented. Which one of the following repeat blood glucose levels would the EMT expect with this clinical presentation?
A) "Low"
B) 155 mg/dL
C) 30 mg/dL
D) "High"
Q2) You are instructing EMT students on how to obtain a blood sample for use in a glucometer. You are providing accurate information by stating:
A) "It is best to check the blood three times and then use the highest reading."
B) "Approximately 15 mL of blood will be needed for an accurate result."
C) "A small drop of blood obtained from the patient's fingertip is sufficient."
D) "Have the patient raise his or her arm in the air prior to obtaining blood."
Q3) What is a glucometer used to evaluate?
A) Glucose levels
B) Insulin levels
C) Glucogen levels
D) Insulin and glucose levels
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient suffers an allergic reaction after taking penicillin. In this case, the penicillin would be recognized as a/an:
A) IgE immunoglobulin.
B) antigen.
C) mast cell.
D) antibody.
Q2) A patient has just taken her first dose of Zocor for her high cholesterol. Within minutes, she begins to develop hives, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure. In this case, the EMT would recognize a/an:
A) sensitized immune response.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) hypersensitivity reaction.
D) anaphylactoid reaction.
Q3) During the primary assessment, which finding would most lead the EMT to suspect an allergic reaction?
A) Hives to the face and neck
B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
C) Heart rate of 112 beats per minute
D) Complaint of dizziness
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a dilapidated residence for a 26-year-old female complaining of generalized weakness. After applying gloves, you enter the home and find the patient on a couch in minimal distress. Your assessment reveals no life threats, but you do note track marks to both hands and arms. When asked about this, she states that she is an IV drug user and has hepatitis C. Given this information, you would:
A) apply goggles.
B) apply goggles and a gown.
C) place a HEPA mask on yourself.
D) continue care with gloves.
Q2) You are transporting a patient who wants help to rid herself of an addiction to pain medications. She says she has not taken any pain medications since yesterday, and needs help. Which of the following would you recognize as a sign of withdrawal?
A) Her mental status decreases.
B) Her body temperature falls.
C) She starts to become agitated.
D) She begins to cry uncontrollably.
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Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,
Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia is a blood disorder in which the:
A) platelets are unable to transport oxygen.
B) blood clots are unable to form properly.
C) red blood cells are malformed and do not form clots.
D) blood is thin and bleeding is difficult to control.
Q2) Pelvic inflammatory disease is best described as a(n): A) infection of the female reproductive organs.
B) ovarian cyst that has ruptured.
C) particularly painful menstrual period.
D) pain experienced as a female ovulates.
Q3) A patient with a history of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is complaining of weakness and abdominal pain. He informs you that he vomited 5 minutes before you arrived. Which of the following questions is it most important that the EMT ask first regarding the vomit?
A) "Did you eat anything that made you vomit?"
B) "Are you allergic to any foods or medications?"
C) "Did you take an antacid over the past 24 hours?"
D) "Was the vomit red or did it look like coffee grounds?"
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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are transporting a 44-year-old male who was stung multiple times by fire ants. Which one of the following patient statements should concern you most?
A) "I am beginning to feel itchy all over and have a hive."
B) "The bites are really beginning to hurt more."
C) "I took some Motrin this morning for a headache."
D) "My hand seems to be more swollen now."
Q2) Which one of the following signs or symptoms best indicates that the patient with cold skin is suffering from generalized hypothermia?
A) Blood pressure of 108/60 mmHg
B) Respirations of 24 per minute
C) Heart rate of 48 beats per minute
D) Pulse oximetry reading of 95%
Q3) Regarding snakebites, the EMT would recognize which statement as true?
A) Over half of all snake bites involve intoxicated males.
B) The majority of snakebites involve nonpoisonous snakes.
C) Over 75% of all poisonous snakebites involve the injection of venom.
D) The majority of snakebites result in death of the patient.
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Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old male was fishing when he was submerged for approximately 30 seconds after he moved into deeper water to untangle his fishing line. He states that he did take some water into his lungs but feels better now and does not see the need to be transported to the hospital. Which one of the following responses is most appropriate?
A) "We will wait here with you for another 20 minutes. If you do not cough, then you should be okay, and I will feel better about letting you refuse transport."
B) "Let me listen to your breath sounds again. If they are clear, then you should be okay to refuse additional care and transport."
C) "You seem okay now, but it may take a day or two for complications to become apparent. You really should be checked out in the hospital."
