Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Management Exam Answer Key - 2835 Verified Questions

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Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Management

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Management explores the principles, practices, and operational strategies essential to leading and supervising EMS organizations. The course covers topics such as EMS systems design, leadership, personnel management, quality improvement, budgeting, resource allocation, and compliance with legal and regulatory standards. Students will gain insight into policy development, risk management, disaster planning, and effective communication within diverse EMS environments. Through case studies and practical applications, the course prepares students to address challenges unique to EMS leadership and to implement systems that promote the delivery of high-quality prehospital care.

Recommended Textbook

Prehospital Emergency Care 10th Edition by Joseph

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48 Chapters

2835 Verified Questions

2835 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) As a supervisor with an emergency ambulance service, which of the following would recognize as falling under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

A) An EMT who has requested help with a drug and alcohol problem

B) Applicant who cannot pass the EMT certification exam because he is dyslexic

C) Blind patient that your service transports regularly to and from the hospital

D) A dispatcher with a prosthetic leg who requires parking next to the building entrance

Answer: D

Q2) Which statement made by an EMT indicates understanding of the underlying benefit of using evidence-based medicine?

A) Formulates emergency care guidelines that have been reviewed by the legal community

B) Improves patient care while simultaneously reducing the costs associated with EMS

C) Provides for legal representation in the quality improvement process

D) Allows the use of research and evidence in determining what care is effective

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt

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56 Verified Questions

56 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient informs you that he was recently diagnosed with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), but has yet to develop AIDS. Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Until the patient develops AIDS, he is not infectious.

B) Family members should not share his hand towels or utensils.

C) The hepatitis B and C vaccines provide the EMT limited protection from transmission.

D) Gloves will be enough protection unless body fluids are present.

Answer: D

Q2) You have worked with the same partner for several years and know him well. Over the past three months the two of you have had four horrific pediatric calls with death as the outcome of each. Which observation would make you the most suspicious that your partner is experiencing a possible stress reaction?

A) Excessive and uncharacteristic irritability

B) Request to be scheduled for night shifts

C) Interest in going back to school to study accounting

D) Statement that he intends to drop to part-time status

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your EMS station has been designated a Baby Safe Haven. As such, you know that:

A) a mother or father can drop the baby off and leave with no questions asked.

B) you are legally required to provide basic supplies (e.g., bottles and diapers) to the mother or father.

C) a mother or father can bring his or her baby to the station for basic care issues.

D) you are legally required to provide the mother or father with resources to assist in the care of the baby.

Answer: A

Q2) An intoxicated 72-year-old male with an alcoholic history has fallen and has a laceration on the back of his head. He states that he does not want treatment and becomes combative when you try to talk to or assess him. Your best course of action would be to:

A) transport him against his will.

B) have him sign a refusal.

C) contact medical direction.

D) transport him by permission of family.

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Documentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) After oxygen therapy, the patient's SpO improves from 90% to 99%. Using the CHEATED method of documentation, this would be placed in which category?

A) C-Chief complaint

B) H-History

C) E-Evaluation

D) D-Disposition

Q2) A prehospital care report reads: "GSW to torso (LLQ)." Based on this, you should recognize that the patient sustained a(n):

A) gunshot to the left chest.

B) injury to the left torso.

C) bullet injury to the left chest.

D) injury to the lower abdomen.

Q3) Which item would the EMT place in the administrative information section of the prehospital care report?

A) BLS Unit 51-20; Incident # 67-8971-90

B) Patient: Henry, Steven M

C) "Patient found supine on the porch."

D) Blue State Insurance #425-22892; GRP# 456298

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Chapter 5: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements is most appropriate when communicating with the medical facility that will receive the patient?

A) "Inbound with a 52-year-old suffering from a myocardial infarction."

B) "En route to your facility with a 73-year-old male complaining of dizziness."

C) "Five minutes out with Mr. John Panzer who called us today for high blood pressure."

D) "En route with a drug addict who has overdosed on an unspecified amount of heroin."

Q2) Which one of the following best explains the reason why emergency services communications are recorded?

A) The state EMS agency will use the recording to determine if care was appropriate.

B) The federal government requires that all communications be recorded.

C) Communications can become part of a legal record if need be.

D) The Federal Communications Commission reviews all recordings for communication appropriateness.

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Chapter 6: Lifting and Moving Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A large patient has been placed on the stretcher, and you and your partner are preparing to raise the stretcher using the power lift. Which one of the following observations of your partner would cause you to stop the lift in order to correct his technique?

A) Both feet are turned slightly outward.

B) His hands are approximately 10 inches apart.

C) Both feet are flat on the ground.

D) His feet are positioned closely together.

Q2) In preparing the schedule, you have been instructed to pair EMTs in a way that decreases the chance of injury when lifting and moving patients. Given this directive, who would make the best partner for a tall and very strong EMT?

A) A tall and very strong EMT

B) A short and very strong EMT

C) A short and weaker EMT

D) A tall and weaker EMT

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8

Chapter 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has severe swelling of the leaf-shaped flap that helps to prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system. Knowing that the suffix "itis" refers to inflammation, which one of the following conditions is the patient suffering from?

A) Epiglottitis

B) Tracheitis

C) Pharyngitis

D) Bronchitis

Q2) A patient with kidney failure has lost his ability to:

A) produce all hormones.

