Electrotherapy in Physical Therapy Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Electrotherapy in Physical Therapy explores the theoretical foundations and practical applications of electrical modalities used in the rehabilitation of musculoskeletal, neurological, and soft tissue conditions. This course covers the principles of electrical stimulation, types of currents, therapeutic mechanisms, and safety considerations. Students learn to assess patient needs, select appropriate modalities such as TENS, NMES, IFC, and ultrasound, and develop individualized treatment plans. Laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience in setting up equipment, adjusting parameters, and monitoring patient responses, preparing students to integrate electrotherapy effectively within comprehensive physical therapy interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD
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315 Verified Questions
315 Flashcards
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Roles in the Patient Care Management Model
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is cold therapy often used during the initial stages of injury?
A) Cold increases blood flow to promote healing.
B) Cold blocks A-beta nerve fiber conduction to decrease pain.
C) Cold stimulates release of bradykinins into the tissues to cause vasodilation.
D) Cold causes vasoconstriction, resulting in decreased blood flow to injured tissues.
Answer: D
Q2) Why is pregnancy widely considered a contraindication to the use of modalities?
A) Ligamentous laxity during pregnancy may be increased.
B) Effectiveness of modalities during pregnancy has not been determined.
C) The effect of modalities on fetal development is unknown.
D) Pregnant patients cannot be properly positioned to receive modality treatments.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Cold Therapy Modalities
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Q1) The physiological effects of cryotherapy are primarily a result of which of the following?
A) Stimulation of free nerve endings in the skin
B) Release of vasodynamic hormones
C) Increase in nerve conduction velocity
D) Decrease in tissue temperature
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following correctly lists contraindications for cold therapy?
A) Severe acute pain, joint effusion, muscle atrophy
B) Postoperative swelling, paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, neurapraxia
C) Open wound, cold urticaria, peripheral vascular disease
D) Raynaud's phenomenon, upper motor neuron lesion, decreased joint range of motion
Answer: C
Q3) The addition of compression to cold therapy can improve which of the following?
A) Microcirculation and tissue oxygenation
B) Vasoconstriction and histamine release
C) Nerve conduction velocity and tissue hypoxia
D) Analgesia and edema formation
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Therapeutic Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about Fluidotherapy is true?
A) Heat transfer with Fluidotherapy occurs via thermal conduction from the cellulose material to the superficial tissues.
B) Some people may be able to tolerate higher temperatures using Fluidotherapy versus other heating modalities because it is dry heat.
C) One disadvantage of Fluidotherapy is that a patient must hold a limb still during the treatment in order to maximize the therapeutic benefits.
D) The recommended temperature range of Fluidotherapy is much lower than that recommended for a hot whirlpool treatment.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding air-activated heat wraps?
A) They maintain a temperature of 40°C up to 8 hours.
B) Air activates small magnetic coils in the wraps, which produce heat.
C) They can be reused up to five times after activation.
D) They provide a comfortable prolonged low-level moist heat.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of low-intensity pulsed ultrasound (LIPUS) except
A) It is delivered at much lower intensities (0.03 watts/cm²) than conventionally delivered US.
B) It is delivered via a moving applicator that contacts the skin through the regular ultrasonic gel just like other forms of US.
C) It produces fracture healing by increasing bone angiogenesis and stimulating osteogenesis.
D) Application is standardized and does not have to be set but is programmed into the applicator.
Q2) Ultrasound (US) creates heat in tissues most likely as the result of
A) Acoustic steaming
B) Stable cavitation
C) Molecular vibration
D) Acoustic reflection
Q3) There is strong substantiated evidence for the use of continuous US to treat
A) Pain and dysfunction of carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Pain and dysfunction associated with lateral epicondylitis
C) Limited range of motion (ROM) associated with frozen shoulder
D) Dysfunction associated with nonspecific shoulder conditions
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Hydrotherapy: the Use of Water As a Therapeutic Agent
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old male with cerebral palsy is referred for balance and gait training secondary to severe balance and endurance problems that were the result of a medication reaction used to treat anxiety. Which of the following is true regarding pool therapy for this patient?
A) Pool therapy is contraindicated for this patient because of his severe balance problems.
B) He would likely benefit from exercise on a treadmill in a pool to improve endurance.
C) Pool therapy can be used to improve endurance, balance, and gait.
D) He cannot begin pool therapy until his anxiety is controlled by medication.
Q2) Which of the following is true with regard to the effects of water on the cardiopulmonary system?
A) There is better lung expansion in water than on land, resulting in decreased respiratory rate.
B) Immersion in water has no measurable effect on blood pressure.
C) Perceived exertion is a better measure of patient effort than heart rate when exercising in water.
D) Most patients tolerate the cardiopulmonary system changes best when they enter and exit the water as quickly as possible.
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Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Modalities: Laser, Diathermy, and
Pulsed Electromagnetic Fields
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the results of research studies on the effects of diathermy on pain?
A) Reduction of pain occurred in studies using thermal and nonthermal diathermy.