D) "Your pulse oximetry reading is 97% on room air, which indicates that you are breathing adequately. You should be okay to refuse, but keep an eye on yourself."
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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have had to restrain a patient who is being involuntarily committed to a psychiatric institution. During the restraint process, the patient vomited. How should you position him on the stretcher?
A) On his stomach with head elevated
B) Left lateral recumbent
C) Prone with head turned to side
D) Supine in a semi-Fowler's position
Q2) A patient experiencing command hallucinations would most likely tell you:
A) his arm is stiff and cannot be bent.
B) his arm is infected with worms and parasites.
C) his arm smells like rotten meat and is dead.
D) his arm must be amputated so he will not die.
Q3) You have been called for a female patient with a history of bipolar disease who is severely depressed and stated suicidal intentions. As such, you would expect what type of affect?
A) Flat
B) Dystonic
C) Labile
D) Manic
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the Trauma System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true?
A) Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths.
B) Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome.
C) Multisystem trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries.
D) A "spider web" or "star" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head.
Q2) A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the man's pancreas, stomach, and gallbladder were also injured, even though not in direct contact with the bullet. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that which of the following is responsible for injury to these additional organs?
A) Cavitation
B) Drag force
C) Profile impact
D) Blunt injury
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Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712
Sample Questions
Q1) Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of the patient assessment?
A) Primary assessment
B) Scene size-up
C) Secondary assessment
D) Reassessment
Q2) You are having a difficult time controlling bleeding from a small skin avulsion on a patient's ankle. Which one of the following statements made by the patient best explains why control has been difficult to achieve?
A) "I take Coumadin for my irregular heartbeat."
B) "My blood pressure sometimes runs a little high."
C) "I take steroids for my lung disease."
D) "I drank a lot of alcohol last night."
Q3) Which statement made by the EMT shows an understanding of bandaging an open wound?
A) "Bandages are sterile gauze pads used to stop bleeding."
B) "I use bandaging material to secure a dressing in place."
C) "You must always make sure that the bandage is sterile."
D) "After you apply a bandage, a dressing should be placed over it."
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Burns
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713
Sample Questions
Q1) A 24-year-old man was shocked while working on his house's electrical system. Assessment reveals a minor burn to the fingers on his left hand. Aside from being slightly shaky, he states he feels fine and does not see the need to be treated further or transported to the hospital. What statement would you make before allowing him to refuse additional care and transport?
A) "You really need to be evaluated in the hospital emergency department. The shock puts you at high risk for a stroke within the next 48 hours."
B) "You need to get the burn site cleaned to avoid infection. This can be done in the hospital emergency department."
C) "Electrical burns typically increase in pain as time goes on. The hospital emergency department can give you pain medication."
D) "It would be best to let the emergency physician check you out. Electrical shocks can damage the heart."
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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic
Fractures
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714
Sample Questions
Q1) An alert and oriented 22-year-old male has fallen off a tractor and is complaining of pain to his right leg. As you quickly scan the patient, you note deformity to the tibia-fibula area of the lower extremity. After conducting the primary assessment and manually stabilizing the leg, what action should the EMT take?
A) Apply the traction splint.
B) Transfer the patient to the stretcher.
C) Check for a pedal pulse.
D) Splint the leg in the position found.
Q2) A vacuum splint has just been applied to the arm of a patient who fell backward from a chair while hanging drapes. Which one of the following statements or questions should the EMT make or ask next?
A) "I am going to feel your wrist for a pulse now."
B) "Can you rate your pain for me?"
C) "I need to feel your arm for tenderness."
D) "I am wrapping the splint with roller gauze to secure it."
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Chapter 31: Head Trauma
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715
Sample Questions
Q1) A 57-year-old man fell on the sidewalk, hitting his head on the concrete. According to witnesses, the patient was unresponsive for several minutes following the fall. Which one of the following would be most critical to relay to the physician in the emergency department?
A) Knee replacement two years ago
B) History of alcoholism
C) Position in which the patient was found
D) History of depression
Q2) A construction worker was accidentally shot with a nail gun. The nail penetrated the skull approximately ½ inch through the temporal region. Before your arrival, coworkers pulled the nail free. Based on the mechanism of injury, which sign provides the strongest evidence that the meningeal layers have been broken?