B) absorb nutrients.

C) filter and excrete wastes.

D) digest fatty foods.

Q3) Another EMT informs you that a patient has been stabbed once with a knife in the left midaxillary region. Where is this injury located?

A) Left chest

B) Left shoulder

C) Left lateral chest

D) Left side of the abdomen

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9

Chapter 8: Pathophysiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a healthy person has a sudden increase in blood pressure, which one of the following will occur?

A) Chemoreceptors will increase the rate and depth of breathing.

B) Baroreceptors will directly stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system.

C) The heart rate will increase and blood vessels will constrict.

D) Baroreceptors will signal the brain to decrease the heart rate.

Q2) Which of the following statements would be true of a patient who relies on the hypoxic drive to breathe?

A) The primary gas affecting the respiratory rate is carbon dioxide.

B) The peripheral chemoreceptors have become less sensitive to oxygen.

C) The respiratory rate is set according to the level of O in the body.

D) The central chemoreceptors are the primary influence on the respiratory rate.

Q3) For a patient who is bleeding, which of the following is the immediate response of the human body?

A) Vasoconstriction caused by the parasympathetic nervous system

B) Increased production of red blood cells and hemoglobin

C) Vasoconstriction caused by the sympathetic nervous system

D) Increased pulse pressure to promote better circulation of oxygen

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10

Chapter 9: Life Span Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 16-year-old male was killed after driving at excessive speeds and then losing control of his car. He was not wearing a seat belt. In an attempt to understand why such a tragedy would occur, you would recognize that:

A) during this stage of life, the "right versus wrong" part of the brain is not fully developed.

B) adolescent boys have a drive of competitiveness amongst their peers.

C) within the adolescent period, there exists a strong desire to show independence and self sufficiency.

D) common to this age group is a perceived sense of strength and invulnerability.

Q2) A patient informs you that she has already gone through menopause. You would realize that:

A) her menstrual periods are irregular and she cannot have a baby.

B) she has stopped outright menstrual periods but can still become pregnant.

C) she will still have menstrual periods but is incapable of pregnancy.

D) she has stopped menstrual periods and cannot become pregnant.

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Chapter 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation

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120 Verified Questions

120 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The EMT is correctly performing the jaw-thrust airway maneuver when she:

A) places her hands on the side of the patient's head and lifts the jaw upward.

B) maintains the head in a neutral position and slightly tilts the head backward.

C) opens the airway by slightly extending the head and thrusting the jaw upward.

D) places one hand on the forehead and lifts the jaw upward with her other hand.

Q2) Which one of the following statements made by an EMT shows that she understands how to suction patients in a field setting?

A) "When caring for a young child, I suction for a minimum of 5 seconds."

B) "To thoroughly suction a patient, I insert the rigid-tip catheter past the base of the tongue and into the pharynx."

C) "It is helpful to pour sterile water into the patient's mouth to liquefy vomit and make it easier to suction."

D) "I only activate the suction device when I am withdrawing the suction catheter."

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Chapter 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking

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123 Verified Questions

123 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient presents with extremely pale skin. His family states that this is not his normal skin color. His vital signs are pulse 108, respirations 18, blood pressure 102/86, and SpO 96% Which one of the following complaints would make the most sense given this clinical presentation?

A) Persistent cough

B) Fever

C) Rectal bleeding

D) Headache

Q2) Your partner states that he wants to palpate the blood pressure. What equipment would you hand him?

A) Blood pressure cuff

B) Stethoscope

C) Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope

D) Stethoscope and pulse oximeter

Q3) Which patient description contains only vital signs?

A) Chief complaint of dizziness, skin cool and clammy, respiratory rate 16

B) Chief complaint of dizziness, BP 110/76 mmHg, breath sounds clear and equal

C) Skin warm and dry, heart rate 74, pupils equal and reactive

D) Heart rate 88, respiratory rate 14, blood glucose level 98 mg/dL

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Scene Size-Up

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When should the EMT evaluate the scene of an emergency for hazards that may threaten or harm him?

A) Prior to leaving the ambulance

B) After completing the primary assessment

C) Throughout the entire call

D) Before responding to the call

Q2) Which of the following standard precautions must the EMT take on every call?

A) Gloves

B) Gloves and face shield

C) Gloves, gown, and goggles

D) Goggles and gown

Q3) You are entering the scene where a 32-year-old intoxicated male has fallen down 13 stairs leading to the basement. He is seated on the floor of the basement, holding a bloody towel over his face. During the initial scene size-up, what is it essential that the EMT quickly identify?

A) The patient's level of consciousness

B) Possible need of additional personnel

C) Status of the patient's airway and breathing

D) Amount of alcohol consumed by the patient

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Patient Assessment

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104 Verified Questions

104 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) On what patient should the EMT perform a rapid head-to-toe secondary assessment, as opposed to a focused secondary assessment?

A) 22-year-old male who is alert and oriented with a deformed ankle that occurred when he tripped playing basketball and landed hard

B) 36-year-old construction worker who was shot in the hand with a nail gun; the nail remains impaled in his hand and bleeding is minor

C) 24-year-old male with stable vitals who is alert and oriented and is complaining of chest pain secondary to a motor vehicle collision in which the passenger was killed

D) 46-year-old roofer with a history of coronary heart disease, complaining of a burn to his left lower leg after being splashed with hot tar

Q2) While performing the secondary assessment on a male patient who was ejected from his motorcycle, he suddenly states that it has become very hard to breathe. You would:

A) make a mental note and continue with your exam.

