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Electrocardiography is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practical applications of recording and interpreting the electrical activity of the heart. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the cardiovascular system, the physics behind electrocardiogram (ECG) signal generation, electrode placement, and the standard 12-lead ECG configuration. Students will learn to identify normal and abnormal ECG patterns, including arrhythmias, myocardial infarction, and conduction blocks. Practical sessions focus on hands-on skill development in performing ECGs, recognizing technical errors, and correlating findings with clinical presentations. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking and diagnostic reasoning to prepare students for future roles in clinical practice and healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
EKG Plain and Simple 3rd Edition by Karen Ellis RN
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Q1) The semilunar valves are the aortic and mitral valves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The heart's top and bottom chambers are separated by valves that prevent backflow of blood.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The pericardium is the layer of the heart that is damaged during a heart attack. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The coronary artery that feeds blood to the right ventricle and the inferior wall of the left ventricle is the _____.
Answer: Right coronary artery
Q5) The left atrium pumps blood into the right atrium. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) After the sinus node initiates an impulse,where does the impulse go next?
A)Interatrial tracts
B)Purkinje fibers
C)Ventricular tissue
D)Bundle branches
Answer: A
Q2) Normal QRS interval is _____ seconds or less than three small blocks. Answer: <0.12
Q3) The pacemaker with the slowest inherent rate is the _____. Answer: Ventricle
Q4) The cardiac cell at rest has what kind of electrical charge?
A)Positive charge
B)Negative charge
C)Neutral charge
D)No charge at all Answer: B
Q5) Normal conduction begins with the pacemaker of the heart,the _____. Answer: Sinus node
Q6) Atrial depolarization is represented on the EKG as a _____. Answer: P wave
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Q1) The _____ is the structure obtained from joining leads I,II,and III at the middle.
Answer: Triaxial diagram
Q2) V1 through V6 are the
A)Bipolar leads.
B)Frontal leads.
C)Augmented leads.
D)Precordial leads.
Answer: D
Q3) It is abnormal for the QRS to be negative in AVR.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A _____ is an arrow that depicts the general direction of current flow.
Answer: vector
Q5) The tallest QRS complex should be in lead _____.
Answer: II
Q6) A lead is an electrocardiographic _____.
Answer: Picture of the heart
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Q1) The EKG machine control feature that controls the size of the waves and complexes is the _____.
Q2) Using an EKG machine with frayed wires is not dangerous if the wires are taped together.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Small adhesive patches with conductive gel on the skin side are A)Cables.
B)Electrodes.
C)Conduits.
D)Oscilloscopes.
Q4) The "gain" setting on the EKG machine is concerned with A)The amplitude of the waves and complexes.
B)The size of the patient.
C)Einthoven's law.
D)Electrical conduction through the bundle branches.
Q5) Sometimes,the presence of artifact can be verified by changing the lead. A)True
B)False
Q6) The word "somatic" means _____.
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Q1) If the QRS complexes are all 50 little blocks apart,the heart rate is _____.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a method of calculating heart rate?
A)The six-second strip method.
B)The little block method.
C)The memory method.
D)The P-P interval method.
Q3) The most accurate way to calculate heart rate on an irregular rhythm is the six-second strip method.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atrial rate can be calculated by counting
A)QRS complexes.
B)P waves.
C)PR intervals.
D)R-R intervals.
Q5) The most accurate way to determine heart rate would be to
A)Count the number of P waves in a minute-long rhythm strip.
B)Count the number of QRS complexes in a minute-long rhythm strip.
C)Count the number of QRS complexes on a six-second strip and multiply by 10.
D)Count the number of P waves on a six-second strip and multiply by 10.
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Q1) A rhythm originating in the sinus node should NOT have which of the following?
A)Narrow QRS complexes of uniform shape
B)Regularly spaced QRS complexes
C)Absent QRS complexes
D)Heart rate of 60-100
Q2) The normal rhythm of the heart is called _____.
Q3) The normal rhythm originating in the sinus node should have a heart rate
A)Greater than 100.
B)Less than 60.
C)Between 40 and 60.
D)Between 60 and 100.
Q4) A rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 is a tachycardia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A rhythm with a heart rate greater than 100 is a tachycardia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Multiple P waves preceding the QRS complexes are typical of sinus rhythm.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following sinus rhythms would be expected with stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)Sinus rhythm rate 68
B)Sinus bradycardia rate 45
C)Sinus arrhythmia rate 45-73
D)Sinus tachycardia rate 125
Q2) A pause that occurs when the sinus node's impulse is not conducted out of the sinus node itself is
A)Sinus arrest.
B)Sinus arrhythmia.
C)Sinus bradycardia.
D)Sinus block.
Q3) Which of the following is true about sinus rhythm?
A)It is regular.
B)It has an irregularly irregular pattern of QRS complexes.
C)It has multiple shapes of P waves.
D)It has wide QRS complexes without preceding P waves.
Q4) An artificial pacemaker can be used to treat sinus bradycardia.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Paroxysmal means
A)Starting and stopping suddenly.
B)Life-threatening.
C)Premature.
D)Prolonged.
Q2) Wandering atrial pacemaker has at least _____ different shapes of P waves.