A) Blood draining from the puncture wound
B) Crepitus of the skull at the injury site
C) Deformity and depression at the injury site
D) Cerebrospinal fluid oozing from the puncture wound
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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716
Sample Questions
Q1) The EMT should recognize a possible spinal column injury with no spinal cord involvement when he discovers what assessment finding?
A) Tenderness to the thoracic spine with intact motor and sensory to each extremity
B) Intact motor ability to all four extremities with loss of sensation to the legs
C) Pain to the cervical spine with loss of sensation to the right arm and leg
D) Intact sensation to all four extremities with loss of motor ability to the arms
Q2) You have been called for a patient with severe back pain. When obtaining a medical history, he tells you that he has a history of damaged disks in his vertebrae. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that the:
A) ligaments on the side of the spinal column were overstretched.
B) vertebrae making up the spinal column were fractured.
C) nerves making up the spinal cord have been damaged.
D) fluid-filled structures between the vertebrae have been injured.
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34
Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717
Sample Questions
Q1) You have been called to a high school science lab where a male student was splashed in the eye with an alkaline solution. He is complaining of burning to the eye as well as pain. After performing the primary assessment and finding no life-threatening conditions, you would:
A) obtain a set of vital signs and determine if the patient is taking medications or has any past medical problems.
B) determine the exact compound the patient was splashed with and the appropriate chemical antidote.
C) hold the patient's eye open and begin flushing with large amounts of tap water and continue throughout transport.
D) cover both eyes with eye shields and move to the ambulance for immediate transport.
Q2) A patient with hyphema would exhibit:
A) deformity of the sclera.
B) edema of the globe.
C) disfigurement of the eye.
D) blood in the eye chamber.
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Chapter 34: Chest Trauma
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718
Sample Questions
Q1) You are transporting a 19-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the chest. On scene you covered the wound with an appropriate dressing. Now, as you reassess the patient, you note that the patient is tachypneic and complaining of difficulty breathing. Breath sounds on the side of the injury are diminished. Your immediate action would be to:
A) tape the dressing on the fourth side.
B) lift the dressing from the wound for several seconds.
C) provide positive pressure ventilation with high-concentration oxygen.
D) cover the wound with another dressing.
Q2) You are managing a patient with a large flail segment to the right lateral chest. As such, you should recognize that the immediate threat to life is:
A) blood loss.
B) hypoxia.
C) infection.
D) rib fractures.
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Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ, if seriously injured, would cause the most rapid death?
A) Vena cava
B) Spleen
C) Stomach
D) Large intestine
Q2) The EMT recognizes that the division between the thoracic and abdominal cavities lies approximately:
A) at the level of the umbilicus.
B) at the fifth intercostal space.
C) below the twelfth rib.
D) above the twelfth thoracic vertebra.
Q3) A female patient who suffered a straddle injury while trying to balance on top of a chain link fence continues to bleed from the vaginal area despite your initial attempt to control the hemorrhage. At this time, you would:
A) apply an ice pack wrapped in a towel to the genital area.
B) gently put sterile gauze dressings into the opening of the vaginal canal.
C) place another dressing over the first and maintain direct pressure.
D) clean the area with sterile saline and reapply direct pressure.
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Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720
Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old male pedestrian was struck by a car at a convenience store. The patient is conscious but confused and is suffering from multisystem trauma. Which of the following represents the best sequence of care for this patient?
A) Primary assessment, oxygen, secondary assessment, immobilization, and all other care en route to the hospital
B) Primary assessment, immobilization, and all other care en route to the hospital
C) Primary assessment, oxygen, secondary assessment, and all other care en route to the hospital
D) Primary assessment, oxygen, secondary assessment, cervical collar, and all other care en route to the hospital
Q2) You are presenting information on emergency care to a class of pregnant women. A participant asks you what the most frequent cause of injury is to a woman during pregnancy. Which one of the following is the correct response?
A) Motor vehicle collisions
B) Falls
C) Domestic violence
D) Sexual assault
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Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721
Sample Questions
Q1) You are by the side of a 19-year-old female who is 36 weeks pregnant. When assessing this patient, which one of the following findings best indicates that she is in preterm labor?
A) Rupture of the amniotic sac
B) Complaint of lower back pain
C) Contractions 12 minutes apart
D) Feeling nauseated with each contraction
Q2) The EMT is performing CPR on a neonate. Which one of the following is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio?