B) stop your exam and evaluate the patient's new complaint.

C) reassess the patient, beginning with the head.

D) reconsider the mechanism of injury and look for a chest injury.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration

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38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are assisting a patient with her metered-dose inhaler (MDI). In an effort to determine the exact name of the medication, it would be best for the EMT to:

A) ask the patient the name of the medication.

B) contact and describe the MDI to medical direction.

C) look up the medication using the Physician's Desk Reference (PDR).

D) find the medication name on the label on the metered dose inhaler.

Q2) Which one of the following medications would the EMT administer orally?

A) Aspirin

B) Nitroglycerin

C) Albuterol

D) Epinephrine

Q3) When reviewing a prehospital care report, you note that a patient received nitroglycerin sublingually. As an EMT, you should recognize that the medication was a:

A) mist inhaled into the lungs.

B) tablet placed under the tongue.

C) medication injected into a muscle.

D) tablet chewed or swallowed whole.

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Chapter 15: Shock and Resuscitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are reassessing a young female who sustained blunt trauma to the chest in a motor vehicle collision. What assessment finding best indicates that she is deteriorating and in the decompensatory phase of shock?

A) Heart rate 100 beats per minute

B) Blood pressure 88/50 mmHg

C) Blood continuing to ooze from an abdominal laceration

D) Restless and confused mental status

Q2) You have been dispatched to a residence for a male patient with a cardiac history who is complaining of chest pain. On scene you find a 52-year-old male patient sitting in a chair. He is alert and oriented and states that his chest pain feels like the last time he had a heart attack. He also states that in the hospital his heart stopped and they had to shock him twice before it restarted. He is breathing adequately and has a strong radial pulse. Which one of the following would be appropriate in the care of this patient?

A) Apply the AED to the patient but do not turn it on.

B) Provide positive pressure ventilation with high-concentration oxygen.

C) Open the airway using the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.

D) Obtain the heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure.

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Chapter 16: Respiratory Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is important for the EMT to remember that when an infant or child starts to become hypoxic, the pulse will initially:

A) decrease.

B) not change.

C) become irregular.

D) increase.

Q2) Auscultation of breath sounds in a patient complaining of shortness of breath reveals wheezing. Which one of the following conditions is responsible for this finding?

A) Bronchiole constriction

B) Significant hypoxia

C) Swelling in the throat

D) Mucus in the lungs

Q3) When assessing an adult patient with difficulty breathing, what sign or symptom would be of most concern?

A) Temperature of 101.3°F

B) Blue coloration to the lips

C) Rate between 20 and 24 breaths per minute

D) Cyanosis to the fingernails

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18

Chapter 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Immediately after assisting a diabetic patient with her nitroglycerin, she states that she feels weak, dizzy, and nauseated. Which of the following should the EMT do next?

A) Position her in an upright position.

B) Inform her that this is normal.

C) Determine her blood glucose level.

D) Check her blood pressure.

Q2) On room air, which patient requires supplemental oxygen?

A) 66-year-old female; generalized weakness; history of diabetes; SpO 97%

B) 52-year-old male; chest pain; history of MI; SpO 95%

C) 39-year-old male; complaint of tingling in hands; headache; respirations of 30; SpO 98%

D) 47-year-old female; temperature 100.3°F; denies sob; SpO 91%

Q3) You are interviewing a patient you suspect to be suffering from acute coronary syndrome. Which of the following questions is most appropriate?

A) "Are you having any pain in your chest?"

B) "Are you having any chest discomfort or pain?"

C) "Does it hurt when I press on your chest?"

D) "Does your chest hurt when you breathe?"

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Chapter 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your 56-year-old patient is in bed and unable to speak. Family members state that he has had a previous stroke and has been bedridden since, but has always been able to talk, until a few hours ago when his speech became garbled. They also state that the last stroke left him paralyzed on his left side. Your assessment reveals him unable to speak, but with an open airway, adequate respirations, and a strong radial pulse. Additionally you note that he is unable to move his right arm. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following would be most appropriate in the care on this patient?

A) Rapid transport

B) Suction the mouth.

C) Administer positive pressure ventilation.

D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

Q2) When assessing a patient for a facial droop, the EMT should:

A) palpate the face one side at a time.

B) gently lift and then let go of the skin over the cheeks.

C) ask the patient to show you his teeth or smile.

D) observe the patient's ability to turn his head to the right and then to the left.

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Chapter 19: Seizures and Syncope

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is important that the EMT recognize that a complex partial (psychomotor) seizure can easily be mistaken for a(n):

A) asthma exacerbation.

B) left-sided stroke.

C) absence (petit mal) seizure.

D) alcohol intoxication.

Q2) An 86-year-old male has had a sudden change in mental status and is repeatedly striking a fist against his leg. When you question him, he does not respond. This presentation is most consistent with what condition?

A) Seizure

B) Dementia

C) Stroke

D) Delirium

Q3) Which one of the following patients should be classified as suffering from status epilepticus?