B) Reduction of pain occurred only in studies using thermal diathermy.
C) Studies are inconclusive.
D) Insignificant changes in pain levels occurred following diathermy.
Q2) Dosage for LLLT should be documented as which of the following?
A) Watts per square centimeter or point
B) Joules per square centimeter or point
C) Photons per centimeter or point
D) Milliamps per centimeter or point
Q3) Why must all external metallic objects be removed in the vicinity of diathermy treatments?
A) Metals can interfere with the flow of electromagnetic waves.
B) Metallic objects will block the transmission of electromagnetic waves.
C) Metals will heat faster than tissues, which may cause burns.
D) Metallic objects will prevent proper positioning of the capacitive plates or inductive drums.
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Chapter 7: Spinal Traction
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Q1) Which of the following is correct with regard to cervical traction?
A) Approximately 30 to 45 pounds of traction force is required to achieve vertebral separation in the cervical spine.
B) Patients always have better outcomes when the traction force is as high as they can tolerate.
C) Cervical traction applied with the patient sitting requires more force to achieve the desired effect than when applied with the patient supine.
D) A person with a history of temporomandibular joint problems should not have any form of cervical traction.
Q2) Which of the following lists contains only contraindications or precautions for traction?
A) Spinal instability, uncontrolled hypertension, claustrophobia
B) Infection, osteoarthritis, hiatal hernia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis, facet joint capsulitis, upper extremity radiculopathy
D) Spine cancer, hiatal hernia, herniated nucleus pulposus
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Chapter 8: Intermittent Pneumatic Compression
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Sample Questions
Q1) IPC pressure must be above which of the following arterial capillary pressures to be useful in assisting an arteriovenous (A-V) pressure gradient and encouraging the absorption of edema?
A) 30 mmHg
B) 10 mmHg
C) 60 mmHg
D) 120 mmHg
Q2) Which of the following instructions would be most helpful for a patient who has just completed the first IPC treatment for lower extremity edema?
A) Put the leg in a dependent position as soon as possible to prevent ischemia.
B) Compensatory swelling in other areas of the body is an expected response to IPC.
C) Avoid moving the treated limb for as long as possible.
D) Wear compression garments to maintain changes in limb volume.
Q3) Which of the following is a common benign response following an IPC treatment?
A) Slight transient dizziness and unsteadiness
B) Numbness of the extremity
C) Persistent shortness of breath for several hours
D) Depressed circumferential lines on limb
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Chapter 9: Foundations of Clinical Electrotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Ohm's law, an 80 volt (V) circuit passing through 4 ohms of tissue impedance (resistance) will have how many amps (A) of current?
A) 240 A
B) 160 A
C) 0.05 A
D) 20 A
Q2) If the phase durations of a biphasic pulse are 150 sec each and the interphase interval is 50 sec, what is the total pulse duration?
A) 350 sec
B) 100 sec
C) 550 sec
D) 300 sec
Q3) According to Ohm's law, when using a device that has a constant voltage, what will happen to the current when the skin resistance increases?
A) The current increases.
B) The patient will feel a short-duration shock.
C) There is no change in current.
D) The current decreases.
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Chapter 10: Clinical Electrical Stimulation: Application and Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a "motor point"?
A) Location of receptors in the skin that best respond to electrical stimulation
B) Place where the greatest motor response is found for a given amount of stimulation
C) Point over a muscle where point stimulation will locate greatest resistance to current
D) Hypothetical location of alpha motor neuron in the muscle
Q2) Which electrode choice below is most appropriate when the goal of electrical stimulation is to produce a strong muscle contraction in a large muscle group, such as the quadriceps?
A) Any size electrode will work as long as it is over the motor point of the muscle.
B) Large electrodes will help disperse the current over a larger area to improve patient tolerance.
C) Small electrodes are best because motor threshold stimulation requires a high current density.
D) A probe electrode is best because it focuses the stimulation on the motor points of the muscle.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Pain and Use of Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) When selecting small electrodes to administer TENS, which of the following must be considered in regard to the patient's perception and tolerance of the stimulation?
A) Hypersensitivity reactions
B) Inter-electrode distance
C) Current density
D) The electrode polarity
Q2) Which of the following best reflects the evidence-based recommendations for the duration of a TENS treatment when used for knee osteoarthritis?
A) Less than 15 minutes
B) 40 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) Several hours of continuous stimulation
Q3) Which of the following types of pain is the result of real tissue damage caused by infection, trauma, or the progression of a metabolic disorder or degenerative disease?
A) Referred
B) Acute
C) Chronic
D) Intractable
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Modalities for Improving Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When heating muscle tissues prior to stretching, what is the minimum increase in temperature for eliciting plastic deformation in the tissues?
A) 39°F
B) 15°F
C) 60°F
D) 100°F
Q2) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate for use over the Achilles tendon to facilitate an increase in dorsiflexion ROM?