Q3) Blood clots in the atria are associated with atrial fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) SVT stands for
A)Sinus ventricular tachycardia.
B)Supraventricular tension.
C)Sinus valvular tachycardia.
D)Supraventricular tachycardia.
Q5) Frequent PACs can be a sign of impending
A)Heart failure.
B)Sinus arrest.
C)Respiratory failure.
D)Cardiac arrest.
Q6) The P wave of a PAC is shaped _____from sinus P waves.
10
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Q1) Junctional bradycardia is usually the result of usurpation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) PJCs are _____beats from AV junction.
Q3) Atropine should be given for junctional bradycardia if the patient is _____.
Q4) Junctional tachycardia has a heart rate of
A)40-60.
B)60-100.
C)Less than 40.
D)Greater than 100.
Q5) In which rhythm is decreased cardiac output most likely to be a concern?
A)Sinus rhythm
B)Accelerated junctional rhythm
C)Junctional bradycardia
D)Junctional rhythm
Q6) SVT and junctional tachycardia are similar in that
A)Both have inverted P waves.
B)Both can have hidden P waves.
C)Both have heart rates less than 40.
D)Both require electrical shock to the heart.
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Q1) Ventricular fibrillation has A)No P waves or QRS complexes.
B)P waves but no QRS complexes.
C)QRS complexes but no T waves.
D)P waves and QRS complexes.
Q2) Ventricular tachycardia has a heart rate of A)Greater than 100.
B)60-100.
C)40-60.
D)20-40.
Q3) All the following are appropriate treatment for asystole EXCEPT A)Electrical shock to the heart.
B)CPR.
C)Oxygen.
D)Pacemaker.
Q4) QRS complexes in ventricular rhythms should be _____ seconds wide.
Q5) P wave asystole differs from asystole in that P wave asystole has P waves;asystole is _____.
Q6) Agonal rhythm has a heart rate less than _____.
Q7) Accelerated idioventricular rhythm has a heart rate between _____.
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Q1) Complete heart block is another name for A)Wenckebach.
B)Mobitz II second-degree AV block.
C)Third-degree AV block.
D)First-degree AV block.
Q2) All AV blocks involve a disturbance in conduction somewhere between the atria and the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wenckebach is a type of
A)First-degree AV block.
B)Second-degree AV block.
C)Third-degree AV block.
D)Fourth-degree AV block.
Q4) Third-degree AV block has
A)One P wave to each QRS.
B)A varying R-R interval.
C)A constant PR interval.
D)A varying PR interval.
Q5) The origin of the P waves in AV blocks is the _____.
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Q1) Right bundle branch block (RBBB)is characterized by
A)RSR' configuration in V1.
B)Tall,pointy P waves.
C)Symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
D)More P waves than QRS complexes.
Q2) Low voltage EKGs can be caused by ALL BUT which of the following?
A)Obesity
B)Thyroid gland malfunction
C)Emphysema
D)Hypertension
Q3) Right bundle branch block has a QRS interval of at least _____ seconds.
Q4) If the heart's current originates in the left ventricle and travels upward to the right,there would be right axis deviation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Right ventricular hypertrophy is commonly caused by chronic lung disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Left ventricular hypertrophy is determined by adding _____.
Q7) _____ is potassium deficit in the bloodstream.
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Q1) Which of the following is indicative of myocardial injury?
A)ST elevation
B)ST depression
C)Significant Q wave
D)Inverted T wave
Q2) The _____ of an old STEMI typically remains on the EKG forever.
A)ST segment elevation
B)ST segment depression
C)Inverted T waves
D)Significant Q wave
Q3) Which of the following is a reciprocal change seen in the area opposite an infarct?
A)ST elevation
B)ST depression
C)Tall,pointy T waves
D)Widened QRS complexes
Q4) An age-indeterminate MI is called a _____ by some authorities.
Q5) A _____ MI is seen as a mirror image of an anterior MI.
Q6) Explain where the leads are placed for a right-sided EKG.
Q7) Anterior MI has indicative changes in leads _____.
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Q1) Pacemaker spikes inside T waves and QRS complexes are a sign of which malfunction?
A)Failure to fire
B)Oversensing
C)Undersensing
D)Loss of capture
Q2) Rate-responsive pacemakers provide a QRS after the patient's intrinsic P waves,up to a certain rate limit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) VVI pacemakers are the most-used pacemakers in this country.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pacemaker batteries last 5 to 15 years,depending on their use.
A)True
B)False
Q5) AED stands for _____.
Q6) Emergency cardiac medications should be given by mouth during a cardiac arrest.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Bayes' Theorem has to do with
A)The sensitivity and specificity of the stress test results.
B)Which patients will be predicted to complete the maximal stress test.
C)The predicted cardiac output during exercise stress testing.
D)The predicted workload of a treadmill versus a bicycle stress test.
Q2) The most commonly used device for exercise stress testing is the arm ergometer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the stress test is positive but an angiogram reveals normal coronary arteries,the stress test is said to have been a
A)True positive.
B)False positive.
C)True negative.
D)False negative.
Q4) A MET is a measurement of oxygen consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bayes' Theorem is concerned with the _____ of stress test results.
Q6) A positive stress test implies that _____ is present.
Q7) Thallium-201 enters the heart in much the same way as the ion _____.
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