A) 16-year-old male experiencing a partial motor seizure for 7 minutes

B) 89-year-old who seized immediately upon getting out of bed

C) 19-year-old female who briefly seized but has been postictal for 20 minutes

D) 57-year-old female who seized during the entire news program

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following accurately describes insulin?

A) Pill that must be taken by diabetic patients

B) Hormone that breaks food into simple sugar

C) Drug that increases the sugar in the blood

D) Hormone that enables glucose to move into the cells

Q2) Prior to the administration of oral glucose, a patient's blood glucose level was 49 mg/dL. After administering the oral glucose, the patient is alert and oriented. Which one of the following repeat blood glucose levels would the EMT expect with this clinical presentation?

A) "Low"

B) 155 mg/dL

C) 30 mg/dL

D) "High"

Q3) An alert but confused diabetic patient is complaining of weakness. Your service carries oral glucose, which has been authorized through off-line medical direction. In this case you should:

A) contact the patient's primary care physician.

B) transport for further evaluation in the hospital.

C) contact medical direction for authorization.

D) prepare and administer the oral glucose.

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Chapter 21: Anaphylactic Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) You have arrived by the side of a lethargic patient who is allergic to latex and was exposed to it when she spilled a latex-containing powder on her right hand. She is only able to speak a few words with each breath. Additionally, her tongue is swollen and respirations are rapid, labored, and noisy. What action is your immediate priority?

A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

B) Wash the latex powder from the patient's hand.

C) Obtain a heart rate and blood pressure.

D) Start positive pressure ventilation.

Q2) Five minutes after assisting a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector, you determine the patient to be getting progressively worse. The patient has a second auto-injector available; however, written protocols do not address the administration of a second dose. Which one of the following should be your next best action?

A) Request advanced life support (ALS) assistance.

B) Administer the second dose of epinephrine.

C) Continue to monitor the patient.

D) Contact medical direction for further orders.

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Chapter 22: Toxicologic Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 14-year-old female has taken an excessive amount of Tylenol with codeine. Family states that they were asleep when they heard a crash and found her at the bottom of the stairs. When they asked her if she was okay, she told them that her boyfriend broke up with her and she saw no point in going on, therefore she took the overdose. As you arrive by the patient's side, you note that she is responsive to verbal stimuli and breathing shallowly. Your first action would be to:

A) open the airway with the head-tilt, chin-lift.

B) determine exactly how much medication she took.

C) start positive pressure ventilation with oxygen.

D) take manual in-line spinal stabilization.

Q2) When assessing a patient who has been exposed to a poisonous substance, it is essential to recognize:

A) vomiting indicates that the poison has not yet been absorbed into the body.

B) the signs and symptoms of toxic exposure will vary depending on the specific poison.

C) the route of entry into the body will determine the signs and symptoms.

D) absorption into the body has not occurred if the signs of illness are not apparent within 15 minutes.

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Chapter 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic,

Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient informs you that he has had a section of his small intestine removed due to cancer. You recognize that with the removal of small intestine, the patient is less able to:

A) digest food.

B) absorb nutrients.

C) secrete insulin.

D) break down fats.

Q2) You are transporting a visibly upset female who was raped after she let a male stranger into her house. When questioning the patient, which of the following would be appropriate for the EMT to ask?

A) "Why would you let someone in your house you did not know?"

B) "Do you have any history of a sexually transmitted disease?"

C) "Have you ever been sexually assaulted or raped before?"

D) "Please tell me exactly where you are hurting."

Q3) The EMT would recognize a hematologic condition as:

A) a patient with a large hematoma to the scalp after falling.

B) a patient with an elevated white blood cell count due to leukemia.

C) a patient with antibodies in her bloodstream capable of casing anaphylaxis.

D) a patient with pneumonia who is profoundly hypoxic.

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Chapter 24: Environmental Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young female was weeding her garden when she was bitten on her left hand by an unidentified snake. The primary assessment does not reveal any life threats and vital signs are stable. In caring for this patient, it is critical that the EMT:

A) apply ice packs to the area of the snake bite.

B) administer the epinephrine auto-injector into the site.

C) have the patient remove her wedding ring from her left hand.

D) attempt to locate the snake for identification.

Q2) You have been called to a park for a teenage boy who is "sick." On scene you find a 16-year-old male who knows his name but is confused about place and time. Friends state that they have been playing basketball most of the morning and afternoon. The temperature is in the 90s and the humidity is high. His airway is patent and his breathing is fast but adequate. His pulse is weak and rapid. Observation of his skin reveals it to be pale, cool, and moist. Oxygen is being administered via nonrebreather face mask. Which one of the following would be appropriate care for this patient?

A) Place him supine on the stretcher with feet elevated.

B) Lay the patient down and place in side-lying position.

C) Administer Tylenol tablets by mouth to lower the body temperature.

D) Pour cold water over the patient and fan him aggressively.

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26

Chapter 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies

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Sample Questions

Q1) The EMT is correctly using a rope with a throw bag when he:

A) tosses the throw bag using an underhand motion toward the patient. B) throws the rope overhand and slightly beyond the patient's location. C) goes downstream and floats the throw bag toward the patient. D) ties the throw bag to a stationary object and throws the rope to the patient.