A) Heating pack
B) Fluidotherapy
C) Continuous ultrasound
D) Paraffin wax
Q3) For a patient having undergone ankle immobilization following a sprain, which of the following clinical measures best supports the administration of therapeutic modalities?
A) Active range of motion (AROM) ankle dorsiflexion of +2 degrees
B) AROM ankle inversion of 40 degrees
C) 4+/5 strength of the ankle evertors
D) Decreased stance time during gait
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Chapter 13: Electrotherapy for Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for biofeedback?
A) Muscle spasticity
B) Diabetes
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) There are no contraindications for biofeedback.
Q2) Research studies on the effect of NMES on quadriceps strength following anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction found increased strength in the quadriceps using which of the following stimulation intensities?
A) 10% below muscle contraction
B) 50% of maximum voluntary contraction
C) 100% maximum voluntary contraction
D) Maximum tolerated current
Q3) When selecting a stimulator for NMES, which of the following types of stimulators will be effective?
A) Only large line-powered NMES devices
B) Only portable battery-operated NMES devices
C) Either line-powered or battery-operated NMES devices
D) Any device, including TENS and direct current (DC) devices
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15
Chapter 14: Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation Nmes
and Functional Electrical Stimulation Fes in Patients With
Neurological Diagnoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In patients with neurological conditions who have spasticity, why is a longer ramp-up time required when stimulating the antagonist muscle?
A) Increases tolerance to the onset of the stimulation
B) Causes greater recruitment of motor units
C) Avoids a quick stretch of the spastic muscle
D) Offsets the shorter ramp-down time
Q2) Studies have shown that FES for upper extremity function has been effective in facilitating functional use of the extremity in which of the following patient populations?
A) Those who have had a stroke
B) Those with traumatic brain injury
C) Those having a spinal cord injury
D) All of the above
Q3) NMES applied to the antagonist muscle for patients with spasticity will reduce spasticity based on which of the following theories?
A) Reciprocal inhibition of the spastic agonist muscle
B) Recurrent inhibition via Renshaw cells
C) Sensory habituation of the antagonist muscle
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D) Facilitation of parasympathetic neurons in the limb
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Modalities for Tissue Healing
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Q1) What does the current research literature on the use of MIRE for the treatment of sensory neuropathy show?
A) Research is conclusive that MIRE is effective in restoring sensation.
B) No studies demonstrate that MIRE is effective for this condition.
C) No consistent body of evidence exists supporting MIRE for this condition.
D) Research remains inconclusive regarding effectiveness and concern about harmful side effects.
Q2) The smallest effective dose of ultraviolet (UV) light should be used for treatment of skin conditions because?
A) UV light can cause permanent discoloration of the skin.
B) The threshold for skin burns is very low and must be avoided.
C) Circulatory compromise has been shown to occur at higher doses.
D) Accumulative effects of UV light are associated with certain cancers.
Q3) Which of the following is thought to be the primary mechanism of action of negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for wound healing?
A) Decreased blood flow
B) Microdeformation of cells
C) Facilitation of fibrinolysis
D) Bacteriocidal effects
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Alternative Modalities for Pain and Tissue
Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are typical parameters used during hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)?
A) 2 to 3 atmospheres absolute (ATA) for a duration of 30 to 120 minutes
B) 5 to 10 ATA for a duration of 2 to 4 hours
C) 50 to 100 ATA for a duration of 4 to 6 hours
D) 500 to 1,000 ATA for a duration of 6 to 8 hours
Q2) Which of the following is the proposed physiological effect of HBOT?
A) Increased release of nitrous oxide from red blood cells
B) Release of histamine and bradykinins into the circulatory system
C) Softening of tropocollagen bonds in connective tissues
D) Increased amount of physically dissolved oxygen in plasma
Q3) In the United States, HBOT is approved by Medicare for treatment of which of the following conditions?
A) Plantar fasciitis
B) COPD
C) Diabetic foot ulcers
D) Acute sprains and strains
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Electrophysiological Testing of Nerves and Muscles
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Q1) When reporting the results of an EMG exam the practitioner should refrain from which of the following statements?
A) There is a conduction block of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.
B) The patient has segmental demyelination of the posterior tibial nerve.
C) The patient's symptoms are caused by a herniated disc at L4-5.
D) Results of the EMG are consistent with neuromuscular junction disease.
Q2) Why must the temperature of the examination room be kept at a constant temperature and skin temperature monitored during nerve conduction studies?
A) Fluctuations in temperature will cause patients to be uncomfortable during the test.
B) Decreased temperatures will result in slowing of nerve conduction velocity.
C) Muscle response to stimulation will be altered if the temperature varies.
D) Decreased temperatures will result in faster nerve conduction velocities.
Q3) Which of the following are primary indicators of demyelination of a nerve?
A) Positive sharp waves and decreased sensory and muscle action potentials
B) Prolonged distal latencies and slowing of nerve conduction velocity
C) Decreased amplitude and blocked nerve conduction
D) Shorter distal latencies and increased nerve conduction velocity
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