A) 3 compressions to every 1 ventilation
B) 5 compressions to every 2 ventilations
C) 15 compressions to every 5 ventilations
D) 30 compressions to every 2 ventilations
Q3) What patient should the EMT be most suspicious of having a spontaneous abortion?
A) 16-year-old, 24 weeks pregnant, with painless contractions
B) 21-year-old, six weeks pregnant, passing vaginal blood clots
C) 32-year-old, in third trimester, passing foul-smelling and bloody vaginal discharge
D) 38-year-old, 36 weeks pregnant, having abdominal pain with painless vaginal bleeding
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Pediatrics
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722
Sample Questions
Q1) A concerned parent asks you which vaccine will decrease the risk of her child getting epiglottitis. Which vaccine would you tell her?
A) Hepatitis
B) Influenza
C) Haemophilus influenza
D) Hib vaccine
Q2) You have been called to a local day care for a sick child. On scene, panicked day care workers inform you that the 4-year-old child was lethargic all morning and wanted to sleep. After resting for several minutes, she began to "shake all over." This lasted for approximately 30 seconds. Your assessment reveals her to be responsive to painful stimuli and breathing adequately. Her airway is open and her radial pulse is strong and bounding. Her skin is hot and moist to the touch with no signs of cyanosis. You are told that she has no medical history. En route to the hospital, the patient's mental status improves. Based on this presentation and information, you assume that the seizure occurred secondary to:
A) hypoxia.
B) fever.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) altered mental status.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Geriatrics
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723
Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old female fell while walking to her bathroom. She is on the floor with severe pain to her right hip. Her airway is patent and breathing adequate. Family members tell you that she takes medication for high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and depression. When assessing the patient, what assessment finding is most concerning?
A) Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
B) External rotation of the hip
C) Weak pedal pulse in the right foot
D) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
Q2) You have been called for a conscious and alert 83-year-old male complaining of a fever for three days. He has a history of peripheral vascular disease. When assessing the patient's circulation, you have a difficult time feeling his radial pulse. Your next action would be to:
A) start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
B) check the patient's blood pressure.
C) locate the patient's carotid pulse.
D) apply supplemental oxygen.
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Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724
Sample Questions
Q1) When suctioning a 46-year-old male with a tracheostomy tube, which of the following is appropriate?
A) Suction from above, using the mouth or nose.
B) Suction no more than 5 seconds using a hard-tipped suction.
C) Introduce 20 mL of sterile water into the tracheostomy tube prior to suctioning.
D) Insert the suction cannula until resistance is met.
Q2) On scene you are presented with a 21-year-old female with multiple disfigurements from birth defects. She is nonverbal and according to her home health nurse, has a fever, which requires transport to the emergency department. Your partner is familiar with her since he transported her last week for the same condition. When obtaining the patient's past medical history, which source should be tried first?
A) Nurse
B) Mother
C) Patient
D) Partner
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Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725
Sample Questions
Q1) The wife of a military veteran with PTSD states that her husband became a type II diabetic 10 years after returning from combat. She states that there is no history of this in either side of the family and he is not overweight nor has any other risk factors for the disease. Consequently, she believes the diabetes is resultant from his experience in the military. Your response would be:
A) "The diabetes is most likely a result of undiagnosed traumatic brain injury, not the PTSD."
B) "It is not uncommon for combat veterans to unexplainably develop such conditions like this."
C) "I think we have to suspect that he sustained an injury to his pancreas at some point."
D) "Not that it cannot happen, but era veterans, not combat veterans, typically develop diabetes."
Q2) A traumatic brain injury (TBI) would most likely be caused by:
A) witnessing fellow soldiers dying.
B) accidentally shooting an unarmed civilian.
C) nearby explosion of a concussion grenade.
D) disappearance of best friend in platoon.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following illustrates a basic medical supply that must be carried on an ambulance?
A) Written protocols
B) Street maps
C) Exam gloves
D) Self contained breathing apparatus
Q2) While responding to an emergency call, what should you do if you encounter a school bus unloading students?
A) Slow down and carefully proceed past the school bus.
B) Continue responding as you were, since you have the right of way.
C) Stop and wait for all children to cross the road safely.
D) Stop and determine an alternative route to the emergency.
Q3) The use of high-visibility vests when operating on a roadway is a requirement of the: A) federal government.
B) state EMS department.
C) medical director.
D) state department of highways.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727
Sample Questions
Q1) To gain access to a patient entrapped in a car, the rescuers must use the "jaws of life" to open the door. The EMT should recognize this situation as:
A) complex access.