Q2) A confused and lethargic 22-year-old male patient with no medical history came up from a deep sea dive and is now complaining of shortness of breath and sharp pain, which he localizes to the right side of his chest. He denies nausea, vomiting, or dizziness. You have applied oxygen and are getting ready for transport. How will you transport this patient on the stretcher?

A) Lateral recumbent

B) Semi-Fowler's

C) Supine

D) Trendelenburg (shock position)

Q3) Which patient has the best chance for an optimal outcome after drowning?

A) 34-year-old female submerged for 9 minutes in 39°F water

B) 47-year-old male submerged for 8 minutes in a heated swimming pool

C) 22-year-old female submerged for 10 minutes in a whirlpool with 90°F water

D) 17-year-old female submerged for 10 to 12 minutes in warm salt water

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Behavioral Emergencies

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42710

Sample Questions

Q1) After restraining a patient on the stretcher, what action is it essential that the EMT perform first?

A) Check the tightness of the chest strap.

B) Check the extremities for pulses and motor ability.

C) Inform the patient of what will occur during transport.

D) Obtain a set of vital signs, excluding temperature.

Q2) You have been called for a young male patient who has been withdrawn. The patient appears depressed and when you ask him if he is thinking about hurting himself, he answers "yes." The next question asked by the EMT should be:

A) "Do you have a plan?"

B) "Do you take medications?"

C) "Are there guns in the house?"

D) "Do you want to go to the hospital?"

Q3) What type of hallucination is most dangerous?

A) Command

B) Tactile

C) Visual

D) Dissociative

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Chapter 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the

Trauma System

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42711

Sample Questions

Q1) An 8-year-old boy fell forward off of a swing onto outstretched arms. He did not hit his head or lose consciousness and is complaining of left forearm pain. There is deformity to the left wrist, but no other injuries or life threats. His vital signs are pulse 132, respirations 20, blood pressure 108/62, and SpO 100%. The proper care of this patient would be:

A) immediately load and transport, splinting the injury en route.

B) apply high-concentration oxygen and anatomically splint the forearm when the patient is immobilized to a long backboard.

C) splint the forearm and apply a cold pack before transporting non-emergently.

D) call ALS so that the patient can be given intravenous pain medications before splinting the forearm.

Q2) Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true?

A) Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths.

B) Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome.

C) Multisystem trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries.

D) A "spider web" or "star" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head.

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma

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74 Verified Questions

74 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42712

Sample Questions

Q1) You are transporting a male patient who was stabbed in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. On scene the patient was alert and oriented with a patent airway and adequate respirations. There was minimal hemorrhage from the stab wound, which was covered with a sterile dressing. Oxygen was applied and transport was initiated. During the reassessment, which one of the following assessment findings should the EMT consider of most concern?

A) Statement that the pain at the injury is increasing

B) Observation that blood is beginning to ooze from the injury

C) Increased redness and edema to area surrounding stab wound

D) Increase in heart rate and unexplained restlessness

Q2) You have just applied a pressure dressing to the leg of a woman who suffered a deep laceration to her calf from a piece of broken glass. Which one of the following should you do next?

A) Determine if the bleeding has stopped.

B) Obtain a follow-up blood pressure.

C) Apply a tourniquet above the laceration.

D) Assess for a pedal pulse.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Burns

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42713

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement made by an EMT shows that he understands the major cause of death in the prehospital setting for a burn patient?

A) "Most burn patients who die before getting to the hospital die of airway or bleeding problems, not the burn itself."

B) "Most patients who die before getting to the hospital die from burn shock, caused by massive fluid loss from the burns."

C) "The most common cause of death for burn patients in the prehospital setting is infection, which can be minimized by applying a sterile burn sheet."

D) "Burn patients most often die before reaching the hospital from the increased body temperature caused by the heat of the burns."

Q2) A patient has a burn that completely encircles his right forearm and upper arm. After performing the primary assessment, the EMT's next action would be to:

A) evaluate and compare grip strength in the right and left hands.

B) check for motor, sensory, and a pulse in the right upper extremity.

C) ask the patient to rate the pain on a scale of one to ten.

D) carefully break the blisters to decrease the pressure caused by swelling.

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Chapter 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic

Fractures

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42714

Sample Questions

Q1) What assessment finding would contraindicate the use of the traction splint?

A) Deformity to the hip

B) Decreased pedal pulse

C) Numbness to the foot

D) Open fracture

Q2) A patient has a history of tendonitis to the right elbow. Based on this, the EMT would understand that the:

A) patient suffered a previous fracture to the right elbow.

B) tissue connecting the muscle to the bones of the elbow is inflamed.

C) muscles surrounding the elbow are inflamed.

D) bones making up the elbow joint are infected.

Q3) An alert and oriented 22-year-old male has fallen off a tractor and is complaining of pain to his right leg. As you quickly scan the patient, you note deformity to the tibia-fibula area of the lower extremity. After conducting the primary assessment and manually stabilizing the leg, what action should the EMT take?

A) Apply the traction splint.

B) Transfer the patient to the stretcher.

C) Check for a pedal pulse.

D) Splint the leg in the position found.

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Head Trauma

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42715

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman strikes her forehead against the dashboard of her car as it strikes a tree. Immediately following the impact, her brain bounces back and forth within her skull.

Based on the anatomy and physiology of the skull, which of the following is true?

A) The ridges of the basilar skull can damage the brain as it shifts back and forth.

B) The frontal bone is the thinnest portion of the skull and will most likely be fractured.

C) Her brain will not be injured unless an object from the dashboard penetrates her skull.

D) Her brain will most likely not be damaged since the skull's flexibility is designed to absorb the force of the impact.

Q2) The normal response of the pupils while examined with a penlight is described as:

A) dilative.

B) diploplia.

C) dysconjugate.

D) consensual.

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Chapter 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma

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59 Verified Questions

59 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42716

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient injured in a motor vehicle collision is suffering from the separation of the rib and its associated spinal vertebrae. Based on the anatomy of the spine, where has this injury occurred?

A) Lumbar spine

B) Cervical spine

C) Middle spine

D) Thoracic spine

Q2) You have arrived on a shooting where a middle-aged male has suffered a single gunshot wound to the abdomen. As you approach the patient, you note that he is sitting up and talking with the police officer holding a blood-soaked towel over the left upper quadrant of his abdomen. Your initial action in caring for this patient is to:

A) take manual in-line spinal stabilization.

B) determine the need for airway management.

C) expose the abdomen to assess the gunshot wound.

D) obtain a pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and SpO .

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Chapter 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42717

Sample Questions

Q1) While working to build a house, a construction worker was hit in the head by a 2" × 4" plank that slid from the roof and fell to the ground below. The patient has a sizable laceration to the left side of his face and is spitting blood. He also lost several teeth, two of which he is holding. Your initial action when caring for this patient would be to:

A) suction the airway.

B) establish manual in-line spinal stabilization.

C) obtain and preserve the teeth.

D) apply occlusive dressing to the laceration.

Q2) A 19-year-old female was assaulted by her intoxicated boyfriend. After punching her in the chest, he slashed her face with a knife. Assessment reveals her to be stable with a large laceration from beneath her right eye to her right ear. She is very upset and crying and repeatedly asks you if this injury will leave a permanent scar on her face. Your best response would be:

A) "You will be fine. You are lucky he didn't cut an artery."

B) "I am not worried about your looks; I am worried about preventing infection."

C) "When we get to the hospital, we can discuss this with the doctor."

D) "You will be fine. The stitches used today do not scar like they used to."

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Chest Trauma

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42718

Sample Questions

Q1) An alert and oriented young male fell 5 feet from a stage, impacting a metal railing with the right side of his chest, just under his armpit. The primary assessment is negative for life threats, although he does complain of very painful breathing and has remarkable tenderness and crepitus over the 5th rib laterally in this area. Throughout care, what action is essential to perform?

A) Apply ice to area.

B) Administer aspirin for pain.

C) Monitor breath sounds.

D) Splint site with a bulky dressing.

Q2) A young boy has an open chest wound to the left lateral area after falling off of his bike onto a metal spike in the ground. His family is present and very upset and crying. As an EMT, you recognize that in this situation, your primary focus is:

A) controlling pain.

B) maintaining oxygenation.

C) providing emotional support.

D) preventing potential wound infection.

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Chapter 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42719

Sample Questions

Q1) You are transporting a male patient with a deep stab wound to the groin, with damage also noted to the genitalia. The patient is alert and oriented, albeit restless. Vital signs on scene were pulse 136, respirations 20, blood pressure 106/64, and SpO 9%.

Oxygen is being administered through a nonrebreathing face mask. On reassessment, what sign would be most concerning to the EMT?

A) Patient's urge to void

B) Blood pressure 108/90 mmHg

C) SpO remaining at 96% despite O therapy

D) Heart rate of 124 beats per minute

Q2) Which one of the following injuries is most likely to cause peritonitis?

A) Contusion to the pancreas

B) Stab wound to the small intestine

C) Blunt trauma to the spleen

D) Bullet injury to the liver

Q3) EMT care for an open chest wound and an abdominal evisceration are similar in that:

A) air must be periodically released from both wounds.

B) occlusive dressings are placed over both wounds.

C) moist dressings are placed over both wounds.

D) both wounds can cause the trapping of air in the body.

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Chapter 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42720

Sample Questions

Q1) You observe a traumatically injured 3-year-old female immobilized to a long spine board with no padding behind the neck, shoulders, or back. Which one of the following is the issue of most concern with this oversight?

A) Airway compromise

B) Extension of the cervical spine

C) Bruising to the back

D) Pain and discomfort

Q2) Assessment of a 79-year-old female with a long history of medical complaints reveals tenderness and deformity to her left hip. Staff at the personal care home state that she slipped in some water and fell onto her buttocks. Currently, she is alert and oriented and stating the pain is 10/10. Regarding care of her leg, which one of the following is most appropriate?

A) Apply traction with a traction splint until the pain subsides.

B) Straighten the leg and splint it in that position.

C) Determine the presence of a pedal pulse, and then apply the traction splint.

D) Maintain the leg in the position found and transfer to a long spine board.

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn

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91 Verified Questions

91 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42721

Sample Questions

Q1) You have been dispatched to a residence for a female patient who is dizzy and "passing out." An Emergency Medical Responder meets you at the door and reports that the patient is lying in bed and is nine months pregnant. Her pulse rate is 112 and her blood pressure is 84/50 mmHg. Respirations are 24 per minute and she has a room air pulse oximetry reading of 97%. Which one of the following should you do as soon as you reach the patient's side?