B) rapid extrication.
C) simple access.
D) hydraulic stabilization.
Q2) The rescue captain has asked that you disconnect a car's battery to shut down all power to the vehicle completely. How should you do this safely?
A) Remove the negative battery cable first.
B) Cut the positive battery cable, and then remove the negative cable.
C) Disconnect the positive battery cable first.
D) Remove the negative and positive cables simultaneously.
Q3) On the scene of a motor vehicle collision, which one of the following EMTs is engaged in simple extrication of the patient?
A) The EMT removing the patient from the car
B) The EMT entering the car to open the patient's airway
C) The EMT stabilizing the car to prevent it from moving
D) The EMT monitoring the scene for safety hazards
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Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728
Sample Questions
Q1) You have arrived on the scene of a chemical leak at an industrial park. The placard has a "1" in the blue diamond and a "4" in the red diamond, which means the material is:
A) flammable but represents a low health hazard.
B) explosive with a high health hazard associated.
C) a solid that is very flammable.
D) a flammable liquid with radioactive properties.
Q2) You have been trained to the level of OSHA "First Responder Awareness." Regarding this level of training, which of the following activities are you qualified to perform?
A) Stop and patch a leak in a broken valve emitting an unknown gas.
B) Recognize a potential hazardous materials emergency and call for the appropriate resources.
C) Provide detailed instructions on how to contain a spill of an unknown liquid.
D) Direct the operations at a hazardous materials emergency until the chemical is identified.
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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42729
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patient triage tags indicates the lowest priority for care and transport on the scene of a multiple-casualty incident?
A) Yellow
B) Red
C) Black
D) Green
Q2) You have been selected to represent EMS on a disaster planning committee involving many different agencies. Regarding preparation for a possible disaster, which item is most beneficial to stress in the meeting?
A) Specific terminology and codes will need to be established to make communication effective.
B) It will be important to ensure that all rescuers are flexible and can perform any task asked of them at a disaster.
C) The lay community will need to become involved by learning basic first aid and CPR.
D) Separate plans using the NIMS system need to be developed for natural and man-made disasters.
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Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons
of Mass Destruction
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730
Sample Questions
Q1) You are teaching an EMT class about the role of an EMS response to a terror attack involving weapons of mass destruction (WMD). A student asks you what constitutes a WMD. You would inform him that a WMD is any:
A) agent used to cause indiscriminate death and destruction.
B) weapon used to create fear and panic among the general population.
C) agent that is intended to kill a specific segment of the population.
D) biological agent that kills people and animals but does not destroy property.
Q2) Multiple EMS agencies are involved in a WMD incident involving hundreds of patients. Which item regarding the different protocols and medical direction used by those different agencies is best?
A) EMTs should automatically be able to administer any medication that a paramedic can administer.
B) Most protocols involving on-line medical direction should convert to standing orders.
C) On-line medical direction should be used for any and all treatment by EMS.
D) All on-line medical direction should be suspended.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731
Sample Questions
Q1) As an EMT educated to assist the paramedic with advanced life support care, you know that an ECG provides information on:
A) the electrical activity of the heart.
B) how well oxygenated blood is flowing through the body.
C) the degree of health of the heart and lungs.
D) the amount of blood being pumped by the heart.
Q2) When preparing an IV for administration, what part of the administration set is inserted into the bag of fluid?
A) Administration hub
B) Drip chamber
C) Spike
D) Flow regulator
Q3) Where would you place the electrode if you were going to attach the V lead to it?
A) Right sternal border, fifth intercostal space
B) Third intercostal space, midclavicular line on the right thorax
C) Right leg, just distal to the medial malleolus
D) Lateral to V , on the left midaxillary line of the left thorax
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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732
Sample Questions
Q1) An endotracheal tube is properly placed when the distal end lies in the:
A) esophagus.
B) bronchus.
C) trachea.
D) lungs.
Q2) Why would providing Sellick's maneuver be beneficial when performing endotracheal intubation?
A) Assist the paramedic in visualizing the glottis opening.
B) Movement of air from the pharynx into the esophagus is increased.
C) Chance of vomitus entering the esophagus is decreased.
D) Sellick's stabilizes the cervical spine while intubation is attempted.
Q3) As the laryngoscope is inserted into the patient's mouth, the tongue should be:
A) swept to the right.
B) compressed by the blade.
C) swept to the left.
D) pulled forward.
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