A) Recheck the blood pressure.

B) Roll her onto her side.

C) Determine any complications of the pregnancy.

D) Start positive pressure ventilation.

Q2) The EMT shows he understands care of the post-delivery mother when he states:

A) "Allowing the baby to nurse immediately after delivery can help to control uterine bleeding."

B) "We should be concerned if there is any bleeding from the vagina following delivery."

C) "If blood is observed coming from the vagina after the baby has been delivered, the mother should be placed in the shock position."

D) "Post-delivery hemorrhage can best be controlled by inserting a bulky dressing into the vagina."

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Chapter 38: Pediatrics

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100 Verified Questions

100 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42722

Sample Questions

Q1) You have been called to a local day care for a sick child. On scene, panicked day care workers inform you that the 4-year-old child was lethargic all morning and wanted to sleep. After resting for several minutes, she began to "shake all over." This lasted for approximately 30 seconds. Your assessment reveals her to be responsive to painful stimuli and breathing adequately. Her airway is open and her radial pulse is strong and bounding. Her skin is hot and moist to the touch with no signs of cyanosis. You are told that she has no medical history. En route to the hospital, the patient's mental status improves. Based on this presentation and information, you assume that the seizure occurred secondary to:

A) hypoxia.

B) fever.

C) hypoglycemia.

D) altered mental status.

Q2) A coworker is telling you about a recent run in which he provided care to a preschooler. Based on this description, you know that age of the patient would have been:

A) 1-2 years.

B) 3-6 years.

C) 6-8 years.

D) more than 9 years.

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Chapter 39: Geriatrics

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58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42723

Sample Questions

Q1) You have been called by the caregiver of a 91-year-old female with dementia. The patient is complaining of pain and deformity to her upper left arm. As you assess the patient, you note various bruises to the patient's body, and become suspicious of elder abuse. What action is most appropriate at this time?

A) Contact the police to report your suspicion.

B) Confront the caregiver regarding the bruises to the patient's arm.

C) Ask the patient if she is being abused.

D) Treat the patient for a possible broken arm.

Q2) A patient with cataracts would most likely complain of:

A) cloudy vision.

B) color blindness.

C) loss of peripheral vision.

D) intermittent blindness.

Q3) When assessing a 91-year-old female who fell, what assessment finding should concern the EMT most?

A) Skin tear that appears infected on her arm

B) Heart rate of 90 beats per minute

C) Sudden onset of confusion

D) History of osteoporosis and leg pain

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Patients With Special Challenges

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66 Verified Questions

66 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42724

Sample Questions

Q1) On scene, you must lead a patient's visually impaired wife from the house to the ambulance. This is best accomplished by:

A) verbally instructing her past obstacles.

B) physically carrying her to the ambulance.

C) placing her hand on the stretcher for guidance.

D) placing her hand on your shoulder.

Q2) A patient has accidentally removed his peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC). Which of the following would be appropriate in the care of this patient?

A) Place an occlusive dressing over the insertion site to prevent air entry.

B) Apply a tourniquet just above the site to decrease air entry into the body.

C) Place a splint on the extremity and wrap site with a pressure dressing.

D) Apply a bulky dressing to the insertion site to control any bleeding.

Q3) Poor position of an obese patient on the stretcher would most likely result in:

A) hypotension.

B) skin breakdown.

C) respiratory distress.

D) back pain.

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Chapter 41: The Combat Veteran

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23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42725

Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a 34-year-old male with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following instructions to your crew would be most appropriate?

A) "We must remove family members from around him."

B) "We need to determine if he feels suicidal or homicidal."

C) "We need to determine if he has ever killed anyone."

D) "We need to determine if he remembers the event that caused the PTSD."

Q2) Which of the following is true regarding post-traumatic stress disorder?

A) There is no cure for the post-traumatic stress disorder.

B) All military veterans will eventually become debilitated from PTSD.

C) The symptoms of PTSD are evident within 6 months of an event.

D) PTSD can be cured with timely intervention and medication use.

Q3) You are assessing a military veteran complaining of a headache, visual disturbances, and generalized anxiety. You suspect that he may be suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). What questions would be most appropriate in getting additional information regarding the possibility of PTSD?

A) "Were you forced to kill anyone?"

B) "What branch of the military did you serve?"

C) "Where did you see combat?"

D) "Do you need alcohol to get through the day?"

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Page 43

Chapter 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42726

Sample Questions

Q1) You are instructing a group of new EMTs on the basics of driving an emergency vehicle. What would you emphasize as the most frequent situation or location in which collisions involving ambulances occur?

A) Parking lots

B) Backing up

C) Intersections

D) Emergency scenes

Q2) You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision and must look for an area to land a medical helicopter. As such, what would be best?

A) Flat sloped square area 40 × 40 feet free of debris

B) Small flat concrete lot with light posts on all sides

C) Level and well-maintained parking lot that remains half-filled with cars

D) Open field that is level, but 250 feet from the accident

Q3) While responding to an emergency call, what should you do if you encounter a school bus unloading students?

A) Slow down and carefully proceed past the school bus.

B) Continue responding as you were, since you have the right of way.

C) Stop and wait for all children to cross the road safely.

D) Stop and determine an alternative route to the emergency.

Page 44

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Chapter 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42727

Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following situations represents simple access to a patient?

A) Unlocking a car door by breaking the window using a screwdriver

B) Forcing entry into a house

C) Climbing stairs to gain access to a patient on a porch

D) Extrication of a patient from a car after removing one door

Q2) A midsize car has been struck by a small delivery truck and sustained moderate damage to the front passenger area. The car is on its tires, and wood chocks have been placed under the undercarriage of the car. The air bags did not deploy. Which one of the following is the next step in this rescue?

A) Carefully deploy the air bags.

B) Extricate the patient.

C) Forcibly open the trunk.

D) Release air from the tires.

Q3) On the scene of a motor vehicle collision, which one of the following EMTs is engaged in simple extrication of the patient?

A) The EMT removing the patient from the car

B) The EMT entering the car to open the patient's airway

C) The EMT stabilizing the car to prevent it from moving

D) The EMT monitoring the scene for safety hazards

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Hazardous Materials

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42728

Sample Questions

Q1) A train carrying radioactive materials has derailed. The radiation safety officer informs you that you will be receiving a 31-year-old male who was exposed to the radioactive material. As such, you should recognize that:

A) the patient will require immediate decontamination.

B) the patient will be vomiting and will have lost his hair.

C) you will need special clothing to protect yourself from radiation.

D) the patient represents no contamination threat to you.

Q2) If the red diamond on a National Fire Protection Association placard contains a "4," the EMT should recognize that the material contained within is:

A) liquid.

B) radioactive.

C) a gas.

D) very flammable.

Q3) When working in the "warm" zone, the EMT must remember that:

A) contamination is no longer a threat.

B) water used does not have to be contained.

C) protective gear must be worn.

D) patient care is not performed.

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Chapter 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your EMS system uses the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system for triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident. Which item should you include in your triage assessment to determine the order in which patients will receive emergency care?

A) Chief complaint and vital signs

B) Respiratory and perfusion status

C) Level of consciousness and past medical history

D) Chief complaint, vital signs, and past medical history

Q2) A bleacher at a college has collapsed, and you are the first EMS unit to arrive on the scene. As you enter the gym, several patients are walking around with various injuries. What instruction is most appropriate for these ambulatory patients?

A) "Go outside and wait by the red fire truck in the parking lot and stay there."

B) "Sit down here so that I can do a quick assessment on you."

C) "Put this yellow tag on your wrist and go outside to the red fire truck in the parking lot."

D) "Leave this gym and wait outside. I will be out in a few minutes after I check others who cannot walk."

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons

of Mass Destruction

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42730

Sample Questions

Q1) You are participating in a training exercise for an attack by a weapon of mass destruction involving the release of a nerve agent. In the triage area, you are presented with a patient who responds to painful stimuli and has an open airway. He is breathing 8 times a minute and has a weak radial pulse. He is wheezing and has pinpoint pupils. In his pocket is located a metered-dose inhaler containing albuterol. When caring for this patient, you should first:

A) administer positive pressure ventilation.

B) obtain vital signs, including the temperature.

C) administer albuterol with the metered-dose inhaler.

D) look for an injury causing shock.

Q2) Multiple EMS agencies are involved in a WMD incident involving hundreds of patients. Which item regarding the different protocols and medical direction used by those different agencies is best?

A) EMTs should automatically be able to administer any medication that a paramedic can administer.

B) Most protocols involving on-line medical direction should convert to standing orders.

C) On-line medical direction should be used for any and all treatment by EMS.

D) All on-line medical direction should be suspended.

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Chapter 47: ALS-Assist Skills

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42731

Sample Questions

Q1) If the EMT fails to protect the sterility of the spike on the IV administration tubing while preparing equipment for starting an IV, what negative outcome may occur?

A) Clogging of the catheter

B) Infection in the patient

C) Too slow IV flow rate

D) Occlusion of the drip chamber

Q2) After attaching the administration set to the intravenous fluid bag, how is the drip chamber initially filled?

A) Open the flow control and let the drip chamber fill passively.

B) Close flow control, and then squeeze the bag to force fluid into the drip chamber.

C) Open the flow control and keep it positioned higher than the intravenous fluid bag.

D) Close the flow control, and then squeeze and release the drip chamber.

Q3) The hub connector on an IV is used to:

A) connect into the IV solution bag.

B) administer medications intravenously.

C) regulate the flow of IV fluid.

D) connect to the IV administration set.

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Chapter 48: Advanced Airway Management

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42732

Sample Questions

Q1) The EMT understands that capnometry informs the care provider of:

A) Level of oxygen in the lungs.

B) Amount of CO being exhaled.

C) Measure of O being delivered to the cells.

D) The adequacy of oxygen diffusion into the bloodstream.

Q2) Oxygen can be delivered more effectively by orotracheal intubation because:

A) a higher liter flow of oxygen can be used.

B) an air-tight seal can be made with the face mask of the BVM.

C) oxygen can be ventilated directly into the lungs.

D) a lower liter flow of oxygen can be used.

Q3) When checking for proper tube placement in a patient who has just been intubated, you note that breath sounds are heard in the epigastrium but not in either lung. In this situation, which one of the following represents the greatest threat to the patient's life?

A) Trauma to the airway

B) Hypoxia

C) Bleeding

D) Aspiration

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